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intro microbiology (openstax) > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following is not an example of a fomite?
A.	catheter
B.	doorknob
C.	mosquitoes
D.	towels
A

C. mosquitoes

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2
Q 
HEPA filters are required for which Biological Safety Level (BSL)?
A.	BSL 1
B.	BSL 2
C.	BSL 3
D.	BSL 4
A

D. BSL 4

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3
Q 
The autoclave uses which of the following mechanism(s) for sterilization? 
A.	pressure
B.	temperature
C.	pressure and temperature
D.	pressure, temperature, and pH
A

C. pressure and temperature

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4
Q 
Autoclaves are designed to kill which of the following heat-resistant microbes?
A.	endospores
B.	prions
C.	vegetative bacterial and fungal cells
D.	viruses
A

A. endospores

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5
Q 
The decimal reduction time (D-value) is how long it takes to kill which percentage of a microbial population? 
A.	10%
B.	50%
C.	90%
D.	100%
A

C. 90%

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6
Q

Which of the following actions would be most clearly considered bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal?
A. autoclaving bacterial cultures
B. placing a bacterial culture in the −80 C freezer
C. spraying 70% alcohol on a laboratory bench
D. treating a mattress with ethylene oxide

A

B. placing a bacterial culture in the −80 C freezer

All other kill- this inhibits growth

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7
Q 
Microbial death follows which type of trend?
A.	linear
B.	logarithmic
C.	power series
D.	variable
A

B. logarithmic

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8
Q 
Which of the following are the standard conditions for an autoclave?
A.	100 C, 1 psi, 60 minutes
B.	121 C, 1 psi, 60 minutes
C.	121 C, 15 psi, 20 minutes
D.	212 C, 15 psi, 10 minutes
A

C. 121 C, 15 psi, 20 minutes

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9
Q 
For appropriate food storage in refrigerators, the temperature should be set to no higher than which of the following?
A.	5 C/ 41F
B.	7 C/ 44.6F
C.	9 C/ 48.2F 
D.	11 C/ 51.8F
A

B. 7 C/ 44.6F

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10
Q 
Liquid growth media that contain antibiotics should be sterilized using which method?
A.	autoclaving
B.	boiling
C.	HEPA filtration
D.	membrane filtration
A

D. membrane filtration

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11
Q 
18.	Which method of microbial control does not rely on denaturing proteins and/or disrupting the integrity of the cell membrane?
A.	autoclaving
B.	lyophilization
C.	treatment with alcohols
D.	treatment with phenolics
A

B. lyophilization

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12
Q 
19.	Phenolic compounds can be found naturally in which group of organisms/ who found it?
A.	animals
B.	bacteria 
C.	fungi
D.	plants
A

D. plants

Lister

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13
Q 
20.	Which phenolic compound has commonly been added to soap and raises concerns about selection for more antimicrobial-resistant bacteria?
A.	capsaicin
B.	carbolic acid
C.	o-phenylphenol
D.	triclosan
A

D. triclosan

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14
Q
  1. Which best describes how heavy metals can control microbial growth?
    A. denaturing proteins, impairing cell function
    B. by cross-linking proteins
    C. by introducing double-strand breaks into DNA
    D. by inserting pores in the cell membrane
A

denaturing proteins, impairing cell function

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15
Q
  1. What is argyria?
    A. a buildup of silver in the body resulting in blue-gray skin
    B. a form of skin necrosis due to topical use of phenolics
    C. inadequate blood supply resulting in chest pain
    D. microorganisms growing in the blood
A

a buildup of silver in the body resulting in blue-gray skin

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16
Q 
23.	Which halogen or halogen-containing compound is typically used as a form of topical antisepsis? 
A.	bromine
B.	chloramine
C.	fluorine
D.	iodophor
A

D. iodophor

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17
Q 
25.	Contact lens cleaners commonly use which type of chemical agent to control microbial growth?
A.	alkylating agents
B.	peroxygen
C.	quats
D.	supercritical fluid
A

B. peroxygen

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18
Q 
26.	Which of the following is not an alkylating agent?
A.	chlorhexidine
B.	ethylene oxide
C.	formalin
D.	o-phenylphenol 
E.     Glutaraldehyde
A

A. chlorhexidine

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19
Q 
27.	Many chemical preservatives, such as potassium sorbate, preserve food products in which of the following ways?
A.	by altering the pH
B.	by binding to pathogens
C.	by changing the osmolarity
D.	by drying foods
A

A. by altering the pH

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20
Q 
Which of the following is used to determine if a solution of disinfectant actively used in the clinical setting is contaminated?
A.	the disk-diffusion method
B.	the in-use test
C.	the phenol coefficient test
D.	the use-dilution test
A

B. the in-use test

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21
Q

Commercial sterilization kills all microbes

A

FAlse

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22
Q
  1. Pasteurized foods cannot spoil
A

False

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23
Q
  1. Autoclaves use moist heat to sterilize materials.
A

True

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24
Q

HEPA filters are able to filter many airborne virions.

A

True

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25
Q

Quats are not effective against endospores and prions.

A

TRUE

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26
Q

antisepsis

A

a chemical process used to control microbial growth on body surfaces

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27
Q

asepsis

A

a technique used to prevent contamination to maintain sterility

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28
Q

a chemical process used to control microbial growth on inanimate objects

A

disinfection

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29
Q

a process that kills nonspore-forming pathogenic pathogens

Not sterilization

A

pasteurization

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30
Q

lowering microbial load to public health standards

A

sanitization

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31
Q

physically remove/ rub a microbe from a surface

A

soap / Degerming

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32
Q

bind to sulfur-containing amino acids to inhibit enzyme activity

A

heavy metals

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33
Q

denature proteins and disrupt membrane integrity

A

alcohols

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34
Q

-cidal agents

A

kill

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35
Q

-static agents

A

inhibit- allow for immune system to catch up

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36
Q

Efficacy of control

A

contact time , characteristics, environment, number of microbes

37
Q

Physical methods of control :

A 
Heat 
low temp 
high pressure
desiccation (dying)
osmotic pressure
radiations
filters 
Plasmolysis
38
Q

Chemical methods of control :

A 
Heavy metals
phenol 
halogens - iodine chlorine 
alcohols
QUATS
bisbiguanides
alklating agents 
peroxygens
supercritical fuilds
39
Q

Can not tell between -static , - cidal effectivness in chemical agents (zones of inhibition)

A

Disk diffusion (kirby-Bauer test)

40
Q

can tell between -static, -cidal

A

Dilution test

41
Q 
1.	Which was the first antimicrobial agent discovered to treat sprirochete causing syphilis?
A. chloramphenicol
B. compound 606 
C. penicillin
D. sulfonamide
A

B. compound 606 - salvarsan

42
Q 
2.	Who is credited for first finding an antimicrobial agent?
A. Paul Ehrlich
B. Alexander Fleming 
C. Edward Jenner
D. Joseph Lister
A

A. Paul Ehrlich

43
Q 
3.	Who is credited for first finding a naturally occurring antimicrobial agent (penicillin-mold) ?
A. Paul Ehrlich
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Edward Jenner
D. Joseph Lister
A

B. Alexander Fleming

44
Q 
4.	Alexander Fleming first observed a mold (now known as Penicillium notatum) that was able to inhibit which organism? 
A. Escherichia
B. Listeria
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
A

C. Staphylococcus

45
Q 
5.	Which of the following is a semisynthetic antimicrobial agent?
A. actinomycin
B. ampicillin
C. streptomycin
D. neomycin
A

B. ampicillin

46
Q
  1. Which describes a superinfection?
A

B. A superinfection is a type of secondary infection that can develop when antibiotics kill much of the patient’s normal flora.
Broad-spectrum antimicrobial use may lead to the development

47
Q
  1. Life-threatening diseases caused by bacterial pathogens should be treated with which of the following?
    A. bactericidal agents only
    B. bacteriostatic agents only
    C. both bacteriostatic and bactericidal agents
    D. neither bacteriostatic nor bactericidal agents
A

A. bactericidal agents only

48
Q
  1. The penicillins act on which type of bacteria?
    A. gram-negative bacteria only
    B. gram-positive bacteria only
    C. mostly gram-negative bacteria and some gram-positive bacteria
    D. mostly gram-positive bacteria and some gram-negative bacteria
A

D. mostly gram-positive bacteria and some gram-negative bacteria

49
Q 
13.	The aminoglycosides directly target which structure of the bacterial cell?
A. 30S ribosomal subunit
B. DNA
C. cell wall
D. plasma membrane
A

30S ribosomal subunit

50
Q 
You have discovered a new antibiotic. It is lipophilic and detergent-like. On the basis of this information, its target is most likely which of the following?
A. peptidoglycan
B. the bacterial ribosome
C. the plasma membrane
D. nucleic acid synthesis machinery
A

C. the plasma membrane

51
Q 
Sulfa drugs (sulfonamides) inhibit which metabolic pathway?
A. dihydrofolic acid synthesis pathway
B. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
C. Entner–Doudoroff pathway
D. pentose-phosphate pathway
A

A. dihydrofolic acid synthesis pathway

folic acid

52
Q

Metronidazole, chloroquine (quinine derivative) and artemisinin anti malarial drugs are used to treat which type of infection?A. bacterial
B. fungal
C. helminth
D. protozoan

A

D. protozoan

53
Q 
22.	Benzimidazoles and avermectins are used to treat which type of infection?
A. bacterial
B. fungal
C. helminth
D. protozoan
A

C. helminth

54
Q 
23.	Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as ART, can be used to target which virus?
A. herpes
B. HIV
C. influenza
D. rabies
A

B. HIV

55
Q 
26.	Which of the following contributes to the development of antibiotic resistance?
A. blocked/reduced penetration
B. efflux pump
C. inactivation of enzyme
D. target modification
A

D. target modification

56
Q
  1. Antimicrobial agents may be the metabolites of microorganisms or synthetically made.
A

True

57
Q
  1. If antibiotic treatment is needed for immunocompromised individuals who develop infections, the medications should be bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic.
A

true

58
Q

The Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion assay can distinguish between bacteriostatic and bactericidal agents

A

False

59
Q

Due to concern of antimicrobial resistance, the number of antimicrobial drugs approved by the FDA has increased since the 1980s.

A

false

60
Q

inhibits cell wall synthesis

A 
ꞵ-lactam group
 penicillins
 cephalosporins
 monobactams
 carbapenems
Bacitracin
61
Q

inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

A

fluoroquinolone

rifampin

62
Q

acts as an antimetabolite

A

• Trimethoprim

sulfa drugs

63
Q

microbial substances that, in small

amounts, inhibit another microbe

A

Antibiotics

64
Q

medicinal beer bacteria

A

Streptomyces- actinomycetes

65
Q

there is no ideal antimicrobial drug

A

true

66
Q

Synergism

Antagonism

A

Synergism = 1+1&raquo_space; 2

Antagonism =1+1 &laquo_space;2

67
Q

Penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, and carbapenems all contain a,________, the site of attack by inactivating β-lactamase enzymes.

A

B-lactam ring

68
Q

each generation is trying to improve the drug class.

A

true

69
Q

Isoniazid, Bedaquiline use to fight against what

A

Mycobacterium (TB)

70
Q

fungal sterol___?

A

ergosterol

71
Q

Nematodes / roundworms, Lice, mites drug?

A

Avermectins (ex. – ivermectin

72
Q

tapeworms and flukes drug?

A

Praziquantel

73
Q

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) many types of antiviral drugs combinations to treat?

A

hiv

74
Q

resistance mechanisms

A

-Efflux pumps prevent accumulation
-Inactivation by enzymes
-Target modification, overproduction, or mimicry
-Blocked
penetration

75
Q

Which of the following would be considered a symptom?
A. blood pressure reading of 150/90 mm Hg
B. body ache and chills
C. fever of 39 C
D. heart rate of 120 bpm

A

B. body ache and chills

76
Q

Which of the following would be considered a sign?
A. blurry vision
B. body ache and chills
C. burning sensation during urination
D. gross hematuria (visible presence of blood in urine)

A

D. gross hematuria (visible presence of blood in urine)

77
Q

Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial disease?
A. acquiring Giardia while drinking from a stream during a camping trip
B. acquiring Listeria after eating at a public restaurant
C. acquiring MRSA after touching a locker door handle after an already infected individual did so
D. obtaining a Pseudomonas respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital

A

D. obtaining a Pseudomonas respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital

78
Q 
Sickle cell anemia can be classified as which type of disease?
A. idiopathic
B. infectious, communicable
C. infectious, noncommunicable
D. noninfectious
A

D. noninfectious

79
Q 
5.	Which of the following is not a zoonotic disease?
A. rabies
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. typhoid
D. yellow fever
A

C. typhoid

80
Q 
What period of disease describes when the patient begins to feel general signs and symptoms?
A. incubation period
B. period of convalescence
C. period of illness
D. prodromal period
A

D. prodromal period

81
Q 
During which period of disease is a patient most susceptible to developing a secondary infection?
A. incubation period
B. period of convalescence
C. period of decline
D. prodromal period
A

C. period of decline

82
Q
  1. Which of the following is the definition of pathogenicity?
    A. the ability of a microbial agent to cause disease
    B. the ability of a microbial agent to cause infection
    C. the ability of a microbial agent to prevent disease
    D. the ability of a microbial agent to produce an antimicrobial compound
A

A. the ability of a microbial agent to cause disease

83
Q 
16.	Which describes the condition in which blood contains actively dividing bacteria?
A. bacteremia
B. septicemia
C. toxemia
D. viremia
A

B. septicemia

84
Q 
17.	Molecular Koch’s postulates are used to identify which characteristic of pathogens?
A. an effective treatment
B. the ID50
C. the LD50
D. virulence factor genes
A

D. virulence factor genes

85
Q 
21.	What is the toxic component of endotoxin?
A. lipid A
B. the core oligosaccharide
C. the O-antigen
D. the peptidoglycan subunits
A

A. lipid A

86
Q 
24.	An enterotoxin targets which type of cell?
A. cardiac cells
B. hepatic cells
C. intestinal cells
D. respiratory cells
A

C. intestinal cells

87
Q 
Which toxin inhibits the release of glycine and GABA at the neuromuscular junction, thus preventing the relaxation of muscles?
A. anthrax
B. botulinum
C. diphtheria
D. tetanus
A

D. tetanus

88
Q
  1. All pathogens satisfy Koch’s postulates.
A

False

intro microbiology (openstax) (4 decks)

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