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Biology Final-A > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Who thermoregulates?

A

Mammals and birds.

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2
Q

What are the 6 heat transfers discussed in class that can result in a gain or loss of heat?

A

Conduction, convection, radiation

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3
Q

Conduction? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Transfer of Ke through physical contant.

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4
Q

Convection? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Transfer of Ke through fluid flow

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5
Q

Radiation? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Transfer of Ke through electromagnetic radiation.

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6
Q

How can heat be lost? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Evaporation

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7
Q

How can heat be gained? (example of thermoregulation)

A

Metabolism

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8
Q

Metabolism?

A

biochemical processes that are carried out; resulting in heat as a biproduct.

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9
Q

What is Fick’s equation for heat transfer?

A

F=Ka(T1-T2/D)

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10
Q

What is physiological regulation? (who uses this?)

A

Actively regulating your internal state based on external conditions. (mammals and birds)

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11
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of physiological regulation?

A

Can tolerate a wider variety of conditions, better active range in crazy conditions ://: Energetically expensive, must have evolved regulatory system.

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12
Q

What is Environmental conformation?

A

You staying within environmental norms. Ex: your internal temp is the same as the outside.

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13
Q

Advantages/Disadvantages to Environmental conformation?

A

More energy affordable ://: not as well suited for a particular environment.

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14
Q

What is behavioral regulation?

A

Using environmental heat to keep your internal state warm.

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15
Q

Advantages/Disadvantages to behavioral regulation?

A

Lower energy cost, can regulate body temp at certain times of the day ://: ability to thermoregulate depends on environmental conditions.

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16
Q

What are the two types of major heat sources in animals?

A

Endotherms + Ectotherms.

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17
Q

What is the difference between Endotherms + Ectotherms?

A

Ecto-don’t produce adequate body heat. (uses environment)

Endo- Does (regulates themselves)

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18
Q

How much more energy do mammals use then reptiles?

A

Roughly ten times.

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19
Q

what’s the difference between Homeotherms + Heterotherms

A

Homo-have fairly constant body temperature

Hetero- does not

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20
Q

What are adaptations to increase efflux?

A

Reduce Sa, increase fat(insulation), trap still air (fur or feathers)

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21
Q

What are methods for decreasing temperature differential?

A

torpor or hibernation to reduce overall body temperature• Use countercurrent exchange-to reduce heat of blood in extremities

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22
Q

What is osmoregulation?

A

The regulation of the concentration of ECF and ICF

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23
Q

What things does osmoregulation control?

A

Total water content (ecf), Overall osmolarity (ecf), concentration of specific solutes, ions, and nitrogenous waste (ecf).

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24
Q

T/F: if the regulation of ecf and icf is good so will the regulation within the cell?

A

True

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25
Q

Excretion?

A

Unwanted substances removed from the ecf

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26
Q

Secretion?

A

anything leaving the ecf

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27
Q

Absorption?

A

moving substances in ecf.

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28
Q

Reabsorption?

A

anything returning to the ecf

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29
Q

Filtration?

A

forcing solution through a biological sieve

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30
Q

What are the end products of protein metabolism?

A

Nitrogenous waste.

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31
Q

whats the most efficient nitrogenous waste?

A

Ammonia- High solubuilty and toxcitiy: low energy loss.

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32
Q

what instances require animals to osmoregulate?

A

differing concentration then their external conditions

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33
Q

what’s an osmoconformer?

A

an organism (shark) who is isosmotic with the Environment (sea).

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34
Q

Shark:

A

most primative case study, NaCl influx at gills, use rectal gland to get rid of NaCl, no active consumption of water

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35
Q

Marine fish vs freshwater fish:

A

Ff: Challenged by ion efflux and water influx, pee a lot a lot and dont drink/// Mf: challenged by ion influx and water efflux, small amounts of pee, drink water.

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36
Q

Terrestrials osmoregulation struggles are?

A

water loss, sufficient ions, elimination of nitrogenous waste.

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37
Q

secretion vs filtration system:

A

secretion gets rid of the components all together, while filtration collects the unnecessary things.

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38
Q

in terrestrials where is keratin found and what is it’s purpose.

A

Keratin is found in the epidermal layers, and reduces the levels of evaporation.

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39
Q

can kidneys produce hyperosmotic waste?

A

yes

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40
Q

What is the main waste product in humans?

A

Urea

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41
Q

Nephron layers: Outer? Inner

A

Cortex, Medulla.

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42
Q

Whats the concentration of the ecf in the cortex vs medulla.

A

300 mOsm vs 1400 mOsm

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43
Q

Decrease in water in the body does what to ADH?

A

Increases in: ADH, density of aquaporins, water reabsoption, urine concentration

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44
Q

Increase in water in the does what to ADH?

A

Decreases ADH, density of aquaporins, water reabsorption, urine concentration

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45
Q

What does the mammalian kidney do?

A

regulates ecf volume indirectly by directly adjusting urine volume. Also, helps in osmoregulation .

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46
Q

The mammalian kidney is a blank?

A

Filtration reabsorption system.

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47
Q

The dry the conditions the blank the medulla, the blank concentrated your urine is. why is your urine this way?

A

Deeper, more. To help aid in water retention (mice.)

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48
Q

Insects have a blank membrane composed of blank.

A

highly, wax and chitin, aiding in water retention

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49
Q

insects limit the air through them to prevent..

A

evaporation

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50
Q

What are Malpighian tubules? (insects)

A

tubes that extract water from the feces and urine.

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51
Q

How does a filtration based reabsorption system work.

A

water and small amounts of solutes leave the ecf via bulk flow and useful substances are then reabsorbed into the ecf.

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52
Q

What’s an example of a filtration based reabsorption system?

A

Mammalian kidney.

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53
Q

Describe the transition of blood to urine.

A

blood flow runs in a tubule right next to the nephron. Blood is filtered in the glomerulus. Filtered blood moves to the bowmen’s capsule. The filtered substance moves to the proximal tubule. The filtered product moves to the loop of Henele. The filtered product moves to the distal tubule. The final step is into the collection duct.

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54
Q

what happens at the proximal tubule.

A

Ions are secreted and reabsorbed.

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55
Q

what happens through the first half of The Loop of Henele?

A

the concentration increases as the filtered substances comes through. This drives water out of the loop via osmosis-aquaporins.

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56
Q

what happens through the second half of The Loop of Henele?

A

concentration starts to decrease and ions are drivein out via channel proteins.

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57
Q

What happens at the distal tubule?

A

As the substance continues to move up the loop of henele, the concentration starts to decrease to its normal levels. This drives out ions via carrier proteins.

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58
Q

What happens at the collecting duct.

A

controls the final concentration of urine.

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59
Q

All these processes above are creating:

A

Primary urine.

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60
Q

describe the flow of gas exchange in terrestrials.

A

air from environment enters-this goes through the respiratory surfaces- O2 moves through the circulation system via the blood- O2 enters the mitochondria- biproduct of cellular respiration, CO2 is released- CO2 travels through the circulatory system- CO2 is released at the ventilatory surfaces.

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61
Q

How are gases move in and out of the respiratory surfaces including the mitochondria?

A

diffusion.

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62
Q

How does circulatory system and the outside environment move products?

A

Bulk flow.

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63
Q

t/f bulk flow is the pressure driving force?

A

T

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64
Q

what things improve blood flow?

A

high pressure differential, low viscosity, increased diameter of tubules.

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65
Q

what is the equation of partial pressure.

A

= total pressure x fraction of the gas mixture.

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66
Q

what drives diffusion.

A

differences is in torr.

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67
Q

Partial pressure of a dissolved gas is affected by its?

A

solubility.

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68
Q

Partial pressure of a gas bound to a carrier is influenced by?

A

carrier affinity

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69
Q

characteristics of water for respiration:

A

Low O₂ content – less than 8 ml dissolved O₂ / liter water•Lower in seawater and with increasing temperature•High density and viscosity•Smaller coefficient for diffusion•High specific heat

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70
Q

characteristics of air for respiration:

A

High O₂ content – over 200 ml O₂ / liter air at sea level•Low density and viscosity – takes little energy to move•Greater coefficient for diffusion – faster diffusion, all else equal•Low specific heat – doesn’t absorb or offload much heat•Normally desiccating – causes water loss

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71
Q

In simple gills ventilation is ?

A

passive

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72
Q

complex gills:

A

Greatly increased surface area•Active, pumping ventilation providing one-way flow•Counter-current exchange between water and blood

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73
Q

most terrestrials have blank respiratory systems ?

A

invaginated

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74
Q

what does an active pumps do?

A

Moves water over gills to get maximal O2 absorption from the water.

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75
Q

describe counter current exchange:

A

blood and water flow moves in opposite directions

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76
Q

how do complex gills differ from simple gills?

A

increased SA, active pumps, counter current exchange,

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77
Q

what has trachea and how do they work?

A

Series of tubes (tracheae) that carry gases directly to and from tissues. Found in insects, myriapods and some arachnids

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78
Q

Spiracles?

A

(opening of tracheae) can be closed to reduce water loss

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79
Q

How do vertebrates use negative pressure ventilation systems?

A

ith an expansion of the thoracic cavity generating a drop in pressure

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80
Q

How do amphibians use negative pressure ventilation systems?

A

with an expansion of the thoracic cavity generating a drop in pressure

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81
Q

t/f most vertebrates use tidal flow systems while Avian use flow-through system?

A

T

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82
Q

Series of branching tubes:

A

Trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli

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83
Q

when we inhale our diaphragm moves?

A

down

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84
Q

Avian gas exchange occurs at?

A

Gas exchange occurs at parabronchi

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85
Q

what does a true circulatory system consist of?

A

•Blood vessels •One or more hearts to generate hydrostatic pressure •Blood (or hemolymph) that moves through vessels

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86
Q

Circulating blood can serve to:

A

Move respiratory gases•Move nutrients and wastes•Distribute hormones and immune-system cells•Distribute heat•Provide hydrostatic pressure

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87
Q

Open vs. Closed circulatory system:

A

Vessels empty into sinus// Blood stays in vessels throughout transit

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88
Q

Chambered pumps:

A

seen in humans, have a 1 way valve system, and can deal with a greater amount of pressure.

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89
Q

Peristaltic pumps:

A

Part of blood vessels. Limited to lower pressures.

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90
Q

Left side of the heart:

A

bigger and pumps blood to the body (systematically)

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91
Q

Right side of the heart:

A

Pumps to the pulmonary system:

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92
Q

The mammalian heart has _ atria and _ ventricles

A

2,2

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93
Q

Atrioventricular (AV) valves:

A

allow blood from atria to ventricles

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94
Q

Semilunar (SL) valves:

A

allow blood from ventricles to arteries

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95
Q

The contraction of the heart is known as?

A

Systolic

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96
Q

The relaxed stage of the heart is?

A

diastole

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97
Q

sinoatrial node does what?

A

Acts as the pacemaker of the heart, using electrical signals to start constractions.

98
Q

describe blood flow through the heart?

A

Blood enters the atrium form a vein- when enough pressure builds the av valve opens- blood flows through to the ventricle- once the pressure in ventricle is greater than the atrium the av closes- the Sl valve opens- blood is ejected from the artieres.

99
Q

a contraction would move blood from?

A

the atrium to the ventricle.

100
Q

Blood leaves lungs and enters tissues with?

A

104 torr and PCO₂ ≈ 40 torr

101
Q

Blood leaves tissues and enters lungs with ?

A

PO₂ ≈ 40 torr and PCO₂ ≈ 46 torr

102
Q

Hemoglobin and hemocyanin are?

A

O2 carries.

103
Q

t/f Each hemoglobin molecule can carry up to four O₂ molecules and are found in the rbc’s.

A

T

104
Q

Most CO₂ that enters the blood is converted into:

A

bicarbonate

105
Q

do to the reaction to form bicarbonate, The ECF becomes?

A

more acidic as CO2 levels increase.

106
Q

how do we decrease CO2 levels?

A

increase ventilation.

107
Q

When does O2 influence ventilation?

A

If P-O2 drops below 60 torr

108
Q

The relationship between PO₂ and the amount of O₂ bound to Hb is…

A

nonlinear

109
Q

When does O2 load on the hemaglobin?

A

at the lungs.

110
Q

when does O2 unload off the hemaglobin?

A

At the tissue.

111
Q

what feedback loops does the cns work in?

A

Negative feedback loops

112
Q

What does the nervous system consist of?

A

Neurons and Glial cells.

113
Q

what does the cns consist of?

A

Brain, Brain stem, Spinal cord

114
Q

What are the divisions of Pns:

A

Afferent and Efferent.

115
Q

What is the difference between the afferent and efferent division of the PNS?

A

afferent carriers information to the CNS

efferent carriers signals to the effectors

116
Q

Somatic nervous system vs. Autonomic nervous system

A

Autonomic- Smooth muscles (involuntary actions)

Somatic- skeletal muscles (voluntary actions)

117
Q

sympathetic vs parasympathetic nervous syestems?

A

Para-rest and digest

sym- fight or flight

118
Q

describe the neuron and its pieces?

A

reciving dendrite: receives ap from neighboring dendrite.
Soma: cell body and surrounds the nucleus
nucleus: houses dna and information to make proteins
axon: carriers the ap
axon terminal: where neurotransmitters are released.

119
Q

action potential moves from (blank) to (blank).

A

Presynaptic neuron to postsynaptic neuron.

120
Q

what are the three general types of neurons?

A

Sensory(afferent)-no “upstream” neural connection
Motor(efferent)-“downstream” connection to non-neural effectors
interneuron- connect only to other neurons

121
Q

(t/f) All cells have membrane potentials (Vm)

A

t

122
Q

what causes membrane potential?

A

unequal movement of ions across the membrane.

123
Q

the resting potential inside the cell is postive?

A

false it’s negative

124
Q

What determines the membrane potential?

A

K⁺ and Na⁺

125
Q

what are the differences in concentration of the ICF and ECF?

A

ICF: High K⁺ and low Na⁺
ECF: High Na⁺ and low K⁺

126
Q

Greater net efflux than influx of ⊕ ions negative Vm
Greater net influx than efflux of ⊕ ions positive Vm
t/f

A

T

127
Q

Permeability of membrane to each ion depends on presence of ?

A

channel proteins

128
Q

what causes an ap to occur?

A

if membrane potential rises above threshold potential

129
Q

depolarization phase vs. repolarization phase.

A

de: increase in membrane potential
re: decreases in membrane potential

130
Q

voltage gated channels are caused by?

A

changes in Vm

131
Q

What’s the difference between Na and K VG?

A

Na- opens quickly after the vm exceeds the threshold and closes after a short delay.
K- channels open slowly when Vm exceeds threshold. They close again when Vm drops below threshold.

132
Q

How do ap’s affect other adjacent areas?

A

Region near initial AP is brought above threshold voltage
VG Na⁺ channels activated
AP occurs in this new region
This new AP brings another region above threshold

133
Q

The Domino affect of ap’s is referred to as?

A

propagation.

134
Q

propagation can only be a forward affecter because?

A

refractory period.

135
Q

what is the junction where differing neurons communicate?

A

synapse.

136
Q

How is information transmitted between neurons?

A

Neurotransmitters.

137
Q

Nt’s can either blank or blank

A

excite or inhibit.

138
Q

where are neurotransmitter’s stored?

A

synaptic vesicles

139
Q

How are Nt’s released?

A

Ca protein channels opening, which signals the synaptic vesicles to move down to the main cell membrane and bind to the receptors .

140
Q

t/f receptors can be ion channels or can activate separate charges.

A

t

141
Q

what channels open and close for excitatory NT’s?

A

Na open and K closes

142
Q

what channels open and close for inhibitory NT’s

A

K opens and Na closes.

143
Q

The membrane potential in the postsynaptic neuron is called?

A

postsynaptic potential

144
Q

Depolarizing events in the postsynaptic neuron are called?

A

excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)

145
Q

Hyperpolarizing events in the postsynaptic neuron are called?

A

inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)

146
Q

Ap’s only cause EPSP’s?

A

False, they can cause EPSP’s and IPSP’s, which if happen near one anther in time and location sum together.

147
Q

neuronal integration:

A

the summation of the presynaptic nueron being transferred to the post synaptic nueron.

148
Q

Frequency of APs in postsynaptic neuron =

A

pain index

149
Q

What are the two signals in the of the endocrine system?

A

Neural signals and hormones

150
Q

The Nervous systems messages are typically…?

A

Faster and to a specific target.

151
Q

Hormonal messages are typically…?

A

Slower and more broadly targeted

152
Q

What are the classes of Chemical signals?

A

Neurotransmitters: Released by nuerons and travle a short distance.
Autocrine agents: cells that releases the effector chemical
Paracrine agents: diffusion to reach neighboring cells.

153
Q

Neurohormones vs. Hormones?

A

both travel in the blood stream. nuero is released by NT’s and hormones are released by glands.

154
Q

What are the major endocrine glands?

A

Hypothalamus / Posterior pituitary, Anterior pituitary, Thyroid gland, Parathyroid gland, Adrenal gland Pancreas, Gonads

155
Q

Endocrine vs. Exocrine?

A

endo- releases hormones

Exo- releases fluids, like sweat, milk, saliva

156
Q

What does the anterior pituitary gland serve for?

A

Produces hormones that control many systems, including the release of other hormones.
Controlled by hormones released by the hypothalamus (neurohormones).
Metabolism, reproduction, growth.

157
Q

What does the hypothalamus consist of?

A

hypothalamic, anterior and posterior pituitary gland.

158
Q

what does the posterior pituitary gland do?

A

Its hormones are neurohormones
ADH – controls water reabsorption in collecting ducts
Oxytocin – promotes contractions during labor and milk “letdown”

159
Q

What are acute responses?

A

sudden danger, resulting in fight or flight.

driven by epinephrine.

160
Q

What is the result of long term stress?

A

Increased cortisol, assisting in sustained increases in activity and alertness.

161
Q

What is the order of actions carried out by long term stress?

A

Hypothalamus(^crh)- Anterior pituitary(^acth)-adrenal gland (cortisol^).

162
Q

What is the order of actions carried out by acute stress?

A

Perception of danger

CNS(directs to sns)-Adrenal gland (epinephrine)

163
Q

What can thyroid hormones serve to do?

A 
Metabolic rate (rate of energy use by cells)
CNS development and activity
Protein synthesis
Growth
In amphibians promote metamorphosis.
164
Q

Describe the thyroid axis in mammals?

A

decreased body temp- hypothalamus response(TRH) release-Anterior pituitary (TSH)- Thyroid gland (thyroid hormone)

165
Q

Levels of “downstream” hormones have blank effect on upstream hormones

A

Negative

166
Q

Hyporesponsiveness ?

A

too few hormone receptors

167
Q

what is leptin?

A

helps control the body’s energy stores:
•Leptin is produced by fats cells – more fat stores leads to higher leptin levels
•Influences appetite and metabolic rate
•In most vertebrates, helps maintain “normal” fat reserves

168
Q

T/F fat storages, fat cells and leptin are inversely related?

A

False, they are directly related.

169
Q

increase in leptin does what to appetite and metabolism.

A

decrease appetite and increase metabolism.

170
Q

metamorphosis in insects involves two hormones:

A
  • Juvenile hormone (JH)

* Ecdysone (from “ecdysis”, or molting)

171
Q

How do most animals reproduce?

A

sexually: Haploid gametes fuse to form diploid offspring

172
Q

What are the mechanisms of Asexual reproduction?

A
  • Budding / fission / breakage

* Parthenogenesis (development from single egg)

173
Q

T/F in asexual reproduction Offspring are clones of parent?

A

T

174
Q

How do gametes form?

A

haploid cells that animals form by meiosis of diploid cells

175
Q

How many cells do Males produce from each diploid spermatogonium?

A

4

176
Q

Females produce only (blank #) egg (ovum) from each diploid oogonium during oogenesis.

A

1

177
Q

External fertilization:

A

occurs only in aquatic/wet environments

178
Q

Spawning:

A

involves selective, localized fertilization – e.g., frogs

179
Q

Broadcast fertilization:

A

involves non-selective, population-wide simultaneous release of gametes – e.g., sea urchins

180
Q

T/F :Internal fertilization occurs in both terrestrial and aquatic environments

A

T

181
Q

spermatophore?

A

Collection of sperm that a female can sit on and become pregnant.

182
Q

Cloaca?

A

which acts as the common cavity where the digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems

183
Q

Oviparous?

A

external development of offspring.

184
Q

Viviparous?

A

development is internal and the embryo

185
Q

Ovoviviparous?

A

development is internal but within a yolk-filled egg

186
Q

Males produce mainly?

A

Testosterone

187
Q

Females produce mainly?

A

Estrogen

188
Q

What are primary male characteristics?

A

genitalia

189
Q

Secondary male characteristics?

A
  • Pubic and axillary hair
  • Beard and general increase in body hair
  • Increased muscle mass
190
Q

What induces secondary male characteristics?

A

Increased testosterone from puberty

191
Q

Males are constantly producing?

A

Gametes

192
Q

Describe the male pathway during puberty?

A

Hypothalmus(GnRH)-Anterior pituitary(FSH & LH)-Testes-Testosterone (Spermatogenesis)

193
Q

Erection?

A
  • Vasodilation of arterioles increases influx of blood

* Compression of venules by increased pressure decreases efflux

194
Q

Where semen created?

A

ejaculatory duct immediately prior to ejaculation

195
Q

How does Sperm arrive at the ejaculatory duct?

A

vas deferens

196
Q

Primary female characteristic is?

A

genitalia

197
Q

Secondary female characteristic are?

A
  • Pubic and axillary hair
  • Breast development
  • Widening of pelvis
  • Fat deposition around hip area
198
Q

Describe the female pathway during puberty?

A

Hypothalmus(GnRH)-Anterior pituitary(FSH & LH)-Ovaries- estrogen and progestogen production-oogenesis

199
Q

How long is the average menstrual cycle?

A

28 days

200
Q

What is released during ovulation?

A

oocyte

201
Q

How long is the Follicular phase, and what occurs within this phase?

A

1-14, oocyte develops and increases in size as estrogen production increases.

202
Q

When is and how long is ovulation? What happens in ovulation

A

ovulation is 1 day, day 14.

Oocyte released from follicle (and ovary)due to spike in luteinizing hormone

203
Q

What day is Luteal phase from? What happens in this phase.

A

15-28. Follicle turns into corpus luteum, which produces estrogen and progesterone

204
Q

If no implantation occurs what happens?

A

corpus luteum degenerates during days 25-28

205
Q

what happens from Days 6-28?

A

Growth and maintenance of uterine lining

206
Q

What happens to the uterine lining during days 6-28?

A

First, endometrium proliferates due to increasing estrogen.

After ovulation, endometrium secretes nutrients due to high estrogen and progesterone

207
Q

What happens during days 1-5?

A

Menstruations.

208
Q

T/F, If no implantation, endometrium is shed – menstruation

A

T

209
Q

How many days can the oocyte survive after ovulation?

A

1-2

210
Q

How many days can sperm survive, and how many days does it take to reach the oviduct?

A

2-3 days survival, an 1 day to travel to the oviduct.

211
Q

What is the window for fertilization?

A

2-3 days before to 1-2 days after ovulation

212
Q

How long does implantation of a developing embryo take?

A

one week

213
Q

What is the placenta?

A

Advanced structure for the embryo and fetus to exchange nutrients via blood.

214
Q

What makes the placenta prime for diffusion?

A

Increased SA and a thin membrane.

215
Q

What two hormones are required for a successful pregnancy?

A

Increased levels of estrogen and progestogen.

216
Q

What do progestogen and estrogen do to assist with pregnancy?

A

Maintain the endometrial layer
•Promote development of uterine muscle
•Inhibit contractions of uterus prior to full term
•Promote development of breasts

217
Q

What results in the mothers loss of nutrients and hormones at birth?

A

Loss of the placenta.

218
Q

What drives labor.

A

Uterine contractions.

219
Q

What hormone excites uterine contractions?

A

oxytocin (from posterior pituitary)

220
Q

Indigestion?

A

taking in food.

221
Q

Digestion?

A

Breakdown of food into smaller pieces.

222
Q

Absorption?

A

Nutrient absorption and uptake.

223
Q

Elimination:

A

Disposal of waste.

224
Q

What macronutrients are being absorbed?

A

simple and complex(starch) carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins

225
Q

What chemicals break down viable macronutrients?

A

Amylase= carbs
Lipase= lipids
Proteins=pepsin.

226
Q

What is the absorptive state? what activity occurs within the absorptive state?

A

nutrients entering blood from GI tract.
•Anabolic as well as catabolic activity
•Amino acids used to make proteins
•Energy stored

227
Q

Where does the post absorptive state occur?

A

nutrients not entering from GI tract.
•Mainly catabolic activity
•Energy released from stores

228
Q

Calories within Carbs (stored with water molecules) , Lipids, Proteins?

A

Carbs(stored with water molecules)- 1.5 kcal
Proteins-4.5 kcal
Lipids-9 kcal

229
Q

How is most energy stored?

A

as fat, 80,000 – 120,000 kcal in humans

230
Q

Describe the actions within the absorptive state.

A

Large influx of fats and carbs-CNS in turn takes glucose as a source of fuel- glycogen is stored in the liver- Fat and glucose are stored as fats

231
Q

Describe the actions within post absorptive state?

A

1-main source of fuel is fat released from storages.
2- Then liver is responsible for glucose (breaks down glycogen)
3- Fats are used as fuel

232
Q

What does insulin do:

A

Secreted by the pancreas. promotes absorption.

233
Q

What does glucagon do:

A

Secreted by the pancreas. Promotes post absorptive state.

234
Q

what does an increase in glucose absorption in the GI track do?

A

^blood glucose-Pancreases- ^insulin secretion

235
Q

What does increased insulin lead to?

A

^, glucose use, glucose storage

236
Q

What does decreased insulin lead to?

A

decreased blood glucose- pancreas ( decreased insulin & increased glucagon)-

237
Q

( decreased insulin & increased glucagon) leads to…

A

decreased glucose use and increased release

^ fat release

238
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

High blood glucose levels due to lack of normal absorptive response.

239
Q

Type I diabetes:

A

(“juvenile-onset”)

240
Q

Type II diabetes:

A
  • Response to insulin is diminished – insulin levels are high
  • Associated with inactivity and obesity
  • Utility of insulin injections is limited – lifestyle change is more effective
  • Normally appears later in life (“adult-onset”)

Biology Final-A (4 decks)

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