Neoplastic Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the pterion?

A

located at the junction of the frontal, parietal, temporal, and greater wing of sphenoid bones It is located two fingerbreadths above the zygomatic arch and a thumb’s breadth behind the frontal process of the zygomatic bone

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2
Q

Where is the asterion? What does it signify?

A

located at the junction of the lambdoid, occipitomastoid, and parietomastoid sutures lies on top of the lower half of the transverse/ sigmoid sinus junction

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3
Q

What is the bregma?

A

located at the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures

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4
Q

What genetic mutations are characteristic for IDH mutant diffuse astrocytomas?

A

ATRX loss P53 mutation

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5
Q

Pilocytic astrocytomas on MRI imaging generally are ________ but when in the optic nerve, are generally _____.

A

cystic with mural nodule solid and enhancing

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6
Q

What disease is associated with pilocytic astrocytoma?

A

NF-1

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7
Q

Describe the epidemiology and symptomology of pilocytic astrocytomas based on location.

A
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8
Q

What is the 5 and 10 yr survival for PXAs?

A

80 and 70%

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9
Q

What is the most common location for oligodendrogliomas?

A

frontal lobe (50%)

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10
Q

Most GBMs that develop from other astrocytomas are _____.

A

IDH mutants

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11
Q

What is the Stupp protocol?

A

maximal safe resection followed by adjuvant chemotherapy/radiation

fractionated radiation of 2 Gy 5 days/week for six weeks total 60 Gy, plus daily temozolomide at 75 mg/m^2, 7 days a week for 60 days followed by six cycles of adjuvant temozolomide 150-200 mg/m^2 for 5 of 28 days

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12
Q

In the fourth ventricle, ependymomas usually arise from the _____.

A

floor

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13
Q

Spinal ependymomas are associated with a syrinx in what percent of cases?

A

90%

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14
Q

“Tiger stripes” in unilaterally in the cerebellum are pathognomonic for _____.

A

Lhermitte Duclos disease

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15
Q

What is the treatment for Lhermitte Duclos disease?

A

surgical resection is curative

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16
Q

What is the chance for seizure freedom after DNET resection?

A

80% at 5 years, 60% at 10 years

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17
Q

What’s the difference between a gangliocytoma and ganglioglioma?

A

Gangloicytoma: WHO grade I growth of mature neurons

Ganglioglioma: WHO grade I and II mixed population of ganglion and glial cells

18
Q

What is the semiology of hypothalamic hamartomas? What other symptoms can they classically present with?

A

gelastic seizures

precocious puberty

19
Q

What are the different types of paraganglioms? Provide name and location.

A
20
Q

What is the overall 5 year survival rate for paragangliomas?

A

90%

21
Q

What percent of pineoblastomas have CSF seeding?

A

50%

22
Q

What is the treatment for pineoblastoma?

A

surgical resection + cranial/spinal radiation and chemotherapy

23
Q

What is the survival rate in pineoblastoma?

A

Fifteen percent 10-year survival in case of residual tumor versus 100% if no residual left

24
Q

What chromosome abnormality can be seen with medulloblastoma?

A

loss of 17p in 50% of patients

25
Q

What is the 5 year survival for medulloblastoma in standrard risk patients (no mets, older than 3 years, Gross total resection)?

A

100% if ERBB-2 tumor protein negative, 54% if positive

26
Q

There are many types of meningiomas. What are they and what WHO grade system do they fall under?

A

WHO Grade I: meningothelial, fibrous, transitional, psammomatous, angiomatous, microcystic, secretory, metaplastic, lymphoplasmacyte-rich.

WHO Grade II: atypical, clear cell (predilection for spinal cord and posterior fossa), chordoid (“chordoma-like”), brain invasive.

WHO Grade III: anaplastic, rhabdoid, papillary.

27
Q

Describe the Simpson Grading system.

A
28
Q

What is the most common primary CNS sarcome (malignant mesenchymal tumor)?

A

fibrosarcoma

29
Q

Soitary fibrous tumors are distinguished form hemangiopericytomas and meningiomas by _____.

A

CD 34 +

30
Q

Leiomyosarcomas are associated with what virus?

A

EBV

31
Q

What is the median survival in primary CNS lymphoma?

A

Median survival 1–4 months without treatment, 1–4 years when treated (2–6 months in AIDS)

32
Q

What is the treatment for germinomas?

A

biopsy followed by chemo/radiation

33
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with what CNS tumor?

A

embryonal carcnomas

34
Q

What percent of pituitary adenomas are micor vs macor?

A

50-50 split

35
Q

“Stalk effect” elevated prolactin levels fall into what range?

A

25 - 150 ng/mL

36
Q

For adrenocorticotrophin releasing pituitary adenomas, what medication can be used as a second line treatment?

A

ketoconazole

37
Q

Summarize the the most common mets, percent with cerebral mets, and general survival with treatment.

A
38
Q

What were the results for the Radiation therapy Oncology Group brain metastases trial?

A

Class 1: KPS > or = 70, < 65 years old, controlled primary with no extra cranial metastases— median survival 7.1 months.

Class 3: KPS < 70—median survival 2.3 months.

Class 2: all others—medial survival 4.2 months

39
Q

What is the difference in possible meningitis complications in dermoids vs epidermoids?

A

Epidermoid: aseptic Mollaret recurrent meningitis

Dermoid: septic meningitis

40
Q

What is the most common location for chrodomas?

A

Sacrum (50%) and clival (35%)

41
Q

What type of radiation is most effective for chordoma?

A

proton beam