Bio Psych brief Flashcards

1
Q

What does dorsal mean

A

Towards the back

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2
Q

What plane through the brain does this image display?

A

Sagittal

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3
Q

The brain has three parts, the hindbrain, midbrain and …..?

A

Forebrain

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4
Q

What part of the brain is comprised of the medulla, pons and cerebellum?

A

Hindbrain

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5
Q

When damaged which brain region leads to dysmetria of thought? What is it?

A

Cerebellum
• The cerebellum (“little brain”) is in the posterior cranial fossa.
• It represents 10% of the total brain volume and contains more than 50% of the total number of neurons of the central nervous system.
• Traditionally been seen primarily to coordinate voluntary movement
• Specifically, playing an essential role in movement execution and motor control by modulating the primary motor cortex (M1) through cerebellothalamocortical connections.
• It is also responsible for several functions including motor skills such as balance, coordination, and posture.

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6
Q

The outer portion of the cerebrum is called the?

A

Cerebral Cortex
• The cerebral cortex is the outer covering of gray matter over the hemispheres. This is typically 2- 3 mm thick, covering the gyri and sulci.
• The cortex is divided into four different lobes, the frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital, which are each responsible for processing different types of sensory information.

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7
Q

What part of the brain has multiple nuclei that receives input from sensory systems and transmits that information to different parts of the cortex.

A

Thalamus
• The thalamus relays sensory impulses from receptors in various parts of the body to the cerebral cortex.
• A sensory impulse travels from the body surface towards the thalamus, which receives it as a sensation. This sensation is then passed onto the cerebral cortex for interpretation as touch, pain, or temperature.

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8
Q

Which brain area controls homeostasis by communicating with the pituitary gland?

A

Hypothalamus
• The hypothalamus plays a significant role in the endocrine system.
• Responsible for maintaining your body’s internal balance, which is known as homeostasis.
• The hypothalamus helps stimulate or inhibit many of your body’s key processes, including:
• Heart rate and blood pressure
• Body temperature
• Fluid and electrolyte balance, including thirst
• Appetite and body weight

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9
Q

What is the function of the pituitary gland?

A

Synthesizes hormones
• The pituitary gland is a tiny organ, the size of a pea, found at the base of the brain.
• Termed the “master gland” of the body.
• It produces many hormones that travel throughout the body, directing certain processes or stimulating other glands to produce other hormones. The pituitary gland makes or stores many different hormones (i.e., prolactin (stimulates breast milk production), growth hormone (stimulates growth, maintains muscle/bone health) and so on)

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10
Q

The hippocampus is involved in which cognitive function?

A

Memory
• The hippocampus, which is located in the inner (medial) region of the temporal lobe, forms part of the limbic system, which is particularly important in regulating emotional responses.
• The hippocampus is thought to be principally involved in storing long-term memories and in making those memories resistant to forgetting, though this is a matter of debate.
• Thought to play an important role in spatial processing and navigation.

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11
Q

What fluid fills the central canal and ventricles?

A
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
•	While the primary function of CSF is to cushion the brain within the skull and serve as a shock absorber for the central nervous system, CSF also circulates nutrients and chemicals filtered from the blood and removes waste products from the brain.
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12
Q

How many ventricles does the brain have?

A

4

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13
Q

What is the main commissural tract that allows the two hemispheres of the brain to communicate?

A

Corpus Callosum

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14
Q

How many distinct layers (Laminae) of cell bodies comprises the cerebral cortex?

A

6

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15
Q

What is the Occipital Lobe the primary target for?

A

Visual Information
• The occipital lobes sit at the back of the head and are responsible for visual perception, including colour, form and motion.

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16
Q

Which Lobe is important for processing spatial information?

A

Parietal Lobe
• Responsible for integrating sensory input to form a single perception (cognition) on the one hand, while also forming a spatial coordinate system to represent our world, on the other hand.

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17
Q

Damage to the inferior parietal cortex can result in …?

A

Hemispatial Neglect

• Hemispatial inattention is an attention disorder that prevents the patient from attending to stimuli on one side.

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18
Q

The postcentral gyrus is also known as?

A

Primary Somatosensory Cortex
• The somatosensory cortex is a part of your brain that receives and processes sensory information from the entire body.
• The main sensory receptive area for the sense of touch.

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19
Q

The left Temporal Lobe is essential for…..?

A

Understanding Spoken Language
• The functions of the left temporal lobe are not limited to low-level perception but extend to comprehension, naming, and verbal memory.

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20
Q

A tumor in the temporal lobe can give rise to:

A

Visual Hallucinations

Auditory Hallucinations

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21
Q

The Precentral Gyrus is also known as the….?

A

Primary Motor Cortex
• The precentral gyrus (PCG), also known as the motor strip or primary motor cortex, is the part of the brain’s neocortex responsible for executing voluntary movements.

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22
Q

The most anterior part of the frontal lobe is called… ?

A

Prefrontal Cortex
• The prefrontal cortex (PFC) is the cerebral cortex covering the front part of the frontal lobe.
• Implicated in planning complex cognitive behavior, personality expression, decision making, and moderating social behaviour.

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23
Q

What is the consequence of damage to the precentral gyrus?

A

Contralateral Hemiplegia

• For example, a stroke involving the right side of the brain may cause contralateral paralysis of the left leg.

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24
Q

Neurons in the frontal cortex are designed to integrate vast amounts of information. What morphological feature promotes this integration?

A

They have 16 times as many dendritic spines
• Dendritic spines serve as a storage site for synaptic strength and help transmit electrical signals to the neuron’s cell body.

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25
Q

What were some of the consequences of frontal lobotomies?

A

Apathy
Lost Social Inhibitions
Inability to Plan

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26
Q

Which brain area when damaged can impact decision making?

A

Prefrontal Cortex

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27
Q

The question of how various brain areas produce a single perception of an object is called the …?

A

Binding Problem
• How items that are encoded by distinct brain circuits can be combined for perception, decision, and action.
• Another way of saying this… how the brain perceives and represents different features, or conjunctions of properties, as one object or event.

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28
Q

CNS stands for?

A

Central Nervous System.
The nervous system is a network of cells called neurons that coordinate actions and transmit signals between different parts of the body. Neurons (specialized cells of the nervous system) send signals along thin fibers called axons and communicate with other cells by releasing chemicals called neurotransmitters at cell-cell junctions called synapses. The synapse is that small pocket of space between two cells, where they can pass messages to communicate.

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29
Q

There are two parts to the nervous system: The central nervous system and the…?

A

The Peripheral Nervous System.
The PNS consists of the nerves and ganglia outside the brain and spinal cord. The main function of the PNS is to connect the CNS to the limbs and organs, essentially serving as a relay between the brain and spinal cord and the rest of the body.

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30
Q

The CNS is comprised of

A

Brain, Spinal Cord.

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31
Q

The Peripheral Nervous System can be broken up into?

A

Somatic Nervous System.
The somatic nervous system (SNS or voluntary nervous system) is the part of the peripheral nervous system associated with the voluntary control of body movements via skeletal muscles. The somatic nervous system consists of afferent nerves or sensory nerves, and efferent nerves or motor nerves. Autonomic Nervous System. The autonomic nervous system is a control system that acts largely unconsciously and regulates bodily functions, such as the heart rate, digestion, respiratory rate, pupillary response, urination, and sexual arousal. This system is the primary mechanism in control of the fight-or-flight response.

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32
Q

What are two branches of the peripheral nervous system

A

Sympathetic Nervous System. The sympathetic nervous system directs the body’s rapid involuntary response to dangerous or stressful situations. A flash flood of hormones boosts the body’s alertness and heart rate, sending extra blood to the muscles.
Parasympathetic Nervous System. The parasympathetic nervous system is one of three divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Sometimes called the rest and digest system, the parasympathetic system conserves energy as it slows the heart rate, increases intestinal and gland activity, and relaxes sphincter muscles in the gastrointestinal tract.

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33
Q

Lobes of the brain

A

Frontal, Occipital, Temporal, Parietal. Traditionally, each of the hemispheres has been divided into four lobes. The brain’s cerebral cortex is the outermost layer that gives the brain its characteristic wrinkly appearance. The cerebral cortex is divided lengthways into two cerebral hemispheres connected by the corpus callosum.

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34
Q

The “mini brain” which is located between the brain stem and the cerebrum. is called:

A

Cerebellum.
One major function of the cerebellum is to coordinate the timing and force of these different muscle groups to produce fluid limb or body movements.

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35
Q

What term describes a ridge on the surface of the cerebral hemisphere caused by an infolding of the cerebral cortex?

A

Gyrus.

In humans, the lobes of the brain are divided by several bumps and grooves.

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36
Q

What term describes a shallow furrow on the surface of the brain?

A

Sulcus.
These are known as gyri (bumps) and sulci (groves or fissures). The folding of the brain, and the resulting gyri and sulci, increases its surface area and enables more cerebral cortex matter to fit inside the skull.

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37
Q

What term describes a deep furrow on the surface of the brain (a natural divide)

A

Fissure. The longitudinal fissure (or cerebral fissure, great longitudinal fissure, median longitudinal fissure, interhemispheric fissure) is the deep groove that separates the two cerebral hemispheres of the vertebrate brain

38
Q

Afferent connections are nerves that?

A

Incoming Nerves (e.g., sensory).

39
Q

Two types of cells in the nervous system

A

Neurons
Neurons (also called neurones or nerve cells) are the fundamental units of the brain and nervous system, the cells responsible for receiving sensory input from the external world, for sending motor commands to our muscles, and for transforming and relaying the electrical signals at every step in between.
Gila Cells.
Glia, also called glial cells or neuroglia, are non-neuronal cells in the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) and the peripheral nervous system that do not produce electrical impulses. They maintain homeostasis, form myelin, and provide support and protection for neurons.

40
Q

What two Glia cells belong to the peripheral nervous system

A

Satellite glial cells. Schwann.. Both satellite glial cells (SGCs) and Schwann cells (the cells that ensheathe some nerve fibers in the PNS) are derived from the neural crest of the embryo during development.

41
Q

What two types of glia cell are involved in myelination?

A

Schwann, Oligodendrocytes. Myelination refers to an increase in the fatty sheath surrounding neuronal processes and fibers that increases the efficiency of electrical transmission. Oligodendrocytes also produce the myelin sheath insulating neuronal axons

42
Q

What membrane protein transports three sodium ions out of the cell and two potassium ions into the cell?

A

The Sodium-potassium pump. Powered by ATP, the pump moves sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions, each against its concentration gradient.

43
Q

The electrical and concentration gradient are both acting to move the sodium:

A

Inside the cell.

44
Q

The resting membrane potential is

A

~70 mV. A resting (non-signaling) neuron has a voltage across its membrane called the resting membrane potential, or simply the resting potential. The resting potential is determined by concentration gradients of ions across the membrane and by membrane permeability to each type of ion.

45
Q

What statement best describes how the electrical and concentration gradients are impacting potassium when the neuron is at rest.

A

The electrical gradient is pulling potassium into the cell and the concentration gradient is pushing it out of the cell.

46
Q

The channels regulating sodium and potassium are?

A

Voltage-Gated. Voltage-gated ion channels are a class of transmembrane proteins that form ion channels that are activated by changes in the electrical membrane potential near the channel. The membrane potential alters the conformation of the channel proteins, regulating their opening and closing.

47
Q

The membrane potential threshold to produce an action potential is approximately?

A

-55 mV. When the depolarization reaches about -55 mV a neuron will fire an action potential. This is the threshold. If the neuron does not reach this critical threshold level, then no action potential will fire.

48
Q

The period after an action potential in which the cell cannot produce another is called the

A

Absolute refractory period. The absolute refractory period is a period where it is completely impossible for another action potential to be activated, regardless of the size of the trigger (stimulus). This is because the sodium channels are inactivated and remain that way until hyperpolarisation occurs. Hyperpolarization is a change in a cell’s membrane potential that makes it more negative. It is the opposite of a depolarization. It inhibits action potentials by increasing the stimulus required to move the membrane potential to the action potential threshold.

49
Q

The “All or None” law refers to

A

The amplitude and velocity of an action potential is independent of the intensity of the stimulus that initiated.

50
Q

What are the two benefits of saltatory conduction?

A

Speed and energy. Saltatory conduction is the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node, increasing the conduction velocity of action potentials.

51
Q

EPSP stands for?

A

Excitatory postsynaptic potential. Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is a postsynaptic potential that makes the postsynaptic neuron more likely to fire an action potential.

52
Q

When the action potential reaches the axon terminal, the open ions channel allows …….. to flow into the cell

A

Calcium.

53
Q

A receptor that when bound by a neurotransmitter changes shape and allows ions to flow into the cell.

A

Ionotropic.

54
Q

What type of receptor signals secondary messenger proteins?

A

Metabotropic.

55
Q

What two ways can a graded potential be inhibitory?

A

Allow potassium ions out of the cell, Allow chloride ions into the cell.

56
Q

DNA stand for

A

Deoxyribonucleic Acid. DNA was discovered in 1869 by Swiss researcher Friedrich Miescher, who was originally trying to study the composition of lymphoid cells (white blood cells). Instead, he isolated a new molecule he called nuclein (DNA with associated proteins) from a cell nucleus.

57
Q

A nucleotide is made up of which three components

A

Nitrogenous Base, Phosphate, Deoxyribose

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the four DNA bases: Adenine, Thyosine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine

A

Thyosine

59
Q

Adenine binds with

A

Thymine
Thymine is one of the building blocks of DNA. It’s one of the four nucleotides that are strung together to make the long sequence that you find in DNA.

60
Q

Guanine binds with

A

Cytosine
Within the DNA molecule, cytosine bases located on one strand form chemical bonds with guanine bases on the opposite strand. The sequence of four DNA bases encodes the cell’s genetic instructions.

61
Q

How many chromosomes do humans have

A

46
A chromosome is a long DNA molecule with part or all of the genetic material of an organism. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes–22 pairs of numbered chromosomes, called autosomes, and one pair of sex chromosomes, X and Y. Each parent contributes one chromosome to each pair so that offspring get half of their chromosomes from their mother and half from their father.

62
Q

Each human cell contains approx …. metres of DNA

A

2 meters. That makes a total of 6 billion base pairs of DNA per cell. … Moreover, it is estimated that the human body contains about 50 trillion cells—which works out to 100 trillion meters of DNA per human.

63
Q

A gene is

A

A distinct sequence of nucleotides.
Wilhelm Roux in 1883 speculated that chromosomes are the carriers of inheritance. Danish botanist Wilhelm Johannsen coined the word “gene” (“gen” in Danish and German) in 1909 to describe these fundamental physical and functional units of heredity. William Bateson in 1905 coined the term genetics from the word gene.

64
Q

How long can a gene be

A

In humans, genes vary in size from a few thousand DNA bases to more than 2 million bases. An international research effort called the Human Genome Project, which worked to determine the sequence of the human genome and identify the genes that it contains, estimated that humans have between 20,000 and 25,000 genes.

65
Q

DNA is compacted into chromosomes by wrapping around what type of protein structures?

A

A histone is a protein that provides structural support to a chromosome. In order for very long DNA molecules to fit into the cell nucleus, they wrap around complexes of histone proteins, giving the chromosome a more compact shape. Some variants of histones are associated with the regulation of gene expression.
Gene expression is the process by which the instructions in our DNA are converted into a functional product, such as a protein. … It acts as both an on/off switch to control when proteins are made and also a volume control that increases or decreases the amount of proteins made.

66
Q

There are how many different kinds of amino acids

A

Your body needs 20 different amino acids to grow and function properly.

67
Q

The process in which DNA is copied to mRNA is called

A

Transcription describes the process by which the genetic information contained within DNA is re-written into messenger RNA (mRNA) by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in three steps: initiation, elongation, and termination.

68
Q

The mRNA codes for amino acids in

A

A codon is a trinucleotide sequence of DNA or RNA that corresponds to a specific amino acid. A codon is a sequence of three DNA or RNA nucleotides that corresponds with a specific amino acid or stop signal during protein synthesis.

69
Q

The process in which Ribosomes like amino acids together to form peptide chains is called?

A

Translation is the process of translating the sequence of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule to a sequence of amino acids during protein synthesis. The genetic code describes the relationship between the sequence of base pairs in a gene and the corresponding amino acid sequence that it encodes

70
Q

How does tRNA transfer the correct amino acid based on the code in the mRNA

A

Complimentary anticodons

71
Q

What does the primary structure of DNA refer to

A

The sequence of bases in the nucleic acid chain gives the primary structure of DNA or RNA.

72
Q

The tertiary structure of a protein refers to

A

The overall three-dimensional arrangement of its polypeptide chain in space. It is generally stabilized by outside polar hydrophilic hydrogen and ionic bond interactions, and internal hydrophobic interactions between nonpolar amino acid side chains.

73
Q

What does SNP stand for

A

Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs). Current studies are investigating how single nucleotide polymorphisms, or SNPs (pronounced “snips”), in the human genome correlate with disease, drug response, and other phenotypes.

74
Q

All SNPs result in a change in the amino acid coded for

T/F

A

False
The importance of SNPs comes from their ability to influence disease risk, drug efficacy and side-effects, tell you about your ancestry, and predict aspects of how you look and even act. SNPs are probably the most important category of genetic changes influencing common diseases.

75
Q

What does the COMT gene code for

A

A enzyme that metabolizes catecholamines. The COMT gene provides instructions for making an enzyme called catechol-O-methyltransferase. Two versions of this enzyme are made from the gene. The longer form, called membrane-bound catechol-O-methyltransferase (MB-COMT), is chiefly produced by nerve cells in the brain.

76
Q

What three neurotransmitters are catecholamines

A

There are five established biogenic amine neurotransmitters: the three catecholamines—dopamine, norepinephrine (noradrenaline), and epinephrine (adrenaline)—and histamine and serotonin.

77
Q

If you have two copies of the same gene it is referred to as being

A

Homozygous is a genetic condition where an individual inherits the same alleles for a particular gene from both parents. The disease may be expressed mildly or not at all. If you’re homozygous for the recessive mutated gene, you have a higher risk of the disease.

78
Q

What COMT genotype is likely to have increased levels of dopamine in the PFC

A

Met/Met. MET (MET Proto-Oncogene, Receptor Tyrosine Kinase) is a Protein Coding gene. Diseases associated with MET include Renal Cell Carcinoma, Papillary, 1 and Deafness, Autosomal Recessive 97.

79
Q

A SNP on what gene is associated with Alzheimer’s

A

APOE. The lipoprotein ApoE is a very low-density lipoprotein, responsible in part for removing cholesterol from the bloodstream. Variations in ApoE affect cholesterol metabolism, which in turn alter your chances of having heart disease and in particular a heart attack or a stroke.

80
Q

Which APOE genotype is at greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s

A

APOE4.

81
Q

Alternate forms of a gene are referred as

A

Alleles
An allele is one of two, or more, versions of the same gene at the same place on a chromosome. It can also refer to different sequence variations for a several-hundred base-pair or more region of the genome that codes for a protein.

82
Q

All the cells in your body have the same DNA

A

True

83
Q

How do cells know what DNA to express

A

Epigenetic tags regulate gene expression by acting as gatekeepers, blocking, or allowing access to a gene’s ‘on’ switch. These chemical tags (such as methyl or acetyl groups) are added directly to DNA or onto histones, the large spool-like proteins around which DNA is tightly wound.

84
Q

What are kinds of epigenetic markers

A

Methylation and Acetylation. Epigenetic markings are changes to DNA or its packaging components that alter gene expression, effectively turning gene transcription on and off, and that are inherited by daughter cells. Daughter cells are cells that result from the division of a single parent cell. They are produced by the division processes of mitosis and meiosis. Cell division is the reproductive mechanism whereby living organisms grow, develop, and produce offspring.

85
Q

At the embryonic stage, do the epigenetic tags dictate cell type in place

A

Yes

86
Q

Why does histone modification impact gene expression

A

It impacts gene accessibility. A histone modification is a covalent post-translational modification (PTM) to histone proteins which includes methylation, phosphorylation, acetylation, ubiquitylation, and sumoylation. The PTMs made to histones can impact gene expression by altering chromatin structure or recruiting histone modifiers.

87
Q

147 nucleotide pairs wrapped around histone proteins is referred as

A

Nucleosome.

88
Q

In JIrtle et al (2013) what was the result of feeding a diet rich in B-vitamins to rat carrying the Agouti gene during gestation

A

Offspring displayed normal features despite having the agouti gene.

89
Q

In Champagne et al (2008) what type of receptors was reduced in rats with mums that displayed low licking grooming

A

Mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid receptors

90
Q

Individual differences in licking and grooming of rat pups in the first few weeks of life were associated with

A

Stress responsiveness, emotionality and cognitive function.

91
Q

Can lifestyle factors influence your epigenome

A

Yes. Several lifestyle factors have been identified that might modify epigenetic patterns, such as diet, obesity, physical activity, tobacco smoking, alcohol consumption, environmental pollutants, psychological stress, and working on night shifts