MMF mock Flashcards

1
Q

which aa are helix formers

A

alanine and leucine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which aa are helix breakers

A

proline and glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does mitotic non disjunction result in

A

mosaicism with two or more cell lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does non disjunction in meiosis result in

A

aneuploidy (abnormal n.o chromosomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

trisomy disorders

A

down syndrome
patau’s syndrome
Edwards’ syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

monosomy disorder

A

turner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the difference between mismatch repair and nucleotide excision repair

A

nucleotide- occurs when DNA gets damaged

mismatch- occurs immediately after DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 types of DNA repair mechanisms

A
  • bas excision repair = corrects damage to bases
  • nucleotide excision repair =repairs bulky lesions in DNA that alter the helix (correct pyrimidine primers)
  • mismatch repair = correct replication mispairing/ insertions/ deletions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

feature of X- linked dominant inheritance pattern?

A

Affected males cannot give trait to their sons but will give it to all their daughters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

difference between Marasmus and Kwashiorkor’s

A

Marasmus- insufficient energy intake.
thin, bony child.

kwashiorkor’s - low protein intake.
pot belly
oedema due to insufficient protein in liver. unable to synthesise albumin. reduced oncotic pressure of plasma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sensitivity formula

A

TP/ TP + FN

amount who tested positive and have it/ total amount who have it.

TP=true positive. FP=false negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

specificity formula

A

TN/ TN + FP

amount who tested negative and don’t have it/ total amount who don’t have it.

TN=true neg. FP=false postive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

positive produced value and NPV formula

A

total positive who actually have the disease: those who have the disease/total positive

NPV
those who don’t have disease/ n.o people who got a negative result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

psychosocial health inequality explanation

A

health is influenced more by differences in income rather than actual income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Spermatozoa, erythrocytes and other motile cells don’t contain what type of cell adherence system?

A

Gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which examination technique is used for analysing tissues during surgery (inoperative consultation)

A

frozen section

- quick to make

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

club cells role

A

Protect bronchioles and act as stem cells for respiratory epithelium

18
Q

keratin role

A

Prevents water loss and protects against abrasion

19
Q

goblet cells role

A

Secrete mucus, moistens and lubricates respiratory tract

20
Q

Hashimotos plasma examination

A

hypothyroidism

low T3, low T4, high TSH

body produces auto antibodies against enzymes that make T3/T4.

21
Q

receptor Gas subunit targets which protein?

A

adenylyl cyclase to create cAMP

cAMP target effector protein = protein kinase A (PKA)

22
Q

feature of GPCRs

A
  • 7 transmembrane receptor proteins
  • |igand binding domain is extracellular
  • the binding region of the G-protein involves one of the intracellular loops and the C-terminal chain
  • N terminal = extracellular. C terminal = intracellular
23
Q

which is the main channel contributing to resting membrane potential

A

K+ channels

open = K+ leaves cell. down conc grad.

24
Q

role of beta blockers

A

reduce blood pressure BUT

inhibit B1 receptors> less cAMP production> less PKA stimulation> less Calcium enter cell > reduced force of heart contraction. negative inotrophy.

25
Q

enzyme missing in fructose intolerance

A

aldolase

26
Q

give examples of DNA damage

A
mismatches
deamination
single strand breaks
double strand breaks
inter-strand crosslink
bulk adducts
27
Q

what type of GPCR is salbutamol

A

B2 adrenoreceptor agonist

28
Q

what is alport syndrome

A

X-linked condition
defective collagen type 4 (basement membrane)
kidney can’t filter blood and protein out from urine.

  • deafness
  • poor eyesight
  • proteinuria
  • hematuria
29
Q

collagen synthesis process

A

1)Signal peptide (at the N terminus) is cleaved, by proteolytic cleavage, by signal peptidase.
2)Preprocollagen becomes procollagen as a result.
3)Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues occurs
to increase the number of hydrogen bonds between the triple helix of procollagen to stabilise it.
4)Glycosylation
Packed into a transfer
5)vesicle to be taken to golgi from ER lumen.
6) Outside the cell the N and C terminal peptides are removed so a collagen fibril can be formed. Fibrils are covalently crosslinked to form collagen fibres.

30
Q

ectopic pregnancy can lead to

A

internal bleeding leading to hypovolemic shock

31
Q

function of zone pellucida

A

prevent polyspermy of fertilised egg cell (zygote). Prevents sperm entry.

32
Q

what type of agonist causes bronchodilation and how does this work?

A

Beta 2 adrenergic agonist binds to beta adrenergic receptors causing conformational change.

GTP displaces GDP which activates the G protein coupled with adenylyl cyclase.

ATP converted into cAMP. high levels of cAMP > smooth muscle relaxation

33
Q

why are B2 agonists given by inhalation

A

reduced adverse side effects. effect mainly localised within the lungs. limited absorption into the systemic circulation.

e.g. could activate B1 receptors in heart causing tachycardia

34
Q

how does the whooping cough toxin prevent changes in intracellular cAMP levels?

A
  • covalently modifies Qi units on G protein receptors
    > prevents G proteins from interacting with GPCR.
    > stops GDP and GTP exchange. no signal transduction.
  • Gi subunits remain inactive so are unable to inhibit adenylyl cyclase activity > inc conc of cAMP
35
Q

what do M3 receptors in lungs cause

A

bronchoconstriction

36
Q

drug types to treat bronchoconstriction

A

muscarinic cholinoreceptor ANTagonists

anticholinergic drugs

> work on M3 receptor.

OR
B2 adrenergic agonist

37
Q

compare heroin and buprenorphine

A

heroin- full agonist
buprenorphine- partial agonist.
- higher affinity. occupies receptors and limits response.

buprenorphine doesn’t give maximal response so withdrawal symptoms occur.

38
Q

compare a irreversible competitive agonist to a reversible competitive agonist (on an agonist conc curve)

A

Reversible competitive antagonist will cause a parallel shift to the right of the agonist concentration response curve

Irreversible competitive antagonists will cause a parallel shift to the right and at higher concentrations, suppress the maximal response (Emax)

39
Q

how to calculate volume of distribution (Vd)

A

Vd = total amount of drug in body plasma / concentration of drug at time = zero

40
Q

Which component of a cell has capacitance?

A

Lipid bilayer