Before exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is critical limb ischaemia

A
  • can be seen as the extreme of intermittent claudciation
  • rest pain (constant pain and opiate analgesia) and tissue loss
  • less than 50mmHg at ankle
  • blood flow is so little that they get pain without doing anything
  • often get pain at night
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2
Q

In critical limb ischaemia what is the blood pressure at the ankle

A
  • less than 50mmHg at ankle
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3
Q

What are the treatment options for peripheral vascular disease

A

• Conservative
– Lifestyle modification (exercise)
- diets - reduce refined sugar and fats
– Stop smoking

• Medical
– Risk factor optimisation

• Surgical
– Endovascular - Angioplasty
– Open - Surgical bypass
– Adjuncts

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4
Q

list what makes up the Glasgow coma score

  • best motor response
  • best verbal response
  • eye opening
A
Best motor response 
6 - obeying commands 
5 - localising to pain 
4 - Withdrawing to pain 
3 - Flexor response to pain 
2- extensor response to pain 
1 -  No response to pain
Best verbal response 
5 - oriented (time, place, person) 
4 - confused conservation 
3 - inappropriate speech 
2 - incomprehensible sounds 
1 - None
Eye Opening 
4 - spontaneous 
3 - In response to speech 
2 - in response to pain 
1 - None
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5
Q

what is a decorticate posture and what does it mean

A

(arms bent inwards on chest, thumbs tucked in a clenched fist, legs extended) = implies damage above the level of the red nucleus in the midbrain

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6
Q

What is a deceberate poster and what does it mean

A
decerebrate posture (adduction and internal rotation of shoulder, pronation of forearm)
= implies midbrain damage below the level of the red nucleus
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7
Q

Describe the ASA grades

A
  • grade 1 = normal health patient - wihtout any clinically important comorbidity and without clinically significant past/present medicial history
  • grade 2 = a patient with mild systemic disease (any alcohol consumption puts you here)
  • grade 3 = a patient with severe systemic disease
  • grade 4 = a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
  • suffix E = Emergency
  • ASA 5 = moribund patient not expected to survive the next 24 hours
  • ASA 6 = brain dead
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8
Q

give examples of surgery grades

A

Grade 1 = minor
- excision of lesion of skin;drainage of breast abscess

Grade 2 = intermediate
- primary repair of inguinal hernia, excision of varicose veins of leg, tonsillectomy, adenotonsillectomy, knee arthroscopy

Grade 3 = major
- total abdominal hysterectomy; endoscopic resection of prostate, lumbar disectomy, thyroidectomy

Grade 4 = major +
- total joint replacement, lung operations, colonic resection, radical neck dissection

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9
Q

Do you stop taking warfarin before surgery

A

Minor surgery – can be undertaken without stopping (if INR<3.5 it may be safe to proceed)

Major surgery – stop for 3-5d pre-op; vitK ± FFP or Beriplex® may be needed for emergency reversal of INR; one elective option is conversion to heparin (when re-warfarinizing give LMWH until INR is therapeutic as warfarin is initially prothrombotic)

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10
Q

What happens to the contraceptive pill before surgery

A
  • Stop 4 weeks before major/leg surgery
  • ensure alternative contraception is used
  • restart 2 weeks after surgery
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11
Q

Name the components of the stress response to surgery

A
  • Sympathetic autonomic nervous system which results in an increased secretion of adrenaline
  • Anterior pituitary - increased risk of ACTH - leading to increased cortisol risk
  • increased ADH
  • growth hormone is increase
  • increased breakdown of carbohydrates
  • protein metabolism is increased
  • fat metabolism is increased
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12
Q

describe the blood supply of the dudenum

A
  • strong blood supply and branches are closely realted
  • gastroduodenal artery from the right hepatic artery passes behind the 1st section
  • this gives rise to the superior pancreaticduodenal artery
  • there are recurrent branches from the inferior pancreaticduodenal artery from the superior mesenterci artery
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13
Q

How do you distinguish direct from indirect hernias

A
  • reduce the hernia and occlude the deep inguinal ring with two fingers

Ask the patient to cough or stand

  • if the hernia is restrained it is indirect
  • if the hernia is not it is direct
  • Gold standard for determining type of inguinal hernia is at surgery; direct hernias arise medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, indirect hernia are lateral
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14
Q

how much fluid is in each of the fluid compartments in the body

A
  • for a 70kg man, total body fluid = 42L (60% of body weight)
  • 2/3 is intracellular 28L
  • 1/3 is extracellular 14L
  • different types of IV fluids will equilibrate with the different fluid compartments depending n the osmotic content of the given fluid
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15
Q

What are the two types of IV fluid

A
  • Crystalloids

- Colloids

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16
Q

Name the types of crystalloids

A
  • 5% glucose (dextrose)
  • 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline)
  • hypertonic glucose (10% or 50%)
  • glucose with sodium chloride (1/5 of normal saline)
  • Hartmann’s solution
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17
Q

What are colloids

A
  • have a high osmotic content similar to that of plasma and therefore remain in the intravascular space for longer than other fluids
  • therefore appropriate for fluid resuscitation but not for general hydration
  • expensive and may cause anaphylactic reactions
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18
Q

What should you use in poor urine output

A
  • aim for >1mg/kg/h, minium is >0.5ml/kg/h
  • give fluid challenge , e.g. 500ml 0.9% saline over 1 hour
  • recheck urine output
  • if not catheterised, exclude retention
  • if catheterised ensure catheter is not blocked
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19
Q

What should you do with shock for fluid balance

A

– resuscitate with colloid or 0.9% saline via large-bore cannulae; identify type of shock

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20
Q

How does pancreatic cancer present if it is in the body and tail of pancreas tumours

A
  • painless obstructive jaundice

- epigastric pain (radiating to back and relieved by sitting forwards) in 75%

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21
Q

What does blood show in pancreatic cancer

A
  • cholestatic jaundice

- increase in CA-19-9 - non specific but helps assess prognosis

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22
Q

What chemotherapy agents are used in colonic cancer

A

FOLFOX regiment

  • fluorouracil
  • Folinic acid
  • Oxaliplatin
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23
Q

What are the signs of gastric cancer

A

Suggests incurable disease

  • epigastric mass
  • hepatomegaly
  • jaundice
  • ascites
  • Virchow’s node
  • acanthosis nigricans
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24
Q

What is a Billroth I

A
  • partial gastrectomy with simple gasproduodenal re-anastomosis
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25
Q

What is a billroth II gastrectomy

A

partial gastrectomy with gastrojejunal anastomosis; duodenal stump is oversewn (leaving blind afferent loop) and anastomosis is achieved by a longitudinal incision into the proximal jejunum

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26
Q

What happens if amylase increases with abdominal pain after a gastrectomy

A

if with abdominal pain, this may indicate afferent loop obstruction after Billroth II surgery and requires emergency surgery

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27
Q

How do you treat diverticular disease

A
  • Antispasmodics

- Surgical resection

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28
Q

At what stage do you need surgery for diverticulitis

A
  • Stage 1 = pericolic or mesenteric abscess = surgery rarely needed
  • Stage 2 = walled off pelvic abscess = may resolve without surgery
  • Stage 3 = generalised purulent peritonitis = surgery required
  • Stage 4 = generalised faecal peritonitis = surgery required
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29
Q

What are the complications of diverticulitis

A
  • perforation
  • haemorrhage
  • fistulae
  • abscesses
  • post-infective strictures
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30
Q

What is the treatment of a perforation of diverticulitis

A
  • Hartmann’s procedure may be performed; primary anastomosis possible in some patients
  • emergency laparoscopic management emerging alternative
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31
Q

What are the associated signs with acute appendicitis

A
  • tachycardia
  • fever
  • peritonism with guarding or rebound tenderness or percussion tenderness in RIF
  • anorexia
  • vomiting - rare
  • Constipation usual - though diarrhoea may occur
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32
Q

What antibiotics are you on appendicitis

A
  • Piperacillin/Tazobactam 4.5g/8h, 1-3 doses IV starting 1h pre-op – reduces wound infections
  • Give longer course if perforated
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33
Q

Define jaundice

A
  • yellowing of the skin, sclera and mucosa from an increase in plasma bilirubin
  • visible at > 60umol/L
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34
Q

What are the two cases of jaundice

A
  • Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia - water insoluble so does not enter urine
  • Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia - water soluble so enters the urine and makes the urine dark, less conjugated bilirubin enters the gut (due to cholestasis) and the faeces become pale
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35
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of pre hepatic jaundice

A
  • excess red blood cell breakdown overwhelms the livers ability to conjugate bilirubin this leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
  • this is not water soluble so cannot be excreted into the urine
  • intestinal bacteria convert some of the extra bilirubin into urobilinogen which is reabsorbed and is excreted by the kidney therefore urinary urobilinogen is increased
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36
Q

Name the pre-hepatic cause of jaundice

A
Congenital RBC issues 
Cell shape 
- sickle cell disease 
- hereditary spherocytosis 
- hereditary elliptocytosis 
Enzyme 
- GP6D deficiency 
- pyruvate kinase deficiency 
Haemoglobin 
- thalassaemia 

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

Drugs

  • penicillin
  • sulphasalazine
  • antimalarials

Infections
- malaria

Mechanical

  • metallic valve prostheses
  • DIC

transfusion reaction s

paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

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37
Q

describe the pathophysiology of hepatocellular causes of bilirubi

A
  • disorders of uptake, conjugation or secretion of bilirubin leading to mixed conjugated and unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
  • cirrhosis
  • malignancy - primary or metastases
  • viral hepatitis
  • Drugs
  • Enzymes
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38
Q

What is Dubin-Johnson syndrome

A
  • Autosomal recessive (cMOAT gene) with excretion of conjugated bilirubin – leads to pigmented liver
  • Increase in conjugated bilirubin with no other enzyme changes
  • High coproporphyrin
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39
Q

Name the causes of post hepatic jaundice

A
  • Billary tree obstruction
  • primary biliary cirrhosis (ANA and anti-microbial Abs)
  • primary sclerosis cholangitis (ANCA, anti-smooth muscle Abs, 80% have UC, association with cholangiocarcinoma)
  • Drugs
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40
Q

What are the causes of jaundice in a previously stable patient with cirrhosis

A
  • Sepsis (UTI, pneumonia, peritonitis)
  • malignancy (hepatocellular carcinoma)
  • alcohol
  • Drugs
  • GI bleeding
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41
Q

How do you define constipation

A
  • defined as the passage of less than or equal to 2 bowel motions a week often passed with difficulty, straining or pain and a sense of incomplete evacuation
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42
Q

What does it mean if you have constipation and

  • rectal bleeding
  • distension and active bowel sounds
  • menorrhagia
A
  • rectal bleeding = cancer
  • distension and active bowel sounds = stricture and GI obstruction
  • menorrhagia = hypothyroidism
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43
Q

What are the general causes of constipation

A
  • poor diet +- lack of exercise
  • poor fluid intake/dehydration
  • IBS
  • old age
  • post-operative pain
  • hospital environment (lack of privacy, having to use a bed pan)
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44
Q

What are the endocrine causes of constipation

A
  • hypercalcaemia
  • hypothyroidism
  • hypokalaemia
  • porphyria
  • lead poisoning
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45
Q

How does bulking agents work

A
  • this is when you increase in faecal mass so stimulating peristalsis
  • this must be taken with plenty of fluids and may take days to act
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46
Q

What are the contraindications of bulking agents

A
  • difficulty in swallowing
  • GI obstruction
  • colonic atony
  • faecal impaction
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47
Q

Name some examples of stimulant laxatives

A
  • Bisacodyl tablets (5-10mg at night) or suppositories (10mg in morning)
  • Senna (2-4 tablets at night)
  • Docusate sodium and Dantron – have stimulant and softening action
  • Glycerol suppositories – act as rectal stimulant
  • Sodium picosulfate (5-10mg at night) – potent stimulant
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48
Q

How do stimulant laxatives work

A

increased intestinal mobility so do not use in intestinal obstruction or acute colitis

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49
Q

Name some stool softeners

A
  • Arachis oil enemas – lubricate and soften impacted faeces

- Liquid paraffin – should not be used for prolonged period

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50
Q

What are the side effects of stool softeners

A
  • anal seepage
  • lipid pneumonia
  • malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins
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51
Q

How does lactulose work

A

Synthetic disaccharide, produces osmotic diarrhoea of low faecal pH that discourages growth of ammonia-producing organisms

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52
Q

What do osmotic laxatives do

A

retain fluid in the bowel

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53
Q

name the types of osmotic laxatives

A
  • Lactulose 30-50mL/12h (initial dose)
  • Macrogel e.g. Movicol
  • magnesium salts e.g. magnesium hydroxide, magnesium sulfate
  • sodium salts e.g. microlette and microlax enemas
  • phosphate eneams
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54
Q

What is the thumbprinting sign

A

if someone was to put there thumbs on either side of the bowel this is thumb printing of the bowel this represents diffuse oedema of the bowel
PRESNET IN ISCHAEMIC COLITIS

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55
Q

What are the causes of thumbprinting sign

A
  • ischaemic/inflammatory bowel diease
  • pseudomembranous colitis
  • diverticulitis
  • lymphoma
  • amyloid
  • typhoid
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56
Q

What is pneumobilia

A

gas within the biliary tree

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57
Q

What can cause gas within the biliary tree

A
  • incompetent sphincter of oddi; sphinterectomy (50% at 1 year)
  • pancreatitis
  • gallstone disease
  • Biliary - enteric anastomosis
  • biliary entery fistula
  • infection: cholangitis
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58
Q

What is sacral ilietus

A
  • when you cannot see the sacral ileus joint and it increases in whitness
  • associated with ankolysing spondylitis and IBD
  • fusing of the sacral ileus joint
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59
Q

What structures lie in the retroperitoneum

A
  • D2
  • D3
  • Ascending colon
  • descending colon
  • rectum
  • adrenal glands
  • aorta
  • IVC
  • pancreas except tail, ureters and kidneys
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60
Q

What structures are intraperitoneal

A
  • stomach
  • D1
  • D4
  • Jejunum
  • ileum
  • transvere colon
  • sigmoid colon
61
Q

what is CT KUB only used for

A
  • renal/ureteric calculi
62
Q

How do you manage acute pancreatitis

A

Aggressive fluid resuscitation

  • 1-2L bolus
  • 250-300ml/h
  • titrate to urine output and other parameters

Analgesia
- opioid based

empirical antibiotics

  • consider if greater than 30% pancreatic necrosis, max 14 days
  • but no proven role

Nutrition

  • early enteral feeding preferable
  • may need to be nasojejunal
63
Q

What is chronic pancreatitis associated with

A
  • pancreatic atrophy
  • fibrosis
  • calcification
64
Q

describe the modified Glasgow scale and how it is used to work out the severity of acute pancreatitis

A
3 or more factors detected within 48 hours of onset suggests severe pancreatitis and should prompt transfer to ITU/HDU 
(mnemonic PANCREAS) 
- PaO2 = <8kPa
- Age = >55 years
- Neutrophillia = WBC >15X109/L
- Calcium = <2mmol/L
- Renal function = Urea > 16mmol/L
- Enzyme = LDH>600iu/L; AST>200iu/L
- Albumin = <32g/L
- Sugar = Glucose >10mmol/L
65
Q

Name the early complications of acute pancreatitis

A
  • Shock
  • ARDS
  • renal failure
  • DIC
  • sepsis
  • calcium decreased
  • increase in glucose
66
Q

What are the late complications of acute pancreatitis

A
  • Pancreatic necrosis and pseudocyst
  • abscesses
  • bleeding - from elastase eroding a major vessel such as a splenic artery
  • thrombosis - may occur in the splenic/gastroduodenal arteries or colic branches of the SMA causing bowel necrosis
  • Fistulae - normally closes spontaneously, if purely pancreatic they do not irritate the skin
  • Recurrent oedematous pancreatitis - may require near-total pancreatectomy
67
Q

What surgery is offered to patients with acute pancreatitis

A
  • Necrosectomy - stops the progress of infection and release of pro-inflammatory mediators
  • Percutaneous drainage
68
Q

What are the risk factors of gallstones

A

5Fs - fat, 40s, fair, female, fertile

  • family history
  • drugs - Oral Contraceptive Pill, fibrates
  • associated conditions - sickle cell disease, cirrhosis, Crohn’s
69
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic cholecystitis

A
  • flatulent dyspepsia = vague abdominal discomfort, distension, nausea, flatulence and fat intolerance
  • fat stimulates cholecystokinin release and gallbladder contraction
70
Q

what does the blood tests look like in cholecystitis

A
  • FBC - elevated WCC
  • CRP - elevated
  • LFT - Elevated ALT/ALP
  • patient should not be jaundice as there is no blockage to the flow of the bile
  • U&E, clotting and blood gas should be normal
71
Q

What is the treatment that is used in Chronic cholecystitis

A
  • cholecystectomy
  • ERCP and sphincterotoy before surgery - if US shows a dilated CBD with stones
  • if symptoms persist post-op consider hiatus hernia/IBS/peptic ulcer/chronic pancreatitis/tumour
72
Q

What are the symptoms of biliary colic

A
  • colicky RUQ pain
  • radiation to the right shoulder
  • time - only last for hours as it is a temporary blockage of the bile or cystic ducts
  • repeated episodes
  • brought on after eating fatty foods
73
Q

what is the treatment for biliary colic

A
  • remove the stones (ERCP)

- Remove the cause of the stone - removal of the gallbladder - surgery - cholecystectomy

74
Q

What is the cause of obstructive jaundice

A
  • anything that blocks the drainage of bile
  • gallstones - commonest cause
  • extraluminal - malignant/benign, e.g. pancreatic cancer/pancreatic cysts
  • intraluminal/stricutres such as cholangiocarcinoma
75
Q

What are the symptoms of obstructive jaundice

A
  • Jaundice
  • dark urine - increased bilirubin
  • pale stool - decreased bilirubin
  • itching
  • Nausea & Vomiting
  • +/- pain
76
Q

What do the blood look like in pancreatitis

A

FBC - elevated WCC/platelets

  • U&E - possible renal impairment
  • LFT - may have jaundice and ALP/ALT elevation
  • CRP - often elevated
  • blood gas - elevated lactate
  • pancreatic enzymes - lipase/amylase are elevated
77
Q

What do you need to diagnose pancreatitis

A

2 out of 3 of:

  • typical symptoms
  • pancreatic enzymes > 3x upper limit of normal
  • radiographic evidence
78
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic pancreatitis

A
  • pain
  • nausea and vomiting
  • malabsorption: weight loss, steatorrhoea
79
Q

what is the treatment for chronic pancreatitis

A
  • analgesia
  • antiemetics
  • pancreatic enzyme replacement
  • treat the cause
  • treat the complications - pseudocysts, CBD/duodenal obstruction, venous thrombosis, ascites
80
Q

What is Murphy’s sign

A
  • Lay 2 fingers over the RUQ, ask patient to breathe in
  • This causes pain and arrest of inspiration as an inflamed gallbladder impinges on your fingers
  • It is only positive if the same test in the LUQ does not cause pain
81
Q

Name the causes of GORD

A
  • lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) hypotension
  • hiatus hernia
  • oesophageal dysmotility (e.g. systemic sclerosis)
  • Obesity
  • gastric acid hyper secretion
  • Smoking
  • alcohol
  • pregnancy
  • drugs - TCAs, anticholinergics, nitrates
  • H.pylori
82
Q

What classification is used for GORD

A

Los Angeles classification of esophagitis

  • classifies it from mild to severe
  • at grade D there is a risk of a stricture developing
83
Q

What are the risk factors for Gastric uulcers

A
  • H.Pylroi
  • smoking
  • NSAIDS
  • reflux of duodenal contents
  • delayed gastric emptying
  • stress
  • older patietns - greater than 70 years old
  • co-morbidity
  • other drugs such as anticoagulants
84
Q

What investigations do you use in GORD

A

Endoscopy

1) if dysphagia
2) if greater than 55 years old with alarm symptoms
3) if treatment-refractory dyspepsia

24 hour oesophageal pH monitoring and manometry to help diagnose GORD when endoscopy is normal

85
Q

What is the procedure of fundoplication for GORD

A
  • defect in diaphragm is repaired by tightening the crura
  • reflex is prevented by wrapping the gastric fundus around the LOS
  • Nissen = 360 degree wrap
  • Toupet = 270 degree posterior wrap
  • Watson = anterior hemifundoplication
86
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of duodenal ulcer

A

Symptoms

  • asymptomatic or epigastric pain
  • +- weight gain
  • gets better when you eat

Signs
- epigastric tenderness

87
Q

What are the symptoms of a gastric ulcer

A
  • asymptomatic or epigastric pain (relieved by antacids and worsened by eating) +- weight loss
88
Q

What are the signs of a perforated ulcer

A
  • prostration
  • shock
  • lying still
  • +ve cough test
  • tenderness - +/- rebound/percussion pain
  • board like abdominal rigidity
  • guarding
  • no bowel sounds
89
Q

What drugs can cause oesophageal strictures

A
  • Bisphosphanates
  • NSIADS
  • tetracyclines
90
Q

What are the symptoms if the polyps are on the left side of the colon

A
  • frank blood
  • constipation
  • diarrhoea
  • obstruction
91
Q

What are the symptoms if the polyps are on the right side of the colon

A
  • less overt blood
  • intussuscpetion (rare)
  • constipation
  • diarrhoea
  • obstruction
92
Q

What are hyperplastic polyps

A
  • this is a serrated polyp
  • not dysplastic
  • asymptomatic
  • most common type
93
Q

What are sessile serrated lesions, polyps, adenomas

A
  • neoplastic polyps with premalignant features
94
Q

Describe a hamartomatous polyps

A
  • rare
  • tend to occur in children and young adults
  • normal tissue in abnormal location
  • e.g. Peutz Jergher
95
Q

describe peutz-jegher polyp

A

hamartomatous polyp with characteristic features; absorbing smooth muscle
- can have dysplasia and adenocarcinoma

WHO criteria

  • 3 or more PJ polyps
  • any number of PJ polyps with family history of PJS
  • characteristic mucocutaneous pigmentation with family history of PJS
  • any number of PJ polyps and mucocutaenous pigmentation
96
Q

What is the most common polyp in children

A

Juvenile polyps

97
Q

What is the definition of juvenile polyposis syndrome

A
  • 5 or more juvenile polyps in colorectum
  • juvenile polyps throughout GI tract
  • any number of polyps and family history
98
Q

What is malaena

A
  • black tarry stools and has a characteristic smell of altered blood
99
Q

What is haematochezia and what it is a sign of

A
  • fresh or altered blood passing rapidly PR

- sign of large upper GI bleed

100
Q

What are the causes of upper GI bleeding

A
  • Peptic ulcer disease 35-50%
  • oesophageal varices 5-10%
  • mallory-weiss tear 15%
  • oesophagitis
  • gastritis/ gastric erosions 8-15%
  • Drugs - NSIADS, aspirin, steroids, thrombolytics, anticoagulants
  • erosive duodenitis
  • portal hypertensive gastropathy
  • Upper GI malignancy
  • vascular malformation
  • can be no cause
101
Q

What are the causes of lower GI bleeding

A
  • diverticular disease
  • haemorrhoids
  • mesenteric ischaemia
  • coliits
  • cancer
  • rectal ulcers
  • angiodysplasia
  • radiation
  • drugs
  • others
102
Q

What are the complications of massive blood transfusion

A
  • fluid overload
  • electrolyte/acid base disturbance
  • transfusing products devoid of clotting factors - consider additional FFP/platelets/cryopreciptate
  • hypotermia
  • patients with repeated blood transfusions may develop iron overload
103
Q

Describe how the Glasgow blatchford score works

A
  • look at specific blood markers
  • looks at history

score of under 2
- low risk UGIB - consider outpatient endoscopy

Score of greater than 6
- 80% required endoscopic treatment due to significant GI bleed

104
Q

What risk stratification score is used for assess a patient before endoscopy to see if they have a high risk of re-bleeding

A
  • Glasgow blatchford score - 1st line - before endoscopy

- rockall score - calculated in patients who have already had an endoscopy

105
Q

Describe the Rockall Risk score for upper GI bleeds

Pre- endoscopy

  • age
  • shock (SBP and HR)
  • Comorbidity

Post endoscopy

  • Diagnosis
  • Sings of recent haemorrhage and at endoscopy
A
Pre endoscopy 
0 points 
- age = under 60 years old  
- shock (SBP and HR) 
= >100mmHg, <100bpm 
- Comorbidity = Nil Major 

1 points

  • Age = 60-79 years
  • SBP >100mmhg
  • HR > 100bpm
  • Co morbidity = heart failure and IHD

2 points

  • Age = >80 years
  • SBP = < 100mmHg
  • Co morbidity = renal or liver failure

3 points
- co morbidity = metastases

Post endoscopy
0 points
- mallory-weiss tear
- no signs or a dark red spot at endoscopy

1 point
- all other diagnoses

2 points

  • upper GI Malignancy
  • blood in upper GI tract, adherent clot, visible vessel
106
Q

What is the definition of diarrhoea

A
  • 3 and more stools a day and loose
107
Q

What can cause motility diarrhoea

A
  • thyrotoxicosis
  • iBS
  • DM
  • autonomic neuropathy
108
Q

What is Clostridum difficile associated with

A
  • use of broad spectrum antibiotics - (clindamycin, cephalosporins, penicillins, fluoroquinolones)
  • use of PPIs

TREAT USING VANCOMYCIN

109
Q

Describe the severity of disease C difficile

A
Mild 
- 3 stools a day
- normal WCC
treatment 
- Oral metronidazole 400mg/8h PO for 10-14d
Moderate 
- 3 -5 stools a day
- raised WCC
treatment 
- Oral metronidazole 400mg/8h PO for 10-14d
severe 
- WCC raised 
- temperature greater than 38.5 degrees 
- raised CR 
- abdominal pain or XR acute colitis 
Treatment 
- oral vancomycin 125mg/6hr PO
complicated
- hypotension 
- partial ileus 
- evidence of severe disease on CT
Treatment 
- Oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole 
life threatening
- complete ileus or toxic megacolon 
Treatment 
- oral vancomycin and IV metranidazole 
- faecal microbiota transplant 
- consider colectomy if toxic megacolon, raised LDH or deteriorating
110
Q

What conditions can cause steatorrhoea

A
  • pancreatic insufficiency
  • biliary obstruction
  • coeliac disease/malabsorption
111
Q

How do you treat IBS

A
  • reassurance
  • FODMAP
  • Sparing use of anti-spasmodics
  • CBT - in those that need it
  • antibiotics in some
  • probiotics
  • anti-depressants
112
Q

What is a toxic megacolon

A
  • this occurs when the swelling and inflammation spread into the deeper layers of the colon, therefore the colon stops working and widens, it can rupture in serve cases
  • Greater than 6cm
113
Q

What is the border of clots triangle

A
  • Lateral border = cystic duct
  • Medial border = common hepatic duct
  • Superior = inferior edge of the liver
114
Q

What is the double duct sign

A
  • Pancreatic malignancy
115
Q

What are the different type of stoma

A
  • Loop colostomy
  • ileostomy
  • colostomy
116
Q

What are the types of different stoma and the differences between them

A

Loop Colostomy
- a loop colostomy with double barrelled stoma

Ileostomy

  • prominent and sticks out
  • Typically in the right side

Colostomy

  • sits flush with the skin
  • typically in the left iliac fossa
117
Q

How long do you have to wait between giving the urea breath test with antibiotics and PPI

A
  • no antibiotics in the last 4 weeks

- no PPI in the last 2 weeks

118
Q

What is the genetics of haemochromatosis and Wilsons disease

A

autosomal recessive

119
Q

What is carcinoid tumour

A

A diverse group of tumours of enterochromaffin cell (neu- ral crest) origin, by definition capable of producing 5HT.

120
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of carcinoid tumours

A

GI tumours can cause ap- pendicitis, intussusception, or obstruction. Hepatic metastases may cause RUQ pain. Tumours may secrete bradykinin, tachykinin, substance P, VIP, gastrin, insulin, gluca- gon, ACTH ( Cushing’s syndrome), parathyroid, and thyroid hormones. 10% are part of MEN-1 syndrome (p223); 10% occur with other neuroendocrine tumours.

121
Q

What test is risen in carcinoid tumours

A

increase 24h urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5HIAA, a 5HT metabolite; levels change with drugs and diet: discuss with lab). CXR + chest/pelvis MRI/CT help locate primary tumours.

122
Q

What is the treatment of carcinoid tumours

A
  • Octreotide (somatostatin analogue) blocks release of tumour mediators and counters peripheral effects. Long-acting alternative: lanreotide. Loperamide for diarrhoea
  • . Tumour therapy: Resection is the only cure for carcinoid tumours so it is vital to find the primary site
123
Q

Name the blood test used in IBD

A
  • Faecal calprotectin
124
Q

What are the types of haemorrhoids

A
  • Type 1 = remain in the rectum
  • Type 2 = Prolapse through the anus on defecation but spontaneously reduce
  • type 3 = As for 2nd-degree but require digital reduction
  • type 4 = Remain persistently prolapsed
125
Q

What is Rigler’s sign

A

sign of pneumoperitoneum (air under the diaphragm)

126
Q

What are these a biomarkers used for

  • CA19-9
  • HCG
  • CEA
  • Alpha fetoprotein
  • CA125
A
  • CA19-9 = Pancreatic cancer
  • HCG = pregnancy
  • CEA - colon cancer
  • Alpha fetoprotein = HCC
  • CA125 = ovarian cancer
127
Q

What is the difference between gastric epithelium and oesophagus epithelia,

A

gastric type = simple columnar

oesophageal = straitifed squamous epithelium

128
Q

What is fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome

A

itz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a rare disorder that happens when pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) causes swelling of the tissue around the liver.

129
Q

What molecules are used in synthetic liver function

A
  • Prothrombin

- platelets

130
Q

What is flank bruising called

A

Turners sign

131
Q

What is periumbilcial bruising called

A
  • cullens sign
132
Q

What makes up sepsis 6

A

give 3 take 3

  • IV antibiotics
  • IV fluids
  • oxygen
  • Blood cultures
  • lactate
  • urine input and output
133
Q

What is Virchow’s node

A

LEFT supraclavicular lymph nodes

134
Q

Signs that you can get in appendicitis

A

Rovsing’s sign = pain > in RIF than LIF when the LIF is pressed

Psoas sign = pain on extending hip if retrocaecal appendix

Cope sign = pain on flexion and internal rotation of the right hip if appendix in close relation to obturator internus

pain on right during DRE - suggests an inflamed, low lying pelvic appendix

135
Q

What are the three classes of anti emetics

A
  • H1r anatognists = Cyclizine
  • D2r antagonists, 5HT4r agonist = Metoclopramide
  • 5HT3 antagonists = Ondansetron
136
Q

What is the mechanism of action of azathioprine

A
  • Inhibits purine synthesis
137
Q

What does Courvoisier’s law state

A

Courvoisier’s law states that in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice, a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones

138
Q

What does aminosalicylate cause

A

can cause agranulocytosis therefore FBC is a key investigation

139
Q

What blood tests are used in syntethic liver function

A
  • Albumin

- Prothrombin

140
Q

At what speed should maintenance fluids be given

A

30ml/kg/hr

141
Q

What does a paracetamol over dose look like on a liver screen

A

High ALT normal ALP, ALT/ALP ratio is high

142
Q

How do you investigate coeliac disease if IgA deficiency

A

She has IgA deficiency so interpretation of a normal IgA tTG is impossible. To further investigate if this is the true cause, IgG tTG could me measured, but the definitive investigation would be a duodenal biopsy.

143
Q

what is choledocholithiasis

A

choledocholithiasis (gallstones in the biliary tree)

144
Q

How does isoniazid cause perisperhal neuropathy

A

Isoniazid therapy can cause a vitamin B6 deficiency causing peripheral neuropathy

145
Q

What does a raised SAAG indicate in ascites

A

A raised SAAG (>11g/L) indicates that it is portal hypertension that has caused the ascites.

146
Q

how does loperamide work

A

slows down gastric moiltity through stimulation of opioid receptors

147
Q

What is a better measurement of acute liver failure prothrombin or albumin

A

Prothrombin has a shorter half-life than albumin, making it a better measure of acute liver failure

148
Q

How does Wilsons disease present on blood test

A
  • serum caeruloplasmin is decreased
  • reduced total serum copper (counter-intuitive, but 95% of plasma copper is carried by ceruloplasmin)
  • free (non-ceruloplasmin-bound) serum copper is increased
  • increased 24hr urinary copper excretion
149
Q

blood profile in haemochromatosis

A

raised transferrin saturation and ferritin, with low TIBC is the characteristic iron study profile in haemochromatosis