Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

T-6 Nav > 202V3 > Flashcards

202V3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of holding?

A

Holding is a procedure that delays an aircraft’s approach to an airfield or delays an aircraft enroute using a navigation fix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a standard holding pattern?

A

A racetrack design consisting of two 180 degree right hand turns and two straight legs. Left turns are non-standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three types of holding entry?

A

Parallel, direct and offset(NAS = teardrop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What bank angle should be used in holding?

A

3 degrees per second or 25 degree bank angle, whichever requires less bank angle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the maximum holding air speeds?

A

< 6000 = 200 kias
6000-14000 = 230 kias
14000+ = 265 kias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long is holding timing?

A

1 minute at or below 14000 feet MSL and 1.5 minutes above, unless otherwise directed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What leg is timing based on?

A

Inbound leg (NAS only). timing for subsequent outbound legs should be adjusted to achieve proper inbound time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you correct for wind drift in holding?

A

When outbound, triple the inbound drift correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IFR climb performance

A

200 feet per NM or published climb gradient, whichever is higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IFR turns after takeoff

A

Minimum turn altitude is 400 feet above the DER elevation, unless required by a published procedure or ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IFR departure methods

A 
Diverse departure 
Omnidirectional departure (ICAO) 
Obstacle departure procedure (ODP)
Standard Instrument departure (SID) 
Diverse vector area (DVA)
ATC instructions 
MAJCOM departure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does a “Trouble T” indicate?

A

Notifies pilots that departure procedures exist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a takeoff obstacle?

A

Obstacles within 3 SM of the DER identified during the diverse departure obstacle assessment that require a climb gradient greater than 200’ NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a Low Close-In obstacle?

A

Obstacles that require a climb gradient greater than 200’ NM for a very short distance, only until the aircraft is 200’ above DER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a diverse departure?

A

A normal departure at 200 feet per NM Out to 25 NM non-mountainous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is an omnidirectional departure?

A

A departure procedure without any track guidance provided or available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are non standard IFR takeoff mins?

A

Provided for pilots to “see and avoid” obstacles during departure. Weather must be equal to or better than published ceiling/vis to depart. (ODP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a specific routing departure?

A

Published specific routing to avoid obstacles under the “departure procedure” section of the ODP. (ODP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a VCOA departure procedure?

A

An option for an IFR aircraft, operating in VMC greater than or equal to the specified visibility and ceiling, to visually conduct climbing turns over the airfield to published “climb-to” altitude. (ODP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a Reduced Takeoff Runway Length Procedure (RTRL)?

A

Requires the aircraft to lift off the runway at or prior to a specified distance from the DER. (ODP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a combination of methods?

A

A combination of methods to construct an ODP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a diverse vector area (DVA)?

A

It may created to allow radar vectors to be used in lieu of an ODP at some locations where an ODP has been established.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are specific ATC departure instructions?

A

Specific ATC instructions include a heading and altitude. Do not apply wind drift corrections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a standard instrument departure (SID)?

A

A departure procedure established at certain airfields to simplify clearance delivery procedures and assist in meeting environmental, capacity, and ATC requirements. Cannot fly a SID without ATC clearance.

25
Q

What is a MAJCOM certified departure?

A

Procedures created for specific aircraft at specific locations in accordance with AFMAN 11-230.

26
Q

Altitude restriction over non congested areas?

A

PIC will operate over non congested areas at an altitude at or above 500 feet AGL except over open water or in sparsely populated areas

27
Q

Altitude restriction over congested areas?

A

PIC will operate over congested areas or groups of people at an altitude which ensures 1000 feet above highest obstacle within 2,000 foot radius

28
Q

Max airspeed under 10,000 feet?

A

PIC will not exceed 250 knots below 10,000 feet MSL

29
Q

The PIC will not exceed 200 knots….

A

At or below 2500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport in class C or D airspace unless authorized.

30
Q

What is a TACAN?

A

Consists of a rotating antenna for transmitting azimuth info and a receiver-transmitter for range info

31
Q

You cannot use a TACAN unless…

A

Valid azimuth and range info are available

32
Q

What is the service area for an ILS?

A

FAA defines standard service volume for a localizer is 18 NM within the 10-degree sector and 10 NM for the remainder

33
Q

What is the max offset a localizer can have?

A

More than 5 degrees from runway centerline = instrument guidance system

More than 3 degrees: considered localizer type directional aid

34
Q

What info do you need to mission plan?

A

Weather
NOTAMS
Airfield suitability and Restrictions report
FLIP
Fuel requirements
BWC
Special departure procedure if authorized by MAJCOM

35
Q

List of authorized weather sources:

A

MAJCOM approved weather source
Regional OWS
Other DOD military weather sources
Other US government weather facilities/services
Foreign civil or military weather service

36
Q

What is RVR?

A

Runway visual range
It’s a report that applies to all takeoffs, landings, and straight in approaches to the runway and take precedence over any other via report

37
Q

What does the NOTAM system do?

A

Distributes time critical aeronautical information

38
Q

What is Critical DME?

A

A DME facility that, when not available, results in navigation service which is not sufficient for DME/DME/IRU ops

39
Q

Where should aircrew use PUBS from?

A

Obtain and use info from

USG sources

40
Q

When can you depart IFR?

A

Weather conditions at destination, +- 1 hour of ETA, is forecast to be at/above the lowest compatible approach mins. Tempos not included

41
Q

File an alternate airfield when:

A

A compatible approach is not available at destination

Weather +- 1 hour of ETA (includes tempo), are less than: 2000 ft ceiling and 3 SM vis

Crosswinds out of limits

42
Q

For alternate selection: do not depart IFR unless prevailing weather at alternate is

A

+- 1 hour of ETA, including tempos (except t-storms, rain showers, or snow showers) is:

1000 ft ceiling, or 500 above lowest compatible approach mins, whichever’s higher
2 SM vis or 1 SM above lowest compatible approach mins, whichever’s higher

43
Q

What does the “alternate a” represent?

A

Informs pilots that the alternate weather mins for an airfield are non-standard

44
Q

What does the “alternate NA” represent?

A

Informs pilots that the specific approach cannot be used to qualify the field as an alternate due to an unmonitored NAVAID or lack of a weather reporting service

45
Q

Do not operate under VFR when:

A

unable to maintain flight visibility or cloud clearances

Within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface of an airport when the ceiling is less than 1000 feet

46
Q

What are the 2types of waypoints?

A

Fly over - indicated by a waypoint marker in a circle/ no turn anticipation allowed

Fly by - standard waypoint symbol/ turn anticipation allowed

47
Q

What are the wake turbulence weight classes?

A

Super - A380-800/Antonov An-225
Heavy - all types 300,000 lbs or more
Large - aircraft of more than 41,000 lbs, max certified takeoff weight, up to but not including 300,000 lbs
Small - aircraft of 41,000 lbs or less max certified takeoff weight
(NAS only)

48
Q

NAS wake turbulence separation

A 
Heavy behind super - 6 miles
Large behind super - 7 miles
Small behind super - 8 miles 
Heavy behind heavy - 4 miles 
Small/large behind heavy - 5 miles 
Small behind B757 - 4 miles
49
Q

What is a terminal arrival area?

A

Provides a transition from the enroute structure to the terminal environment for aircraft equipped with RNAV systems

50
Q

What are radar vectors?

A

Provide course guidance and expedite traffic to the final approach course of any published procedure or to the traffic pattern for a visual approach

51
Q

When can you descend below DA/MDA?

A

Sufficient visual reference with the runway environment and aircraft is in a safe position to land

52
Q

What is put on an approach plate when more than one type of equipment is required for an approach?

A

A slash (/)

53
Q

What is a non radar approach?

A

An approach that does not require radar vectoring or radar services on final and may/may not provide vertical glide slope/glide path guidance

54
Q

What is a VDA?

A

Vertical descent angle

Optimum is 3 degrees

55
Q

What is TCH?

A

Threshold crossing height
Point where VDA crosses threshold
Typically 30-50 feet

56
Q

What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?

A 
Arrival
Initial
Intermediate
Final
Missed approach
57
Q

What are the 2 types of course reversals?

A

Procedure turns and racetrack

58
Q

What speed should procedure turns be flown at?

A

200 KIAS or less

59
Q

When can you not execute a procedure turn?

A 
Straight-in cleared 
NoPT
Established on inbound course 
Radar vectors to final 
Timed approach from a holding fix

T-6 Nav (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions