Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RRPA Clinical Med II > Exam 1 Review Questions from Class Game > Flashcards

Exam 1 Review Questions from Class Game Flashcards

1
Q

An ABI of 1.6 is indicative of what?

A

Calcified vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What could be a testable metabolic deficiency that can cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

B12, B6, B1, Vit E, Copper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You have a patient with a left ptosis that is relieved with an ice pack. What receptors are affected in this pathology?

A

Acetylcholine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What protein is seen on a UPEP for someone with multiple myeloma?

A

Bence Jones proteins present in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What cells are seen on a histology study for someone with Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What medication for PAD should you not give to a patient with CHF?

A

Cilostazol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common medication used for peripheral neuropathy?

A

Gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What nerve is affected with Saturday night palsy?

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most commonly occluded coronary artery?

A

LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What prostate cancer therapy involves radioactive beads being inserted into the prostate via a needle?

A

Brachytherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mainstay medication for diabetes insipidus?

A

Desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the DKA triad?

A
  1. Hyperglycemia 2. Ketosis 3. Metabolic Acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient has a A1C of 6.3%. Is this diagnostic of type II diabetes?

A

No - impaired glucose tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are 3 indications of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. Resting tremor 2. Bradykinesia 3. Rigidity (cogwheeling, shuffling gait)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What movement disorder benefits from switching from 1st to 2nd generation antipyschotic?

A

Tardive Dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pt complains of having trouble writing and drinking from a cup. They’ve had relief after having a glass of wine. What kind of tremor is this?

A

Essential Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A patient has fluid overload. You’re considering increasing their 40mg Lasix. What would you increase it to?

A

80mg (double)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which CHF medication is given to all patients with reduced ejection fraction?

A

ACEI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which CHF medication reduces hospitalizations but not mortality?

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most common side effect seen with loop diuretics?

A

Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the only intervention shown to improve quality of life in CHF patients with preserved ejection fraction?

A

Cardiac rehab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A patient has an episode of afib lasting two weeks before undergoing cardioversion. The afib resolves at this point. What afib classification did the patient have?

A

Persistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: A simple partial seizure will have no effects on consciousness

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Y/N: A person has two unprovoked seizures. Do they meet the qualifications for epilepsy?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the most common causes of bacterial sinusitis? (4)

A
  1. Strep pneumo
  2. Staph aureus
  3. M cat
  4. H influ
26
Q

An 18mo old patient presents to your office with an abrupt onset of fever after being at daycare. His mother noticed he seems irritable and is tugging at his left ear. Your examination reveals a bulging TM with decreased mobility. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Otitis media

27
Q

A 65 y/o patient presents to your office for a physical. She has CHF, HTN, and a history of a TIA. What is her CHADS2 score?

A

CHF +1

HTN +1

Hx of TIA +2

Total = 4

28
Q

Part 1: A 12 y.o patient presents to your clinic with sore throat, no cough, fever of 101, swollen tonsils, and no LAD. What is her centor criteria score?

A

4

29
Q

Part 2: A 12 y.o patient presents to your clinic with sore throat, no cough, fever of 101, swollen tonsils, and no LAD. What is the best treatment for this diagnosis?

A

PCN or Amoxicillin x 10-14 days

30
Q

What is the triad involving nasal polyps?

A
  1. Asthma
  2. NSAID allergy
  3. Nasal polyps
31
Q

A 34 y/o patient presents to your clinic with white lesions in his mouth. He has a history of using chewing tobacco. You notice that the lesions cannot be removed by simply rubbing the mucosa. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Leukoplakia

32
Q

What is the most common bacteria involved in endocarditis due to IV drug use?

A

Staph aureus

33
Q

Pt’s with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis are more likely to progress from hyperthyroidism to permanent hypothyroidism if they do what?

A

Smoke

34
Q

You are seeing a 30 yr old pt who is scheduled for a root canal next week. This pt has a PMH of HTN and also has a congenital heart disease repaired with prosthetic. Would you prescribe prophylactic antibiotics for this pt?

A

Yes

35
Q

You see a pt in the ER, presenting with intense chest pain. His EKG shows diffuse ST elevation and you hear a friction rub on auscultation. What is at the top of your differential?

A

Pericarditis

36
Q

What is likely to be elevated on CBC in a pt w/ chronic bronchitis?

A

Hgb

37
Q

Whats the most common thyroid disorder in the US?

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

38
Q

You are seeing a 10 yr old pt with difficulty breathing. On PE you notice nasal polyps and his mother tells you that he is allergic to NSAIDS. You immediately attribute his breathing to asthma, because you are familiar with the _______ triad.

A

Samter’s

39
Q

You prescribe your 25 yr old pt an albuterol inhaler for her asthma. She returns 1 week later stating it is not helping. You ensure that she is using the inhaler properly. What is your next step?

A

Prescribe low dose ICS

40
Q

Your 40 yr old pt presents with asthma exacerbation. You review his meds and notice that he takes metoprolol and rosuvastatin daily. Which medication do you recommend he stop, because you fear that it can be contributing to his asthma flares?

A

Metoprolol

41
Q

Pt presents with profound fatigue, episodic night sweats and intermittent fever that began 1 week ago. On PE you note Janeway lesions and Petechiae. You are an amazing provider and immediately suspect endocarditis. How many sets of blood cultures would you order?

A

3

42
Q

A child presents with diarrhea for one month, labs show evidence of renal failure. What is the most likely type of anemia?

A

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

43
Q

An African American male presents with fatigue and LUQ pain. Exam shows HSM. You obtain a blood smear and it shows Heinz bodies. What type of anemia is this?

A

G6PD Deficiency

44
Q

The liver produces all coagulation factors, except?

A

Factor VIII

45
Q

A peripheral blood smear comes back showing basophilic stippling. What lab would you consider ordering next?

A

Lead level

46
Q

Pt has patchy infiltrates in the right upper lobe. What disease process is this most suggestive of?

A

Tuberculosis

47
Q

What medication is contraindicated in pts with HIV and TB?

A

Rifampin

48
Q

You are in an ER rotation and treating a pt for a headache. What three medications would you use in a headaches cocktail?

A

Torodol, Benadryl, Compazine

49
Q

A 24 year old male presents to urgent care with a sharp pain behind his right eye, rhinorrhea and tearing. What is the diagnosis and treatment?

A

Cluster HA and O2

50
Q

Obese female presents with tinnitus, headaches, and blurred vision x on month? What is the best treatment?

A

LP

51
Q

Pt presents with severe headache, you do a LP and CSF examination shows xanthochromia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

52
Q

Your pt with diagnosed MEN-1 disorder has tumors in the parathyroid and anterior pituitary gland. What other organ should you check for a tumor?

A

Pancreas.

53
Q

Your pt p/w severe hypotension, acute abdominal pain, n/v, fever, and has decreased responsiveness. They appear quite tan! What medications should you give?

A

Adrenal crisis: IVF, glucocorticoids, hydrocortisone or dexamethasone

54
Q

What is the tx for b/l hyperaldosteronism?

A

Spironolactone or inspira

55
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV pts?

A

Pneumocystis PNA (Pneumocystis jerovecii)

56
Q

A 70 y/o pt is dx with PNA. He is confused, has impaired kidney function with elevated BUN. RR 40 breaths/min. Hypotensive with a pressure of 85/60. Do you admit them? If so, where?

A

Yes, ICU.

CURB score is 5

57
Q

Pt is c/o cough and producing rusty colored sputum. What pathogen is the most likely cause?

A

Strep pneumo

58
Q

Vancomycin is historically the drug of choice to tx which type of PNA?

A

MRSA PNA

59
Q

Name 2 of the 3 core clinical features of Lewy body dementia

A
  • Cognitive fluctuations
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Parkinsonism
60
Q

Name the dementia that accompanies or precedes Parkinson’s

A

Lewy body dementia

61
Q

Name a way to assess a dementia pt’s cognition

A

MMSE, MoCA, SLUMS

RRPA Clinical Med II (45 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions