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PM Infectious Disease > Antibiotics > Flashcards

Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

Exacerbation of chronic bronchitis

A

amoxicillin or tetracycline or clarithromycin

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2
Q

Uncomplicated community acquired pneumonia

A

amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycycline

flucloxacillin if staph suspected

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3
Q

Atypical pneumonia

A

clarithromycin

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4
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia

A
  • within 5 days of admission: co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime

- more than 5 days after admission: piperacillin with tazobactam or broad spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone

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5
Q

Lower UTI

A

trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin

alt. amoxicillin or cephalosporin

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6
Q

Acute pyelonephritis

A

broad spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone

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7
Q

Acute prostatitis

A

quinolone or trimethoprim

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8
Q

Impetigo

A

topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin or erythromycin if widespread

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9
Q

Cellulitis

A

flucloxacillin

penicillin allergic: clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline

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10
Q

Cellulitis near eyes or nose

A

co-amoxiclav

clarithromycin and metronidazole if penicillin allergic

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11
Q

Erysipelas

A

flucloxacillin

penicillin allergic: clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline

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12
Q

Animal or human bite

A

-co-amoxiclav

doxycycline and metronidazole if allergic

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13
Q

Mastitis during breast-feeding

A

flucloxacillin

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14
Q

Throat infections

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin

erythromycin

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15
Q

Sinusitis

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin

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16
Q

Otitis media

A

amoxicillin

erythromycin

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17
Q

Otitis externa

A

flucloxacillin

erythromycin

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18
Q

Periapical or periodontal abscess

A

amoxicillin

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19
Q

Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative

A

metronidazole

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20
Q

Gonorrhoea

A

IM ceftriaxone

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21
Q

Chlamydia

A

doxycycline or azithromycin

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22
Q

PID

A

oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or IM ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

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23
Q

Syphilis

A

benzathine benxylpenicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin

24
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A

oral/topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin

25
Q

C diff

A
  • 1st: oral vancomycin
  • 2nd: oral fidaxomicin
  • 3rd: oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole
  • Recurrent within 12 weeks: oral fidaxomicin
  • Recurrent after 12 weeks: oral fidaxomicin/vancomycin
26
Q

Campylobacter enteritis

A

clarithromycin

27
Q

Salmonella (non-typhoid)

A

ciprofloxacin

28
Q

Shigellosis

A

ciprofloxacin

29
Q

Metronidazole ADR

A

disulfiram like reaction with alcohol

30
Q

Rifampicin ADR

A
  • potent CYP450 liver enzyme inducer
  • hepatitis
  • orange secretions
  • flu-like symptoms
31
Q

Sulfonamide ADR

A
  • hyperkalaemia
  • headache
  • rash (Steven Johnson syndrome)
32
Q

Tetracycline ADR

A
  • teeth discolouration
  • photosensitivity
  • angioedema
  • black hairy tongue
33
Q

Trimethoprim ADR

A
  • myelosuppression
  • transient rise in creatinine
  • teratogenic risk in first trimester
34
Q

Vancomycin ADR

A
  • nephrotoxicity
  • ototoxicity
  • thrombophlebitis
  • red man syndrome (on rapid infusion)
35
Q

Chloroquine CONTRA

A

epilepsy

36
Q

Doxycycline ADR

A
  • oesophagitis

- photosensitivity

37
Q

Most common cause of lactational mastitis?

A

staph aureus

38
Q

Most common cause of gas gangrene:

A

clostridium perfringens

39
Q

How is legionella pneumophilia best diagnosed?

A

urinary antigen

40
Q

Bacteria type strep pneumonia

A

gram positive diplococci

41
Q

Bacteria type e coli

A

gram negative bacilli

42
Q

Bacteria type H influenzae

A

gram negative coccobacilli

43
Q

Bacteria type listeria monocytogenes

A

gram positive rod

44
Q

When should vaccines be administered before a splenectomy?

A

2 weeks before

45
Q

How does miliary TB spread?

A

through pulmonary venous system

46
Q

How do you treat pubic lice?

A

malathion

47
Q

Which bacteria typically causes tonsillitis?

A

strep pyogenes

48
Q

Treament of salmonella/gastroenteritis:

A

ciprofloxacin

49
Q

Investigations before starting anti-TB meds:

A

LFTs, U&Es, vision testing, FBC

50
Q

What should be added if the pneumonia is secondary to influenza?

A

flucloxacillin

51
Q

Most common cause of viral encephalitis in adults:

A

herpes simplex virus

52
Q

Which bacteria is associated with reactivating herpes simplex and causing cold sores?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

53
Q

Bacteria type staphylococci:

A
  • gram positive
  • facultative anaerobes
  • produce catalase
54
Q

Staph aureus:

A
  • coagulase positive

- skin infections, abscesses, osteomyelitis, TSS

55
Q

Staph epidermis:

A
  • coagulase negative
  • central line infections
  • infective endocarditis
56
Q

Alpha haemolytic strep:

A
  • streptococcus pneumonias

- streptococcus viridans

57
Q

Beta haemolytic strep

A
  • group A: strep pyogenes, erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, type 2NF, pharyngitis/tonsillitis, immunological reactions - rheumatic fever or post strep GN
  • group B: streptococcus agalactiae (neonatal meningitis and septicaemia)
  • group D: enterococcus

PM Infectious Disease (6 decks)

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