Abnormal Psychology (DSM 5) Questions Flashcards
Of the following, the highest rate of suicide occurs among A. married persons.
B. never-married persons.
C. widowed persons.
D. divorced persons.
D. divorced persons.
Marriage, especially when reinforced with children, appears to lessen the risk of suicide. Among married people, the rate of suicide is about 11 per 100,000. This rate is higher for single, never-married persons (about 22 per 100,000), even higher for widows (24 per 100,000), and higher still for divorced individuals (40 per 100,000).
In schizophrenia, haldol is used primarily to treat: A. negative symptoms B. apathy C. psychotic symptoms D. blunted affect
C. psychotic symptoms
Antipsychotic drugs such as haldol (butyrophenones) are more effective for alleviating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia: hallucinations, delusions, disordered thought, and agitation, than the negative symptoms: apathy, blunted affect, autism, and social withdrawal. In clients with schizophrenia, antipsychotics induce a “neuroleptic state” characterized by emotional quieting (decreased hallucinations and delusions), psychomotor slowing (less agitation, impulsivity, and aggressiveness), and affective indifference (lower arousability and lack of concern with the external environment).
The research has shown that, in the treatment of nicotine dependence, adding a behavioral intervention to nicotine replacement therapy
A. has little or no effect in terms of either short- or long-term abstinence.
B. has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence.
C. has some additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but doesn’t improve long-term abstinence.
D. has a substantial effect on both short- and long-term abstinence.
B. has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence.
This question is difficult since the research on this issue has been inconsistent. However, there is evidence that a combined treatment (behavioral intervention plus nicotine replacement therapy) is best, especially in terms of long-term abstinence (abstinence for six months or more). See, for example, R. C. Klesges et al., Smoking cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 1996, 16(6), 479-496.
Some experts argue that panic attacks do not occur in young children because
A. children do not experience the bodily sensations associated with panic.
B. children do not think catastrophically.
C. children are not capable of making internal interpretations of bodily sensations.
D. children are not capable of predicting that certain external events may trigger bodily symptoms.
C. children are not capable of making internal interpretations of bodily sensations.
Not all experts agree that children cannot experience panic attacks. However, those that do, for the most part, argue that children do not experience panic because they are cognitively incapable of making internal catastrophic interpretations (e.g., I’m going crazy) of bodily symptoms.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between environmental factors and the course of Bipolar Disorders?
A. Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the early stages of the disorder.
B. Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the latter stages of the disorder.
C. Environmental factors are likely to have an approximately equal impact throughout the course of the disorder.
D. Environmental factors are likely to have no impact because Bipolar Disorders are entirely due to biological factors.
A. Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the early stages of the disorder.
Bipolar Disorders have a strong genetic and biological component. Nonetheless, evidence suggests that environmental factors can trigger episodes. This is especially true in the early stages of the disorder; psychosocial stressors often trigger the initial mood episodes; they less frequently trigger subsequent episodes.
A high level of expressed emotion by family members has been found to be predictive of relapse for which of the following disorders? A. schizophrenia B. eating disorders C. mood disorders D. all of the above
D. all of the above
The relationship between a family’s level of expressed emotion (EE) and the risk of relapse among patients with Schizophrenia has been known for many years; however, recently EE has also been linked to eating disorders and mood disorders. In fact, in a meta-analysis the relationship of EE to relapse in eating disorders and mood disorders was significantly greater than the relationship found for Schizophrenia (mean effect sizes were .51, .39, and .31, respectively) [R.L. Butzlaff & J.M. Hooley, Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, Archives of General Psychiatry, 55, 1998, 547-552].
Individuals with the diagnosis of Seasonal Affect Disorder are most likely to respond to light if they experience:
A. atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia
B. melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss
C. incomplete summer remission
D. more chronic forms of depression
A. atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia
Research on the use of light therapy for the treatment of various forms of depression has yielded the findings that for true SAD, atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia predict a robust response, whereas melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss are generally less responsive to light (See: Terman et al., American Journal of Psychiatry, 1996, 153,:423-9). Additionally, a clear onset period with complete remission in the spring and summer months is the SAD phenotype that is most likely to respond to light. Whereas patients with more chronic forms of depression or incomplete summer remission are less likely to have a robust response, they may benefit to some extent (See: Lam et al., Journal of Affective Disorders, 2001, 63, 123-32).
A 50-year old has memory loss as the result of her long-term heavy alcohol consumption. Most likely, she has trouble
A. getting dressed.
B. remembering someone she met a week ago.
C. recalling her first date.
D. repeating five digits forward and backward.
B. remembering someone she met a week ago.
People with Korsakoff’s Syndrome (amnesia due to heavy, long-term alcohol consumption) have severe
anterograde amnesia along with retrograde amnesia for events that occurred in the relatively recent past. Procedural memory is undisturbed (response A); remote memories are usually intact (response C); and short-term memory is unaffected (response D).
People diagnosed with PTSD are often successfully treated with psychotherapy and don’t need to be referred for medication treatment unless:
A. They also have a high level of cognitive functioning
B. They experience feelings of numbness
C. They tolerate exploratory psychotherapy well
D. Their target symptoms of avoidance and derealization interfere with daily life
D. Their target symptoms of avoidance and derealization interfere with daily life
PTSD is not usually treated with phamacotherapy unless the target symptoms of intrusive experiences, flashbacks, transient psychosis, marked derealization, and avoidance and numbing markedly interfere with daily life. With these symptoms, short-term medication is indicated. When the target symptoms of major depression, panic disorder or persistent psychotic symptoms become too intense, long term medication is indicated (Barry Pierce, R cassidy seminars, Santa Rosa CA).
When developing a treatment plan for a client with a Specific Phobia, it is important to keep in mind that
A. exposure in vivo and exposure in imagination are about equally effective as long as exposure sessions are sufficiently long in duration.
B. the effectiveness of exposure is increased, especially with regard to long-term effects, when it is used in conjunction with cognitive techniques.
C. for some Specific Phobias (e.g., dental and animal phobias), two to four sessions are often useful for significantly reducing phobic reactions in many people.
D. systematic desensitization has recently been found to be more effective than prolonged exposure treatments, especially in terms of reducing the risk for relapse.
C. for some Specific Phobias (e.g., dental and animal phobias), two to four sessions are often useful for significantly reducing phobic reactions in many people.
Exposure is currently considered the best intervention for most (if not all) Anxiety Disorders. However, the best way of exposing clients to stimuli that elicit anxiety depends on the particular disorder. For Specific Phobia, brief in vivo exposure is effective for many clients, and adding a cognitive component usually does not improve the effects of the intervention substantially.
With a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the risk of the same diagnosis for a monozygotic twin is how many times greater than the risk for a dizygotic twin? A. one time B. two and a half times C. four times D. six and a half times
B. two and a half times
This is one of those questions that seems to be a favorite of the EPPP. The risk for an identical (monozygotic) twin to be diagnosed is about 46% and for fraternal (dizygotic) twins it is about 17%. You have to be able to do the basic math here, and realize that 46 is about two and a half times 17, and thus is the “closest” to correct. This question is also a good example of how the exam takes a straightforward finding and muddies the water with it.
Which of the following statements regarding the results of research into the correlates of smoking is not true?
A. The majority of people who quit smoking gain weight, with typical weight gain being between 20-25 pounds.
B. Fear of weight gain often inhibits people from attempting to quit smoking, and signs of weight gain often trigger relapse in quitters.
C. Depression is found at a higher rate among smokers than among non-smokers.
D. Cessation of smoking can trigger depressive episodes in smokers with a history of Major Depression.
A. The majority of people who quit smoking gain weight, with typical weight gain being between 20-25 pounds.
Though 80% of quitters gain weight, the average weight gain is only between 7-9 pounds. The other choices are true statements.
Chronic otitis media in early childhood has been linked to A. Pica. B. autism. C. learning disorders. D. Tourette's disorder
C. learning disorders - correct: Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear. It can cause hearing loss and speech
and language problems and has been linked to reading and other learning disorders.
Answers A, B, and D: See explanation for answer C.
(AATBS Abnormal Domain Quiz #: 17598)
In adults, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is:
A. about equally common in males and females.
B. more common in males than in females.
C. about twice as common in females than in males.
D. about three times as common in females as in males.
A. about equally common in males and females - CORRECT In adults, the gender ratio for this disorder is about equal. However, in children, it is more common in boys than in girls because the average age of onset is earlier for males than for females.The gender ratio for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is related to age.
(AATBS Abnormal Domain Quiz #: 17632)
Cataplexy:
A. Signals the end of a sleep attack
B. Involves maintaining the same body position over an extended period of time
C. Is accompanied by a simultaneous loss of consciousness
D. Is usually triggered by strong emotion
D. Is usually triggered by strong emotion - CORRECT In most cases, an episode of cataplexy is triggered by anger, surprise, laughter, or other strong emotion. Cataplexy is a symptom of Narcolepsy.
A. Signals the end of a sleep attack - Incorrect Cataplexy occurs alone or at the onset of a sleep attack
B. Involves maintaining the same body position over an extended period of time - Incorrect This answer describes cataplexy (waxy flexibility), not cataplexy.
C. Is accompanied by a simultaneous loss of consciousness - Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Full consciousness is preserved during an episode of cataplexy.
(AATBS Abnormal Domain Quiz #: 17652)
Which of the followin would be most useful for monitoring the progression of Alzheimer’s disease?
A. structured intewiews with family members
B. cognitive tests
C. CT scans
D. a self—report personality test
B. cognitive tests - correct: A number of techniques are used to track the progression of Alzheimer’s disease and probably the best answer to this question would be “all of the above.” Unfortunately, you’re not given that choice. However, since the core features of Alzheimer‘s disease are disturbances in memory and other cognitive functions, the best way to follow its progression is with repeated measurement of cognitive abilities. Note that many of the newer techniques tor assessing patients with this disorder incorporate other modes of assessment in addition to cognitive tests (e.g., interviews with family members, direct observations of the patients behavior).
(AATBS Abnormal Domain Quiz #: 17662)
Vivid dreamlike images that occur at the beginning of sleep are referred to as: A. hypnagogic hallucinations. B. hypnopompic hallucinations. C. release hallucinations. D. irritative hallucinations.
A. hypnagogic hallucinations - CORRECT The information presented in this question accurately describes hypnagogic hallucinations. Dreamlike imagery at the onset of sleep is a normal phenomenon in many people but is also associated with sleep deprivation, Narcolepsy, and several other conditions.
B. hypnopompic hallucinations - Incorrect Hypnopompic hallucinations occur just after awakening.
C. release hallucinations - Incorrect Release hallucinations are caused by spontaneous activity in the auditory or visual cortex and usually affect people with auditory or visual impairments.
D. irritative hallucinations - Incorrect Irritative hallucinations are caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain as the result of a tumor, migraine headache, or other condition.
(AATBS Abnormal Domain Quiz #: 17671)
A person with Tourette's disorder is most likely to have A. orthopedic problems. B. a learning disorder. C. obsessive-compulsive symptoms. D. a lower-than-average IQ.
C. obsessive-compulsive symptoms - CORRECT According to the DSM, obsessions and compulsions are the most common associated symptoms of Tourette’s disorder. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the common associated features of Tourette’s Disorder, which are described in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect Orthopedic problems are not a common associated condition of Tourette’s disorder.
b. Incorrect Although academic performance is often impaired, an actual learning disorder is less common than are obsessive-compulsive symptoms.
d. Incorrect Low IQ is not an associated feature of Tourette’s disorder.
(AATBS Abnormal Domain Quiz #: 17673)
Korsakoff's syndrome has been attributed to which of the following? A. lead poisoning B. carbon monoxide C. antipsychotic drugs D. thiamine deficiency
D. thiamine deficiency - CORRECT Korsakoff‘s syndrome is included in the DSM-IV-TR as Alcohol-induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder and in the DSM—5 as Alcohol—Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder. It is characterized by disorientation, memory loss, and confabulation, and is believed to be due to poor nutrition that results in a thiamine deficiency. Korsakoffs syndrome is associated with long-term alcohol use and is believed to be the result of poor nutrition. lt’s very likely that you’ll encounter a question on its characteristics or etiology on the licensing exam and you’ll want to be familiar with the information presented on this disorder in the Abnormal Psychology and Physiological Psychology chapters of the written study materials.
(AATBS Abnormal Domain Quiz #: 17675)
Lead poisoning, toxoplasmosis, and toxocara are all possible complications of which of the following disorders? A. Tourette''s disorder B. pica C. rumination disorder D. bulimia nervosa
B. pica - (CORRECT) Pica involves a persistent consumption of a nonnutritive substance. Lead poisoning can result when the substance is paint; toxoplasmosis or toxocara can result when the substance is feces or dirt. Of the disorders listed, only one is associated with the complications listed in this question.
A. Tourette’’s disorder - Incorrect The primary features of Tourette’s disorder are multiple motor and one or more vocal tics.
C. rumination disorder - Incorrect Rumination disorder involves repeated regurgitation and rechewing of food.
D. bulimia nervosa - Incorrect Bulimia is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behavior to avoid weight gain.
(AATBS Abnormal Domain Quiz #: 17682)
The severity level (mild, moderate, severe, or extreme) for a DSM—5 diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa is based on which of the following?
A. duration of the disorder
B. current body mass index
C. average number of weekly episodes of inappropriate compensatory behavior
D. average number of weekly episodes of binge eating
C. average number of weekly episodes of inappropriate compensatory behavior - correct The DSM45 provides specifiers for Bulimia Nervosa for course (in partial remission or full remission) and for severity (mild, moderate, severe, or extreme) based on average number of episodes of inappropriate compensatory behavior per week.
B. current body mass index - Incorrect Level of severity for Anorexia Nervosa is based on current body mass index.
(AATBS Abnormal Domain Quiz #: 38822)
