RD MCQ april 2013 VIC: Formatted Flashcards

1
Q

With regards to I-131 vs I-123, which of the following statements is MOST TRUE

a. I-131 is cheaper than I-123
b. I 131 has a higher dose
c. I 131 can afford higher doses
d. SPECT I-131 has better spatial resolution
e. I-131 has a shorter imaging time, at 4-8 hours post injection

A

b. I 131 has a higher dose

Iodine-123

  • pure gamma emitter
  • excellent characteristics for imaging with modern scintillation cameras.
  • lower dose

I131

  • higher dose
  • for treatment of thyroid cancer and MNG
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2
Q
  1. V/Q scanning, which is MOST TRUE
    a. PIOPED high probability defined as one or more unmatched perfusion defects
    b. complete absence of perfusion to one lung is more commonly secondary to extrinsic compression from lung carcinoma than massive pulmonary embolus
    c. Technegas is give at 5 times the dose of macro-aggregated albumin
    d. Technegas given after macro-aggregated albumin
    e. 90% of perfusion defects resolve on repeating imaging in 12 months
A

complete absence of perfusion to one lung is more commonly secondary to extrinsic compression from lung carcinoma than massive pulmonary embolus

*LW agrees, based on the high end research of a single 1987 Radiographic paper where there 8 cases of lung cancer vs 3 cases of PE accounting for complete absence of perfusion.

**LJS - agree. Also, ventilation scan done before perfusion.
Common dose 37MBq technegas vs 150MBq MAA

Perfusion scintigraphy
- microembolization with 99mTc-labeled macroaggregates of human albumin (MAA).
ventilation studies
- inert gas 81mKr or - DTPA or- (Technegas; Cyclomedica Ltd.) are currently recommended (11).
81mKr is of limited use because of its high cost and short half-life.

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3
Q
  1. V/Q scanning, which is MOST TRUE
    a. the PIOPED reporting criteria includes a “normal scan” category
    b. A rim of pleural perfusion overlying a central perfusion defect is a high probability finding
    c. a “low probability” V/Q scan completely excludes pulmonary embolism
    d. is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
    e. something about ventilation or perfusion performed first.
A

a. the PIOPED reporting criteria includes a “normal scan” category

**LJS:
Revised PIOPED 2:
PE present (high probability)
Non-diagnostic (low/int prob)
PE absent (normal or very low probability)

Ventilation performed first

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4
Q
  1. DTPA scan is for
    a. renal scarring
    b. renal obstruction
    c. renal artery stenosis
    d. renal function
    e. renal cell carcinoma metastases
A

d. renal function
4. DTPA scan is for

a. renal scarring DMSA
b. renal obstruction MAG3, can use DMSA
c. renal artery stenosis MAG3 or DMSA with captopril
d. renal function eGFR
e. renal cell carcinoma metastases

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5
Q
  1. MAG 3 with captopril for
    a. renal scarring
    b. renal obstruction
    c. renal artery stenosis
    d. renal function
    e. renal cell carcinoma metastases
A

c. renal artery stenosis

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6
Q

. Regarding multislice CT scanning and dose, most correct

a. Automated dose modulation technique may minimise dose
b. Dose is proportional to kVP
c. the mAs should not be altered regardless of body size
d. the efficiency of radiation is increased with less slices
e. isotropic voxels in multislice CT increases the dose

A

a. Automated dose modulation technique may minimise dose

  1. Regarding multislice CT scanning and dose, most correct
    a. Automated dose modulation technique may minimise dose
    b. Dose is proportional to kVP proportional to kVp squared (roughly)
    c. the mAs should not be altered regardless of body size ramp that shit up in fatties.
    d. the efficiency of radiation is increased with less slices possibly??
    e. isotropic voxels in multislice CT increases the dose
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7
Q
  1. Regarding fat suppression techniques, which is TRUE
    a. Inversion recovery techniques are very suspectible to static magnetic field inhomogeneity
    b. Inversion recovery is lipid specific
    c. Inversion recovery is better on lower magnet strength MR
    d. a typical adenoma show lower signal on out of phase imaging than fat suppressed image
    e. fat suppression cannot be applied to T2 weighted imaging
A

d. a typical adenoma show lower signal on out of phase imaging than fat suppressed image
7. Regarding fat suppression techniques, which is TRUE
a. Inversion recovery techniques are very suspectible to static magnetic field inhomogeneity
b. Inversion recovery is lipid specific (FLAIR)
c. Inversion recovery is better on lower magnet strength MR
d. a typical adenoma show lower signal on out of phase imaging than fat suppressed image
e. fat suppression cannot be applied to T2 weighted imaging (FLAIR, STIR)

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8
Q
  1. Most frequently accepted theory of NSF mechanism

a. free gadolinium reaches soft tissues and activates fibroblasts
b. free chelate reaches soft tissues and activates fibroblasts
c. chelated gadolinum reaches soft tissues and activates fibroblasts
d. antibody bound chelated gadolinium reaches soft tissues and activates fibroblasts
e. antibody bound free gadolinium reaches soft tissue and activates fibroblasts

A

a. free gadolinium reaches soft tissues and activates fibroblasts

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9
Q
  1. Which is the correct association
    a. I 131 Sodium iodide is used for the diagnosis of papillary thyroid cancer
    b. I 131 penteotide is used for diagnosis of medullary thyroid cance
    c. MIBG for adrenal cortical adenocarcinoma
    d. something-Onco-scan for ovarian cancer
    e. 99mTc-antiCEA is used for diagnosis of breast cancer
A

d. something-Onco-scan for ovarian cancer Onco-scint for ovarian and colon cancer

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10
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding safety issues with 1.5 T MRI

a. Pt with ferromagnetic body piercing not able to be removed is disqualified from entering the magnet
b. A patient with a copper IUCD is disqualified from entering the magnet
c. External insulin pump which is connected to the patient can get into the magnet
d. A patient cochlear implant is disqualified from getting into magnet
e. Person with metallic sharpnel foreign bodies from combat is disqualified from getting into magnet even if they are not near vital organs

A
  • *LJS - see www.mrisafety.com
  • piercing can be stuck down or cooled with ice pack to avoid heating. Not contraindication
  • Cochlear implant - these days can remove outer part and wrap head. Some are now MRI compatible. But this would recently have been most true

d. A patient cochlear implant is disqualified from getting into magnet probably this one although there are some devices that have received FDA approval now.

a. ferromagnetic body piercing not being able to removed - not sure
b. IUCD is safe
c. MRI can damage insulin pump
d. cochlear implant may need to be removed
e. metallic shrapnel is ok if not the region of interest imaged

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11
Q

Patient requires CT contrast injection: least likely to predict renal impairment

a. Myeloma
b. Gout
c. Thyrotoxicosis
d. CHF
e. Previous renal disease

A

Thyrotoxicosis relative contraindication because of iodine dose (can exacerbate thyrotoxicosis) not because of renal impact

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12
Q
  1. Diabetic man presents with first seizure, is requested for an MRI. The patient has bad renal function with an estimated GFR of 28. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE approach to MRI contrast.
    a. Haemodialysis immediately after the study and again within 24 hours
    b. Use a linear gadolinium
    c. Use a non-ionic gadolinium
    d. Use a macrocyclic gadolinium
    e. Do not give contrast
A

. Do not give contrast screening examination, don’t give contrast straight up. If absolutely required, use macrocyclic and dialyse afterwards (risk still <1%). Also at increased risk with liver disease.

**LJS - see RANZCR guideline.
At GFR 15-30 ml/min are low risk for NSF (0.1% per dose of higher risk agent). High risk agent (linear Gad agents) contraindicated.
Haemodialysis only recommended for high risk patients (GFR <15 ml/min)
Need to balance risk of NSF vs risk of misdiagnosis.
Answer = low risk agent (macrocyclic or gadobenate) in this setting

https://www.ranzcr.com/college/document-library/gadolinium-containing-mri-contrast-agents-guidelines

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13
Q
  1. 54yo man with diabetes with ischaemic foot. Very low GFR. Vascular surgeon requests an angiogram. Best contrast agent:
    a. non ionic iodine based contrast
    b. carbon dioxide
    c. nitrogen
    d. oxygen
    e. lipidol
A

b. carbon dioxide Co2 is a technique used in 60s and 70s

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14
Q

Regarding rheumatic heart disease, which of the following is TRUE:

a. aortic valve is most commonly affected
b. mitral stenosis is due to thickened shortened chordae
c. myocarditis is typically fatal
d. chronic rheumatic valve disease is due to group A streptococcus endocarditis in childhood
e. infective endocarditis is relatively common complication

A

*LW:
If wording is accurate: Option E would be preferred option, although unsure of “common”
Ensure correct wording of option D - if states strep endocarditis = FALSE, if Strep Pharyngitis = this would be most correct option.

**LJS - infective endocarditis is a complication, due to abn valves of chronic RHD. Not sure what constitutes “relatively common” but I think this is most correct of options given

Regarding rheumatic heart disease, which of the following is TRUE:

a. aortic valve is most commonly affected: False Mitral
b. mitral stenosis is due to thickened shortened chordae: False - commissural fusion of valve leaflets is a characteristic feature.
c. myocarditis is typically fatal: false
d. chronic rheumatic valve disease is due to group A streptococcus endocarditis in childhood: group A beta haemolytic streptococcus pharyngitis that evokes a immune reaction against valves, myocardium and pericardium.
e. infective endocarditis is relatively common complication: False.

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15
Q
  1. 60 year old non-smoking male. SOB, restrictive lung function tests. HRCT has posterobasal predominant interlobular septal thickening with subplueral cysts, mild bronchial dilatation and mild ground glass opacity
    a. Respiratory bronchiolitis - interstitial lung disease
    b. Desquamative interstitial lung disease
    c. Cryptogenic organising pneumonia
    d. Non-specific interstitial pneumonitis
    e. Usual interstitial pneumonitis
A

. Usual interstitial pneumonitis

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following regarding pulmonary amyloidosis is FALSE: .
    a. multiple nodules
    b. bronchial obstruction
    c. bronchopleural fistula
    d. pulmonary ossification
A

c. bronchopleural fistula

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17
Q
  1. 50 year old man with 4/12 of haemoptysis. CXR shows perihilar infiltrates, with three nodules, one of which is cavitating. Most likely diagnosis:
    a. Sarcoidosis
    b. Wegeners
    c. Septic emboli
A

b. Wegeners

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18
Q

. 55yo man with intermittent claudication, 3cm long <50% stenosis SFA - first line treatment

a. embolectomy
b. angioplasty
c. bypass surgery
d. exercise program
e. stent graft

A

d. exercise program

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19
Q
  1. 80 year old male with enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm despite treatment with stenting. A CT angiogram demonstrates filling of the aneurysm from a lumbar artery, what is the likely cause:
    a. type I endoleak
    b. type II endoleak
    c. type III endoleak
A

b. type II endoleak

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following regarding acute aortic syndrome in relation to penetrating ulcer is FALSE?
    a. penetrating aortic ulcer extends to at least the media (macroscopic penetration)
    b. acute aortic syndrome from intramural haematoma
    c. most commonly occurs in the abdominal aorta
    d. acute aortic syndrome from aortic rupture
    e. acute aortic syndrome from dissection
A

c. most commonly occurs in the abdominal aorta - mid and distal thoracic.

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21
Q
  1. Young guy with hypertension. Elevated left apex. Irregular rib margins. Indentation of the left lateral border of the aorta. Retrosternal soft tissue mass. Most likely
    a. Aortic coarctation
    b. TAPVR
    c. Aortic insufficiency
A

a. Aortic coarctation

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22
Q
  1. Regarding dissection, which is TRUE
    a. requires visualisation of the dissection flap on MRA for diagnosis
    b. dissection is a cause of spinal dural AV fistula
    c. high attenuation within the lumen is a CT sign of dissection
    d. vertebral artery dissection more common than carotid artery dissection
    e. dissection is not a cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage
A

c. high attenuation within the lumen is a CT sign of dissection if within false lumen on non-contrast. (talking about IMH)
22. Regarding dissection, which is TRUE
a. requires visualisation of the dissection flap on MRA for diagnosis No. Not visualised in intramural haematoma.

b. dissection is a cause of spinal dural AV fistula
* *LJS - cause usually unknown. Can’t find any paper suggesting dissection as cause

c. high attenuation within the lumen is a CT sign of dissection -if within false lumen on non-contrast.
d. vertebral artery dissection more common than carotid artery dissection- carotid more common.
e. dissection is not a cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage -yes it is.

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23
Q
  1. Patient being prepared for a left AV fistula for dialysis. Has never had a dialysis catheter before. Best place to site a tunnelled catheter in the interim:
    a. right IJV
    b. right subclavian vein
    c. left IJV
    d. left subclavian vein
    e. femoral vein
A

a. right IJV

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24
Q
  1. Correct statement regarding three vessel runoff :

a. Doppler ultrasound is more sensitive for demonstrating three vessel run off than DSA
b. CT angiogram is more sensitive for demonstrating three vessel run off than DSA
c. MRA is more sensitive for demonstrating three vessel run off than DSA
d. in phase (or similary) MR is more sensitive for demonstrating three vessel run off than DSA
e. catheter angiography is more sensitive than non-invasive methods for demonstrating three vessel run off

A

e. catheter angiography is more sensitive than non-invasive methods for demonstrating three vessel run off

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25
Q
  1. Regarding CTPA for pulmonary embolus, what does NOT form a criteria of the Well’s score
    a. Tachycardia > 100 bpm
    b. PE most likely diagnosis
    c. haemoptysis
    d. previous history of DVT/PE
    e. OCP use
A

e. OCP use

clinical signs and symptoms of DVT = 3
an alternative diagnosis is less likely than PE= 3
heart rate more than 100 = 1.5
immobilisation for 3 or more consecutive days or surgery in the previous 4 weeks = 1.5
previous objectively diagnosed PE or DVT = 1.5
haemoptysis = 1
malignancy (on treatment, treatment in last 6 months or palliative) = 1

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a sign of progressive congestive cardiac failure?
    a. vascular cephalisation
    b. perihilar bat-wing opacity
    c. pulmonary calcification
    d. increasing definition of pulmonary vessels
    e. interstitial opacities
A

d. increasing definition of pulmonary vessels

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27
Q
  1. Young man, testicular ultrasound shows 2cm intratesticular hypoechoic lesion with internal debris and increased peripheral vascularity associated with acute pain. Best management:
    a. core biopsy in theatre
    b. antibiotics and clinical review in 72hrs
    c. surgical referral in one week
    d. US in 3 months
    e. orchidectomy
A

antibiotics and clinical review in 72hrs

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28
Q
  1. 50yo man, 4cm mass in small bowel with stranding radiating into the mesentery. Mild proximal small bowel dilatation. Most likely
    a. carcinoid
    b. GIST
    c. lymphoma
A

a. carcinoid

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29
Q
  1. 55 year old from Nigeria. Continuous linear calcification along the bladder with sessile mass. Most likely
    a. adenocaricnoma
    b. transitional cell carcinoma
    c. squamous cell carcinoma
    d. schistosomiasis
A

c. squamous cell carcinoma probably from schistosomiasis

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30
Q
  1. Rectal mass detected on DRE. MR rectum shows eccentric mass with intact muscularis layer. CT abdomen/pelvis shows no lymphadenopathy or metastases. What is the stage after imaging?
    a. stage 1
    b. stage 2a
    c. stage 2b
    d. stage 3
    e. stage 4
A

a. stage 1

Stage groupings
stage I: T1-2, N0 M0

stage
IIa: T3, N0, M0
IIb: T4a, N0, M0
IIc: T4b, N0, M0

stage
 IIIa: T1-2, N1, M0
IIIb: T3-4, N1, M0
IIIc: T3-4b, N2, M0
stage IV: any T, any N, M1
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31
Q
  1. 40 year old male with RIF pain and fever. CT shows inflammatory stranding surround a 1cm lesion at the caecal tip, which has a CT density of 345 HU. Most likely diagnosis:
    a. appendicitis
    b. diverticulitis
    c. epiploic appendagitis
    d. crohn’s disease
    e. pseudomembranous colitis
A

**LJS - “lesion” is probably an appendicolith, which could have this density. Answer = appendicitis.

*LW: agree with above.

DDx: If HU was -45, this implies fat, and is normally a rounded lesion of approx 1cm = Epiploic appendicitis.

Previous answer:
a. appendicitis

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32
Q

. Regarding prostate cancer, which is TRUE

a. doesn’t arise from the peripheral zone
b. typically more often hypoechoic than hyperechoic compared to surrounding parenchyma
c. PSA correlates directly to tumour load
d. PSA does not relate to prostate size
e. PSA is elevated in <50% of patients with prostate cancer

A

. typically more often hypoechoic than hyperechoic compared to surrounding parenchyma

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33
Q
  1. Adult male, blunt trauma, which is FALSE regarding bowel injury
    a. interloop fluid is a strong predictor
    b. pneumoperitoneum is seen in almost all cases on CT
    c. bowel loops may show increased enhancement
    d. duodenum and jejunum are commonly affected
    e. focal bowel wall thickening is sometimes seen
A

pneumoperitoneum is seen in almost all cases on CT

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34
Q
  1. 30 year old woman with abdominal pain. Barium follow through shows proximal jejunum dilated to 4cm diameter and featurelesss before a 5 cm stricture with fistula to the terminal ileum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Crohns disease
b. carcinoid
c. lymphoma
d. scleroderma
e. SLE

A

a. Crohns disease

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35
Q
  1. 40 year old male presents with fever of unknown origin. CT abdomen shows a 20 cm retroperitoneal mass encases the adrenal and left kidney, which are otherwise normal. The density ranges from -60 HU to 60 HU. What is most likely:
    a. ruptured xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
    b. adrenal myelolipoma
    c. myxoid liposarcoma
    d. renal angiomyolipoma
    e. retroperitoneal haematoma
A

c. myxoid liposarcoma

liposarc types:
well differentiate
myxoid
round
pleomorphic
mixed
36
Q
  1. Haemochromatosis, which is false
    a. Autosomal dominant
    b. Fe deposition in liver and reticuloendothelial system
A

*LW: likely incomplete recall:

Primary Haemochomatosis:

  • Autosomal recessive, so hence Auto Dominant is False.
  • However tends to affect liver and NON-reticuloendothelial system, hence this is also technically false.

Secondary Haemochomatosis:

  • Secondary to haemosiderosis
  • Tends to affect liver and reticuloendothelial system, i.e. spleen and bone marrow.

Previous answer:
a. Autosomal dominant

37
Q
  1. What is not an indication for TIPS a.
    b. large varices
    c. fulminant liver failure
    d. hepatorenal syndrome
    e hepatopulmonary syndrome
A

c. fulminant liver failure
(LW agrees)

*LW:
StatDx states the following:

Indications

  • Variceal hemorrhage
  • Portal hypertensive gastropathy
  • Refractory ascites or hepatic hydrothorax
  • Budd-Chiari syndrome
  • Other possible indications (no proven benefit in controlled trials)
    • –> Hepatorenal or hepatopulmonary syndrome
    • –> Sinusoidal obstruction syndrome
No definitive absolute contraindications
Relative contraindications
 - Heart failure
 - Elevated right or left heart pressures
 - Pulmonary hypertension
 - Rapidly progressive liver failure
 - Hepatic encephalopathy (HE)
 - Portal vein thrombosis
 - Sepsis or ongoing infection
 - Risk of TIPS stent colonization
 - Hepatic tumors
 - Coagulopathy
 -Biliary obstruction
 - Polycystic liver disease
 - Elevated model for end-stage liver disease (MELD) score
 - - > MELD score of > 24 associated with 30-day mortality of 60%
38
Q
  1. Which of the following associations regarding congenital heart disease is FALSE?
    a. VSD and pulmonary plethora
    b. D-transposition of the great vessels and egg-on-side cardiac contour
    c. Ebsteins anomaly and left heart enlargement
    d. Trisomy 21 and atrioventricular septal defect
    e. Tetralogy of Fallot and right sided aortic arch
A

c. Ebsteins anomaly and left heart enlargement

* LW: Ebstein –> right heart enlargement.

39
Q
  1. Child seen by paediatrician. Pit seen high over nasal bridge. T1 and T2 high signal 1 cm lesion on dorsum of nose with tract seen toward foramen caecum. Most likely
    a. encephalocoele
    b. nasal glioma
    c. lacrimal dacrocystocoele
    d. dermal sinus tract
A

d. dermal sinus tract

40
Q
  1. Least likely finding on CXR for viral pneumonia in a child
    a. peribronchial thickening
    b. atelectasis
    c. hilar lymphadenopathy
    d. focal consolidation
    e. hyperexpansion
A

d. focal consolidation

41
Q
  1. 6 year old boy with short stature and developmental delay has MR which shows hydocephalus with cerebellar tonsillar herniation into the foramen magnum and dysgenesis of the corpus callosum. What is the LEAST LIKELY associated finding?
    a. fenestration of the falx
    b. concavity of the posterior temporal bones
    c. normal 4th ventricle
    d. enlargement of the massa intermedia
    e. tectal beaking
A

c. normal 4th ventricle

**LJS - elongated displaced 4th V = obstructive hydrocephalus

42
Q
  1. Intern approaches you about hip screening for a new born infant whose 2 year old brother had hip dysplasia. What do you recommend?
    a. hip ultrasound in 2 weeks after birth
    b. hip ultrasound at <6 weeks
    c. hip ultrasound at <12 weeks
    d. no risk of hip dysplasia, screening not required
    e. radiograph at 6 months
A

hip ultrasound at <12 weeks ejb thinks this one, should be after 6 weeks (we aim to do ours at 6 weeks).

43
Q
  1. Regarding non-accidental injury in children, which is TRUE?
    a. long bone fractures are spiral
    b. anterior rib fractures are more common than posterior fractures
    c. nuclear medicine is only useful to date fractures already seen on x-ray
    d. metaphyseal corner/bucket handle fractures are caused by twisting
A

a or d

d- should be shaking though

44
Q
  1. 25 year old female presents for second trimester ultrasound. Most likely findings (seriously no other information provided)
    a. congenital pulmonary airway malformation
    b. congenital diaphragmatic hernia
    c. extraloblar sequestration
    d. cardiac rhabdomyoma
    e. neuroblastoma
A

b. congenital diaphragmatic hernia - slightly more common than CPAM

45
Q
  1. 4mm nuchal translucency on a good quality first trimester ultrasound, which of the following is TRUE?
    a. suggestive a risk trisomy 21 of 75-80%
    b. suggestive of chromosomal abnormality (Turners/Trisomy 21) or cardiac anomalies
    c. within normal limits
    d. does not suggest a cystic hygroma
A

b. suggestive of chromosomal abnormality (Turners/Trisomy 21) or cardiac anomalies increased risk of these or d. does not suggest a cystic hygroma probably best answer. Too small.
45. 4mm nuchal translucency on a good quality first trimester ultrasound, which of the following is TRUE?
a. suggestive a risk trisomy 21 of 75-80%
b. suggestive of chromosomal abnormality (Turners/Trisomy 21) or cardiac anomalies increased risk of these
c. within normal limits mildly elevated (above 2.8 Needs to be adjusted for CRL)
d. does not suggest a cystic hygroma probably best answer. Too small.

46
Q
  1. 16 year old girl with presents with menometrorrhagia (heavy prolonged bleeding). Blood tests shows she has hyperoestrogenism. A 4 cm ovarian mass is seen. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
    a. granulosa tumour
    b. leydig cell tumour
    c. serous cystadenoma
    d. mucinous cystadenoma
    e. sertoli-leydig cell tumour
A

a. granulosa tumour

47
Q
  1. 1st trimester screening. What does NOT affect risk assessment of chromosomal abnormalities?
    a. nuchal translucency
    b. maternal age
    c. ossification of the nasal bone
    d. small middle phalanx of the little finger
    e. twin pregnancy
A

. small middle phalanx of the little finger

48
Q
  1. Fetal ascites, LEAST likely cause:
    a. rhesus incompatibility
    b. parvovirus
    c. multicystic dysplastic kidney
    d. urinary tract obstruction
    e. twin-twin transfusion syndrome
A

multicystic dysplastic kidney

49
Q
  1. Which is the LEAST likely cause of hydrops:
    a. large gastroschisis
    b. congenital diaphragmatic hernia
    c. rhesus incompatibility
    d. TORCH infection
A

a. large gastroschisis

50
Q
  1. Regarding gastroschisis which is TRUE
    a. can be diagnosed on ultrasound at 10 weeks
    b. bowel is covered by a membranous sac
    c. contains liver in 30-50% of cases
    d. the abdominal wall defect is small (2-4 cm)
    e. is associated with congenital heart disease most of the time
A

d. the abdominal wall defect is small (2-4 cm) and right sided

51
Q
  1. Third trimester ultrasound is requested with for LMP giving 33 weeks gestation. US gestational age on 7 week scan gives current GA of 35 weeks. 2nd trimester morphology scan gave current gestation age of 34 weeks. On current ultrasound measures corresponding to a gestational age of 32 weeks. What is the diagnosis?

a. use 7 week ultrasound date - small fetus for dates
b. use LMP dates - normal size
c. use LMP dates - small for dates
d. use 2nd trimester ultrasound - normal growth
e. use 2nd trimester ultrasound - small for dates

A

a. use 7 week ultrasound date - small fetus for dates

52
Q
  1. 3rd trimester US, woman has painful PV bleeding. Hypoechoic retroplacental region seen, most likely
    a. placental abruption
    b. placenta praevia
    c. placental lake .
A

a. placental abruption

53
Q
  1. A woman presents at 32 weeks with a cephalic presentation. There is what you think is cranial calcification. What is true?
    a. perform a TV ultrasound to be sure
    b. TORCH infections do not cross the placenta in the 3rd trimester and are therefore excluded
    c. this is seen in DiGeorge syndrome
A

a. perform a TV ultrasound to be sure not a hundy on this

**LJS - DiGeorge have hypocalcaemia (b/c no parathyroids). Multiple intracranial calcification (of the BG) are ass/w hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism. ?but presumably not in utero

*LW:
toxo, for example, is most commonly transmitted in 3rd trimester - hence option incorrect.
I would back TV US for further assessment, based upon these options.
Di George Hypo Ca++ develops in the newborn period in up to 60 percent of DGS patients and may present with jitteriness, tetany, or seizures, with low serum calcium, elevated serum phosphorus, and very low parathyroid hormone levels. So ante natal may not be a cause…. extrapolating here.
**Should check with RB or P.D…..

54
Q
  1. Which of the following regarding male breast cancer is TRUE?
    a. most commonly presents between 40-60 years of age
    b. presents as a painful retroareolar mass
    c. is seen as a dense mass with typically malignant calcification on mammogram
    d. is more commonly invasive ductal carcinoma than invasive lobular carcinoma
A

d. is more commonly invasive ductal carcinoma than invasive lobular carcinoma

55
Q
  1. Not associated with breast cancer
    a. BRCA 2
    b. Ataxia telangiectasia
    c. Li Fraumeni
    d. Cowden syndrome
    e. VHL
A

e. VHL

56
Q
  1. 60 year old woman for screening mammography. Average build (BMI 24), best combination
    a. Molybdenum anode and Molybdenum filter at 28kv
    b. Molybdenum anode and Molybdenum filter at 42kv
    c. Molybdenum anode and Rhodium filter at 28kv
    d. Molybdenum anode and Rhodium filter at 42kv
    e. Tungsten anode and Rhodium filter
A

a. Molybdenum anode and Molybdenum filter at 28kv
56. 60 year old woman for screening mammography. Average build (BMI 24), best combination
a. Molybdenum anode and Molybdenum filter at 28kv
b. Molybdenum anode and Molybdenum filter at 42kv less dose but poorer contrast
c. Molybdenum anode and Rhodium filter at 28kv more dose (better if fatter)
d. Molybdenum anode and Rhodium filter at 42kv
e. Tungsten anode and Rhodium filter

57
Q

. Patient suspects ruptured implant, US performed, which is true

a. US most sensitive test for implant rupture
b. calcification seen along the implant on mammo in 25% of cases
c. smooth contours of the implant on mammo virtually exclude rupture
d. mild bulge in the implant contour is suggestive of implant rupture
e. Multiple anechoic areas are seen through the breast parenchyma with ruptured implant

A

b. calcification seen along the implant on mammo in 25% of cases - must be this one
57. Patient suspects ruptured implant, US performed, which is true
a. US most sensitive test for implant rupture MRI
b. calcification seen along the implant on mammo in 25% of cases - must be this one
c. smooth contours of the implant on mammo virtually exclude rupture not intracapsular
d. mild bulge in the implant contour is suggestive of implant rupture Nope
e. Multiple anechoic areas are seen through the breast parenchyma with ruptured implant silicone – generally hyperechoic but can be hypoechoic

58
Q
  1. Woman presents with lesion on mammography. Further work up shows the lesion contains fat. Next step
    a. reassure that it is benign
    b. Biopsy to exclude malignancy
    c. F/u with early mammo at 3 and 6 months
A

a. reassure that it is benign

**LJS - well circumscribed fatty masses are benign

59
Q
  1. Woman with well circumscribed mass on mammography. On ultrasound is anechoic with no posterior shadowing. What is the best next step?
    a. reassure and routine follow up
    b. US guided core biopsy
    c. follow up with early mammography
    d. surgical referral for excision
A

a. reassure and routine follow up - PROBABLY THIS
b. US guided core biopsy if well circumscribed, anechoic, posterior enhancement, edge shadows – cyst, no follow-up. If any suspicious features - biopsy

60
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding invasive lobular carcinoma?

a. They are commonly seen only on one view on mammogram
b. US has poor sensitivity (<50%) for detection of invasive lobular carcinoma
c. Usually seen as a circumscribed mass on mammography
d. Mammography is highly sensitive (>70%) in detecting invasive lobular carcinoma
e. Is almost always palpable

A

a. They are commonly seen only on one view on mammogram

61
Q
  1. Young female with family history mother breast cancer at 35 and sister breast cancer at 28. brca negative. you advise
A

High risk, alternating yearly MRI and mammography (eg one every 6 months)

62
Q
  1. Young female, returns from extending hiking trip in the Andes with headache. CT shows low density lesion with rim enhancement and associated nodule. Most likely
    a. Cysticercosis
    b. Hydatid
    c. Cryptococcus
A

a. Cysticercosis

63
Q
  1. Regarding DWI which is TRUE?
    a. infarct is high signal on ADC
    b. vasogenic oedema shows reduced water movement
    c. intracellular methaemoglobin is dark on DWI
    d. DWI is normal at the periphery of a pyogenic cerebral abscess
A

**LJS - according to RP, IC MetHb is low on DWI and ADC
All phases except chronic have reduced ADC (lower than normal WM). DWI images variable with age.
https://radiopaedia.org/articles/haemorrhage-on-mri?lang=gb

d. DWI is normal at the periphery of a pyogenic cerebral abscess if this means around the abscess (written as surrounding abscess in the other recall from 2013)
* LW favor this option FALSE, as if surrounding abscess, there will shit load of peri lesional oedema, and thus likely DWI shine through component, hence DWI not normal. ADC correlation recommended.

Regarding DWI which is TRUE?

a. infarct is high signal on ADC
b. vasogenic oedema shows reduced water movement
c. intracellular methaemoglobin is dark on DWI - all compartmentalised Hb (ie still in cell) tends to have restricted diffusion

.d. DWI is normal at the periphery of a pyogenic cerebral abscess if this means around the abscess (written as surrounding abscess in the other recall from 2013).

64
Q
  1. FLAIR ?stem?
    a. epidermoid and arachnoid cyst are best distinguished by FLAIR
    b. cholesterol granuloma T1 and T2 bright
A

b. cholesterol granuloma T1 and T2 bright

65
Q
  1. 20 yo man, MVA 9 month ago with head injury but normal CT brain at the time. Ongoing cognitive impairment and memory issues. If looking for DAI, best sequence?
    a. T2 spoiled gradient
    b. DWI
    c. T2 * GRE
    d. FLAIR
A

c. T2 * GRE or SWI

66
Q
  1. Herpes encephalitis on CT, what is FALSE
    a. sparing of basal ganglia
    b. involvement of insular cortex
    c. involvement of inferior frontal lobes
    d. avid enhancement may be seen in early disease
    e. mass effect
A

d. avid enhancement may be seen in early disease

**LJS - also affects cingulate gyrus, insular cortex and inferior frontal lobe
Enhancement is gyriform and late

67
Q
  1. 30 year old woman, 3 months post partum, headache and hypopituitarism. What is most likely?
    a. lymphocytic hypophysitis
    b. rathke’s cleft cyst
A

a. lymphocytic hypophysitis

68
Q
  1. Regarding lymphocytic hypophysitis, which is FALSE
    a. pituitary enlargment
    b. enlargement of the sella
    c. involvement of the anterior and posterior pituitary
    d. enlargement of the stalk
    e. thickening of the anterior pituitary and adjacent dura
A

b. enlargement of the sella - not chronic enough to do this

*LW:
Based on prior question of sella enlargement, hypophysitis has been listed as a cause especially chronic situation….
Involvement of the posterior pituitary is rare.
Dural enhacement can be seen, so I think this can be extrapolated to thickening…
So unsure over all

**LJS - RP lists all except b). as findings, yet also said to mimic macroadenoma (which expands the sella)
RP also lists “macroadenomas are expected to enlarge the sella turcica” under differentiating features between macroadenoma and lymphocytic hypophysitis. ?this might still be best answer and could be explained by differences in chronicity
Statdx also differentiates on this basis

69
Q
  1. 20 year old man with painless neck mass, ultrasound shows cystic mass at level of angle of the mandible, anterior to sternocleidomastoid, with small part of the lesion directed between the internal and external carotid vessels, most likely (repeat)
    a. branchial cleft 1
    b. branchial cleft 2
    c. thyroglossal duct cyst
    d. ranula
    e. submandibular gland tumour
A

b. branchial cleft 2

70
Q
  1. What does not show leptomeningeal enhancement
    a. idiopathic intracranial hypertension
    b. lymphoma
    c. metastases
    d. bacterial meningitis
    e. viral meningitis
A

*LW:
Intracranial hypotension causes pachymeningeal enhancement, rather than leptomeningeal enhancement (RP).
So either intracranial hypertension or hypotension would technically be wrong….

a. idiopathic intracranial hypertension

*AJL changed it from hypotension to hypertension.
Two reasons:
- Idiopathic intracranial hypotension is not really a thing (though I appreciate the mash up of the words could conceivably be correct). Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a thing.
- Intracranial hypotension DOES show letomeningeal enhancement.

71
Q
  1. 60 year male with a history of stuffy nose and facial numbness. On further questioning he admits to weight loss over the last 6 months. Imaging shows a nasopharyngeal mass. What is the most likely cause of face symptoms
    a. perineural spread along trigeminal nerve
    b. perineural spread along facial nerve
    c. eustachian tube obstruction with otitis media and referred facial symptoms
    d. extensive parapharyngeal lymph node involvement
A

a. perineural spread along trigeminal nerve

72
Q
  1. AJCC classification of cervical lymph nodes includes which group in level 1?

a. submental
b. transcervical
c. posterior cervical
d. superior mediastinal

A

a. submental

73
Q
  1. Synchronous (or almost synchronous) bilateral optic neuritis and spinal cord demyelination is compatible with?
    a. Beriberi
    b. Devic disease
A

b. Devic disease

74
Q
  1. Regarding inverted papilloma, which of the follow is FALSE?
    a. 5% have associated squamous cell carcinoma
    b. when large and fill the maxillary sinus and ipsilateral nasal cavity
    c. replacement of bone with soft tissue indicated malignancy
    d. appearances of lateral growth with extension beneath the mucosa
    e. is one of the Schneiderian papillomas
A

c. replacement of bone with soft tissue indicated malignancy probably the most incorrect. Can’t distinguish reliably on imaging.
74. Regarding inverted papilloma, which of the follow is FALSE?
a. 5% have associated squamous cell carcinoma 10%
b. when large and fill the maxillary sinus and ipsilateral nasal cavity
c. replacement of bone with soft tissue indicated malignancy probably the most incorrect. Can’t distinguish reliably on imaging.
d. appearances of lateral growth with extension beneath the mucosa
e. is one of the Schneiderian papillomas yes

75
Q
  1. Which is least likely to be seen in neurofibromatosis 2?
    a. pseudarthrosis
    b. dural ectasia
    c. schwannoma
    d. meningioma
    e. scoliosis
A

a. pseudarthrosis cant find anything on this on the line.

76
Q
  1. Which is TRUE of imaging of the knee in knee pain?
    a. disproportionate patellofemoral involvement is suggestive of CPPD
    b. Low signal on all MR sequences is pathognomonic for PVNS
    c. Unilateral involvement is suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis
    d. Osgood-Schlatter is commoner in women than men (another well constructed sentence)
A

a. disproportionate patellofemoral involvement is suggestive of CPPD

77
Q
  1. 55yo old woman with bilateral knee pain. X-rays show medial joint space narrowing with ostoeophyte formation. Most likely diagnosis?
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis
    b. Osteoarthritis
    c. Septic arthritis
    d. Reactive arthritis
A

b. Osteoarthritis

78
Q
  1. 20 year old female with chest pain. CT shows chest wall lesion with rib destruction and pleural effusion. Most likely?
    a. Askin tumour
    b. neuroblastoma metastases
    c. elastofibroma
    d. fibrous dysplasia
A

a. Askin tumour

79
Q
  1. MRI knee, which is FALSE?
    a. Normal ACL is perpendicular to Blumenstaadts line
    b. Tears of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus are more common than the anterior horn
    c. The lateral facet of the patella is typically larger than the medial facet
    d. Normal PCL is subject to “magic angle” effect
    e. MCL and ACL disruption are associated
A

a. Normal ACL is perpendicular to Blumenstaadts line

80
Q
  1. A 45 year old house painter presents with limited range of motion. The GP diagnoses frozen shoulder and sends the patient for ultrasound. Your consultant elects to perform a Directly Observed Procedure (DOPS) of your ultrasound scanning technique. You are the first person to scan the patient. How would you position the arm to examine supraspinatus on ultrasound (repeat)
    a. neutral position elbow flexed
    b. hand touching opposite shoulder
    c. internal rotation with arm behind back
    d. external rotation elbow flexed
    e. elbow extended arm abducted
A

. internal rotation with arm behind back or elbow at 90 degrees and shoulder extended – “hand in pocket” position. Good for those with shitty shoulder ROM.

81
Q
  1. Regarding foot deformity which is FALSE?
    a. talipes refers to congenital foot deformity
    b. pes refers to acquired hindfoot deformity
    c equinus refers to plantar flexion of calcaneum
    d. valgus is medial angulation of the forefoot
    e. talipes equinovarus refers to club foot
A
  • AJL - 2 false answers
    b. pes mean foot NOT hindfoot
    d. valgus is medial angulation of the forefoot
82
Q
  1. Regarding MR of the ankle, which is TRUE
    a. fluid within the tendon sheath indicates tendonitis
    b. any intermediate signal within the tendon on PD may represent normal fascicles
    c. the achilles tendon is normally convex anteriorly on axial imaging
    d. the tendon is atrophic in chronic tendinopathy
    e. rupture of achilles tendon typically occurs at calcaneal insertion
A

b. any intermediate signal within the tendon on PD may represent normal fascicles
82. Regarding MR of the ankle, which is TRUE
a. fluid within the tendon sheath indicates tendonitis - Tenosynovitis.
b. any intermediate signal within the tendon on PD may represent normal fascicles
c. the achilles tendon is normally convex anteriorly on axial imaging this is a sign of tendinotpathy
d. the tendon is atrophic in chronic tendinopathy usually enlarged
e. rupture of achilles tendon typically occurs at calcaneal insertion mid substance

83
Q
  1. A long winded stem about a patient presenting with ankle pain. Which of the following is included in the Ottowa ankle rules as a indication for x-ray

a. immediately non weight bearing post event and unable to weight bear 4 steps in the emergency department
b. brusing over either malleoli
c. unable to dorsiflex more than 45 degrees P;
d. anterior joint line swelling
e. ankle joint crepitus

A

a. immediately non weight bearing post event and unable to weight bear 4 steps in the emergency department plus tenderness in the malleolar zones – tips and posterior aspects of the malleoli.

84
Q
  1. Regarding spinal fractures, which is FALSE
    a. 5% of spinal injuries have fractures at non-contiguous levels
    b. cervical anterior teardrop fractures are associated with ventral cord injury
    c. Chance fractures are almost universally associated with neurological deficit
    d. limbus vertebrae are most common in the lumbar spine at the anterosuperior endplate
A

c. Chance fractures are almost universally associated with neurological deficit

85
Q
  1. 21 year old male in a MVA has fractures involving the zygomaticotemporal, zygomaticofrontal and zygomaticomaxillary regions as well as the lateral maxillary sinus wall. What is the best description of this injury?
    a. tripod fracture
    b. nasoethmoidal fracture
    c. le fort 1
    d. le fort 2
    e. le fort 3
A

a. tripod fracture best description actually zygomaticomaxillary complex (ZMC) fracture but whatevs.

86
Q
  1. Regarding cortical desmoid, which is TRUE
    a. arises from the posterior medial femoral epicondyle (not condyle, typo vs significant?)
    b. causes pain
    c. does not have a periosteal reaction
    d. has no uptake on bone scan
A

a. arises from the posterior medial femoral epicondyle (not condyle, typo vs significant?) I flip flop between this and d every time I see this question

*LW:
RP states on bone scan there is an abnormal increase in activity.
Can have periostitis.
Usually asymptomatic, although can occasionally be painful.
The adductor tubercle is a bony protuberance on the medial condyle of the femur and is located superior to the medial epicondyle.

87
Q
  1. Which of the following is the earliest indication of aseptic loosening in a cemented hip prosthesis?
    a. development of a lucent channel surrounding the cement, most marked in zone
    b. pedestal development
    c. thickening of the cortex adjacent to the tip of the prosthesis
    d. formation of a sclerotic line parallelling the cortex
    e. fragmentation of the cement
A

a. development of a lucent channel surrounding the cement, most marked in zone probably this one depending on what zone it was. Normal to have lucency zone 1 of acetabular component, zones 1 and 7 femoral component.