Unit 2- Talent & Acquisition (HRCP) Flashcards

1
Q

List the Classes Protected Under Civil Rights Act of 1964

A

race, color, religion, sex or national origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe Changes Implemented by the Civil Rights Act of 1991 (6 provisions)

A

1) Shifting the burden of proof- ex: plaintiff who sued initially bears the burden of proving fact that, if no rebutting evidence is presented, would allow that party to win the case
2)Particularity- when an applicant claims that the hiring process is discriminatory they are required to identify which process is causing the discrimination - such as culturally biased personnel test, prejudiced interview, etc
3) Foreign Practices- extends protection to US citizens working for US companies in foreign countries
4) Race Norming- prohibits altering the results of employment related tests on the basis of race, religion, sex, or national origin test takers
5) Motivating factors- ex: female is passed up for promotion both because of inadequate performance & because her behavior doesn’t fit a traditional stereotype of how a woman should act
6) Remedies- most significant provision is introduction of Jury Trials w/ the possibly of compensatory damages
$50,000 for 15-100 emp
$100,000 for 101-200 emps
$200,000 for 201-500 emps
$300,000 for 500+ emps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define BFOQ

A

When employers are able to discriminate when the attributes (sex, national origin, religion) are necessary for the operation of business (RACE IS NEVER A BFOQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Examples of BFOQ (4)

A

1) a locker room attendant to satisfy modesty
2) fashion model or movie actor (male clothing designers)
3) When a sex is unequipped to do the job (wet nurse)
4) Can only hire members of the church & reject clergy from other religions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain Disparate Treatment

A

When a person is treated differently because of that person’s race, religion, sex or national origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define Disparate Impact

A

unintentional discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain the conditions for establishing a prima facie case of discrimination, as established by the US Supreme Court in the Case of McDonnell Douglas vs. Green: (4 conditions)

A

1) person belongs to a protected minority
2) the person applied & was qualified for an advertised job opening
3) despite the person’s qualifications, the person was rejected
4) after the person was rejected, the position remained open & the employer continued to seek applicants w/ similar qualifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Griggs Vs Duke Power

A

requires employers to promote & hire based on a person’s ability to perform the job- cannot use IQ tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain Glass Ceiling

A

organizational barriers that prevent women from receiving promotion info, training, encouragement, mentoring & other opportunities to advance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain Pregnancy Discrimination Act

A

requires employers to treat pregnancy, child birth & related health medical conditions the same as other health related issues w/respect to benefits & leave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain Hardison vs Trans World Airlines

A

Employee claimed that TWA did not satisfactorily accommodate his needs to observe a Saturday Sabbath. However, TWA provided multiple accommodations that employee did not accept.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Accommodations for religious observances, according the SC, should not require an employer to: ( 4 things)

A

1) sacrifice the rights of other workers
2) Breach a collective bargaining agreement to provide benefits or special needs that would not be equally enjoyed by others
3) Suffer a loss in work unit efficiency
4) Provide more than “de minimus” action (the employer should not have to pay out for another worker or for a replacement worker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe EEOCs Role in Enforcing Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

A

EEOC was created to enforce Title VII - has original jurisdiction over charges that arise under that title. EEOC has the jurisdiction to investigate charges of discrimination , to attempt to reconcile the parties, to bring suit in federal ct on behalf of an aggrieved employee, or to authorize the aggrieved party to bring suit in federal cts by issuing a “notice of right to sue”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain the EEO Reporting Requirements

A

Private employers w/100 ore more emp & federal contractors w/ 50 or more employees have to submit EEO-1 report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an EEO-1 Report

A

is an annual compliance survey mandated by federal law & regulations. The survey data employers employment data to be categorized by race/ethnicity, gender & job category. Basically provides basic demographic summary of employer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Statute of limitations for filing a Title VII claim is how many days?

A

180 days - but can be extended to 300 days. This limit can be extended for cases in which there is an ongoing pattern of discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define a mediation

A

informal, out of court settlement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define Adverse Impact

A

the negative effect an unfair & biased selection process has on a protected class- even if may be unintentional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Four-Fifths Rule

A

states that if the selection rate for a certain group is less than 80 percent of that of the group with the highest selection rate, there is adverse impact on that group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the Provisions of Order Number 4 (aka Executive Order 11246) (5 provisions)

A

1) prohibits employment discrimination by fed government contractors & subcontractors
2) Also requires contractors to take affirmative action in hiring & promoting minorities, women, Vietnam era veterans & disable vets- cov’g has been extended to include individuals w/disabilities
3) Regulations establish a 7% utilization goal for disabled employees
4) Contractors must conduct an annual analysis to identify problem areas
5) Contractors are required to document the number of disabled individuals who apply for jobs & the number that are hired - applicants are asked to self identify if they have a disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the role of the OFCCP (Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs)

A
  • was created by Order Number 4
  • is an agency within the US Dept of Labor
  • holds those who do business w/the fed gov responsible for complying with the legal requirement to take affirmative action & not discriminate on the basis of race, color, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, religion, national origin, disability or status as a protected vet.
  • Responsible for monitoring the affirmative action programs of fed contractors and sub-cons as required by 3 regulations:
    1) executive order 11246
    2) Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act
    3) Section 503 of the Rehabilitation Act
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the requirements of an Affirmative Action Plan

A
  • Defines the good faith efforts an employer is expected to make to hire and promote minorities, women, vets, & disabled
  • Includes policies, practices, & procedures that ensure that all qualified candidates are receiving an equal opportunity for recruitment, selection & advancement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An Affirmative Action Plan (AAP) should include the following: (10 items)

A

1) Organizational profile- like a workplace analysis
2) Job Group Analysis- list of job titles that comprise each group
3) Placement of incumbents in job groups- lists the % of minorities and % of women in each job group
4) Determining availability- determines availability of the number of qualified minorities or women in the reasonable recruitment area
5) comparing incumbency to availability-compares the % of minorities & women in each group w/the availability for those job groups- calls utilization analysis
6) Placement Goals- must address under utilization in any job groups by utilizing placement goals to measure progress toward achieving EEO
7) Designation of responsibility- an official of the organization will implement the AAP
8) Identifications of problem areas
9) Action oriented programs- correct any problem areas and to attain established goals and objectives
10) Internal Audit & reporting system- must develop and audit system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain Reverse Discrimination

A

where preferential treatment is shown to female and minorities (discrimination of Caucasians and males)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain coverage provided by the ADEA (Age Discrimination in Employment Act)

A
  • Protects anyone over 40
  • excludes executives and high policy making emp from coverage
  • Can successfully claim age discrimination if:
    a) over 40
    b) fired, demoted, or adversely affected
    c) employee has been performing the job well enough to meet the employers legitimate expectations

Note: reverse discrimination does not violate the ADEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Explain ADEA’s requirements for Early Retirement Programs

A
  • ERISA coordination- need to be coordinated w/ the Employee Retirement Income Security Act, which governs pension and employee welfare plans
  • Eligibility requirements- criteria to be eligible should be clear -such as all managers w/20 yrs of svc, etc
  • Incentive- should be fair and sufficient to attract employees
  • Employee acceptance- must be “knowing & voluntary”, employees who accept typically have to sign a release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define Constructive Discharge

A

when an employer intentionally creates a work environment so unbearable as to compel a reasonable employee to quit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Explain Provisions of the Americans w/Disabilities Act (3)

A

-Applies to employer w/15 or more employees

A person w/ a disability is categorized as the following:
1) is considered to have a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities such as caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, communicating & working.

2) has a record of such an impairment, such as cancer or heart disease
3) is regarded as having such an impairment, such as being a former drug addict or alcoholic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is ADAAA

A

ADA was amended in 2008 as the ADAAA- to significantly increase the # of medical conditions that qualify as disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Explain ADA

A

Employer must provide or offer reasonable accommodations- this could be work leave- as long as it doesn’t cause an undue hardship on the employer.

Note: alcoholism is seen as a disability under ADA- illegal drug use is not protected- but recovering addicts are protected as long as they are receiving treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Explain Vocational Rehabilitation Act

A

is a federal law that is intended to increase the employment opportunities for disabled & to prevent discrimination against “handicap”

-Approves grants to states for vocational rehab services, supported employment, independent living & client assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Explain Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act

A
  • Prohibits discrimination against disabled veterans generally & viet vets (whether disabled or not)
  • this act helps veterans find jobs, encourages employers to hire them & requires states to streamline veteran employment services

Note: A veteran of vietnam is anyone who served on active duty for more than 180 days btw August 5, 1964 & May 7, 1975 & was discharged w/other than a dishonorable discharge or who was released for a service connected disability during this period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Explain GINA (Genetic Information Non-Discrimination Act)

A

-Gina makes it illegal for an employer to discriminate against an employee due to their genetic info or family members genetic info - such as history of cancer or heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Explain USERRA (Uniformed Services Employment & re-employment Rights act)

A
  • Prohibits discrimination against people who serviced in the uniformed services which include:
  • any branch of the Armed Forces
  • the Army National Guard & the Air National Guard
  • the commissioned corps of the Public Health Service
  • any other category designated by the President in time of war or emergency

Note: dishonorably discharged is not covered .

Cliff-notes: USERRA limits the employers ability to terminate returning employees, except for just cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Explain the provisions of USERRA (3)

A
  • Employees who are absent less than 31 days must report to the employer within 8 hrs of arriving home. Those absent btw 31-180 days must submit an app for re-employment within 14 days. Those absent 181 days or more have 90 days to submit an app for re-employment
  • Employees are entitled to the position that they would have held had they remained continuously employed
  • Returning employee are entitled to all of the seniority-based benefits they had when their service began - this is known as the Escalator Principle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Explain IRCA (Immigration Reform and Control Act)

A

this act reduces the number of un-documented immigrants coming into the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe What Info Must be Verified on an i9 Form

A

-all new employees are required to complete & sign a verification form (i9) to certify that they are eligible for employment.

Requires 2 Types of verification:

1) proof of identity
2) evidence of employment authorization- likes a drivers & ss card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

i9 has to be completed within _ days of the date of employment

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is an H1-B Visa

A

employer must offer a job & petition for H1-B Visa; issued to a specialty occupation

Can usually be obtained within 45-120 days of filing for the petition -may stay in the US the greater of: length of assignment, or up to a total of 6 yrs. The initial period of work may be approved for up to 3 yrs, with the possibility of an additional 3 yrs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Employers have to submit what 2 forms for H1-B Visa?

A

1) Labor Condition Application (LCA) aka labor attestation: which demonstrates that the foreign national will not displace a local worker or be used in a lockout or strike
2) Petition for a Non-immigrant worker- which classifies the foreign national as a temp worker & must be filed by the US employer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define Long Range Planning

A

involves developing a business strategy - establishes a corporate philosophy & org mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define Middle Range Planning

A

consists of establishing goals & obj that an org will pursue for the next 2-5yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define Short Range Planning

A

developing yearly performance goals & annual operating plans- all managers should be involved in short range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Explain the 3 Stages of Strategic HR Planning

A

Stage 1: Hr forecasts are highly informal & subjective. Managers establish goals. Recruitment & hiring are mostly reactive as they fill vacancies that occur (short term)
Stage 2: needs are forecast for the coming year- info is obtained identifying the talents of the individuals & their interests in promotion
Stage 3: Hr needs are forecast with the aid of computer simulations or sophisticated forecasting models- employees are assisted w/mapping their career paths- org anticipates turnover, attrition and retirement. Future plans for recruiting new employees has been established. Ex: Hewlett Packard, General Electric, US Military

Note: a formal HR planning system is not essential until an org has more than 100 or 200 employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

List the Main Uses of an HRIS

A
  • Used to handle masses of information
  • manages employee data, payroll, schedules/timekeeping, onboarding, benefits, recruitment/retention, employee training/performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Forecasting typically involves what methods?

A

Long Term Forecasting & Short Term Forecasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define Long Term Forecasting

A

Typically covers a time frame of 2-10 yrs - all LTF should be based on strategic business plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Define Short Term Forecasting

A

Typically refers to predicting employment demands for a one year period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Explain Unit Demand (a LTF method)

A

a technique for estimation of probable demand for a product or services in the future- this method required managers to know what business activity will be performed by their units in the future years & how many people will be needed year by year to achieve their business objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Explain Expert Opinion (a LTF method)

A

may come from a group or from a single individual (such as the HR director) - experts typically base their judgements on their own intuition or past experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Explain Delphi Technique

A

having experts provide their best estimates of he future through a series of questionnaires or interviews- this info is collected by a person called an intermediary who summarizes it and then submits a report back to the experts. After several rounds of this back & forth experts are expected to come to a consensus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Explain Trend Projections (a LTF method)

A

using the forecasted levels of sales, production or services to estimate how many employees in each job category will be needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Explain a Regression Analysis

A

form of predictive modeling technique which instigates the relationship btw a dependent (target) and an independent variable (predictor) - an ideal procedure for estimating the number of employees in each job category based upon the volume of business activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a Probalistic Model

A

a LTF of employment needs that uses probabilities of future events to estimate future employment levels. A simulation can help describe how the org might look in the future depending on alternative decisions & economic conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Explain Markov Analysis

A

a form of probabilistic forecasting - the movement of employees among different job classifications can be forecast based on past movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Describe Budgeting (form of STF)

A

mangers are expected to identify the kinds of resources that they will need for upcoming business period - the budget represents a plan of future business activity that includes financial & capitol resources as well as human resource needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Explain Work-Load Analysis (form of STF)

A

most accurate method- involves the use of productivity ratios to identify personnel needs- identifies both the number of employees and the kind of employees required to achieve organizational goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe how to Perform a Turnover Analysis

A

2 processes are involved in estimating turnover: collecting historical info and analyzing economic trends. For most orgs the turnover rates of previous years are the best indicators of future turnover.

59
Q

Turnover may be cause by what factors?

A
  • retirement
  • death or disability
  • layoffs
  • discharge
  • quits
  • promotions within the company or another division
60
Q

Describe a Replacement Chart

A

a detailed organizational chart that is designed to provide a quick picture of the key management positions, their relationships, & the availability of replacements

61
Q

Define Succession Planning

A

the process of deciding how management vacancies will be filled

62
Q

Define Attrition

A

restrictive hiring- refers to reducing the workforce by failing to replace individuals who leave

63
Q

Define Furlough

A

an alternative to layoffs- managers think the economic slow down is temporary & they do not want to lose their workforce. Furloughs amount to p/t work

64
Q

Describe a successful Acquisition or Merger Plan (10)

A

1) develop a workforce integration project plan
2) conduct an HR due diligence review - identifies all liabilities and vulnerabilities
3) compare the benefits program - from both entities
4) Compare compensation structures
5) develop a compensation & benefits strategy for integrating the workforces
6) determine leadership assignments- a new org structure must be created
7) Eliminate duplicate functions- some employees may need to be relocated
8) Prepare employee communications- employees, customers, vendors etc need to be informed of the merger
9) Merge the personnel data & HR technology
10) develop a retention strategy for those who remain - strategy need to be developed to answer questions, relieve fears and build teamwork

65
Q

Explain the purpose of a job analysis

A

consists of analyzing the activities that an employee performs, the tools, equipment & work aids that the employee uses; the working conditions under which the activities are performed.

66
Q

Define Job Analysis

A

focuses on what the job holder does and the knowledge, skills and abilities needed to do it

67
Q

Define Competency Model

A

refers to the knowledge, skills, abilities & behaviors that are essential for successful performance- describes what people need to know and be able to do in order to execute their responsibilities effectively..
Ex: in the health care industry- a competency is communication- listening and speaking

68
Q

Competency models are expected to facilitate the following objectives: (Created by the DOL)

A
  • communication of industry needs
  • career exploration & guidance- info on potential careers, education & training required
  • Career paths, ladders & lattices
  • Workforce planning
  • curriculum development & evaluation
  • HR services to business
  • Certification & licensure
69
Q

Some of the major uses of job analysis are:

A
  • HR planning
  • Recruiting
  • Selection
  • Orientation
  • Evaluation
  • Compensation
  • Training
  • Discipline
  • Safety
  • Job redesign
  • legal protection
70
Q

List the Major Items Listed in a Job Description

A

1) identification-job title, dept, location, exempt or non, pay grade
2) job summary- responsibilities
3) duties and responsibilities- essential functions
4) job specification- knowledge, skills, required to perform the job- education, exp

71
Q

List the kinds of info found in a job specification

A

1) general qualification requirements
2) educational & professional requirements
3) knowledge, skills, abilities

72
Q

List the steps to building a Competency Model

A

Step 1: 1st draft that lists the kinds of knowledge, skills & abilities that seem important to successful job performance
Step 2: Survey the opinions of content experts, especially those who currently work in this occupation
Step 3: Conduct a criterion- related validation study to demonstrate a statistical relationship btw the presence of these competencies and measures of individual and organizational performance

73
Q

What is O*NET (formally DOT)

A

internet site has detailed descriptions of all jobs- for use for HR professionals, job seekers, workforce development, students, researchers, etc.

74
Q

What are the 4 Methods used to gather job analysis info:

A

1)observations- may watch an individual work then record a brief description of the activities performed
Note: can created an unrealistic situation where an employee may act differently when observed - also some job can’t simple be observed
2)interviews- interview the employee & the supervisor
3) Questionnaires- contains 2 sections: 1st: describes the kinds of exp, qualifications & attributes needed to perform the job / 2nd: detailed list of many activities and ask the importance of each one or the % of time performing it
4) Employee recordings- asking emp to maintain written records of what they do is a good way to obtain a job description- also time logs

75
Q

What is a Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ)

A

a checklist containing 195 job elements that measure 6 major categories of each job

1) information output- where does worker get info used in performing the job?
2) Mental processes- what reasoning, decision making, planning etc are involved in performing the job
3) Work output- what physical activities does worker perform and what tools?
4) Relationships with other persons- what relationships w/other people are required in performing the job?
5) Job context- in what physical & social context is the job performed
6) other job characteristics- what activities, conditions or characteristics other than those described above are relevant to the job?

76
Q

Explain Employment Branding

A

consists of projecting an image that makes people want to work for the company

77
Q

Explain Employment Value Proposition

A

describes what the company has to offer its employees relative to the rewards offered by other places of employment. EVP answers the questions: what would make the needed employees want to join the org, be motivated to do their best work and want to stay?

78
Q

Employment Value Proposition includes the following factors:

A
  • compensation
  • Benefits
  • Work content
  • work environment
  • training opportunities & career development
  • organizations reputation & culture
79
Q

What is a job requisition?

A

formal document that dept manager uses to request the hiring of the new employee- serves as a request for the new hire & provides an explanation of this need also determines the budget needs to make a new hire

80
Q

Explain Yield Ratio

A

helps organizations decide how many candidates to recruit for each job opening:

yeild ratio = # of hirable candidates/total # of candidates

81
Q

Explain Quality of Hire metric

A

a metric used to evaluate the effectiveness of an orgs hiring process

82
Q

List the Measures commonly used in Quality of Hire (multiple)

A
  • on the job performance
  • retention rate
  • performance appraisal
  • relationship btw interview & performance
  • customer service score
  • 360 feedback score
  • talent scoreboard
  • rate of salary increase
  • performance error rates
  • inclusion in succession plan
  • promotion rate
  • promotion frequency
  • average bonus
83
Q

List the various Internal Recruiting sources

A
  • internal job postings
  • promoting from within
  • employees who have been laid off or quit
84
Q

List the various External Recruiting sources

A
  • employee referrals
  • internet posting on job boards
  • social media
  • college recruits
  • trade associations
  • labor unions
  • public employment
  • agencies
  • temp agencies
85
Q

Measuring the effectiveness of a Recruiting Process (questions to ask)

A
  • What is the avg cost per hire
  • What is the avg fill time?
  • How long do employees stay & what is avg turnover?
  • Are the yield ratios acceptable?
  • Are the recruiting advertisements effective?
  • Is the recruiting consistent with the equal employment opportunity & affirmative action goals of the company?
  • Are the procedures for collecting & storing applicant info designed to avoid unnecessary inconvenience
  • Are the criteria used for screening applicant appropriate?
  • What is the orgs image & can it entice people to accept employment?
86
Q

Define Reliability (measurement)

A

refers to consistency of measurement of repeatability
Note: a selection instrument, such as an achievement test is said to be reliable if individuals obtain essentially the same scores each time they take the test

87
Q

List the 4 Types of Reliability Measures

A

1) test-retest reliability- using the same testing measure twice to determine if the 2nd measures are similar to the 1st - aka coefficient of stability
2) Alternate-form reliability- sometimes called coefficient of equivalence- many test publishers develop 2 or more forms of the same test. Both form A and B can be given to a group of applicants & scores can be compared to see if the scores for each individual are essentially the same
3) Split-halves reliability- aka coeffecient of internal consistency - similar to alternate forms reliability except that 1 test is divided into 2 parts rather than developing two alternative tests- can only be used if the test is measuring a single dimension
4) inter-rater reliability- degree of consistency btw the scores assigned by two different observers - if 2 interviewers talk w/ a group of individuals & independently evaluate them, their evaluations are said to have high inter-rater reliability.

88
Q

Define Validity

A

the extent to which a predictor variable is correlated w/a criterion variable

89
Q

What is a predictor variable?

A

all the kinds of info that are collected as part of the employment process, such as application blank data, interview data, test scores & personal references

90
Q

What is a Criterion Variable?

A

measure of job performance, such as measure of productivity, absenteeism, tardiness, supervisory evals, or any other info that indicates the degree of success on the job

91
Q

List the 5 Methods for Evaluating the Validity of a Selection Procedure

A

1) predictive validity
2) concurrent validity
3) Content validity
4) construct validity
5) synthetic validity

92
Q

Define predictive validity

A

consists of gathering the predictor info at the time they apply for employment w/o using this info in the hiring decision aka the “follow up” method

93
Q

Define concurrent validity

A

aka “present employee” - this method involves collecting the predictor data & the criteria data on a sample of present employees & then correlating them to determine if a relationship exists

94
Q

Define content validity

A

refers to the perceived similarity btw the predictor information & the nature of the job- content validity is a matter of judgement- aka “face validity” to indicate that validity is inferred by subjectively assessing whether the predictor “looks as if” it is related to job performance - Ex: a typing test as a predictor of secretarial performance

95
Q

Define Construct validity

A

determined by showing that a test is highly correlated w/other known tests measuring the same thing or by showing through a series of studies that test scores actually predict how people will behave - EX: an IQ test has construct validity, people w/ high scores should be able to solve more puzzles & do other things requiring intelligence than people w/low scores

96
Q

Define Synthetic validity

A

aka validation by parts- involves the following:
-developing a battery of tests measuring various aptitudes
-conducting a job analysis to identify which jobs require which aptitudes
-validating each test in the battery by combining the jobs that require that aptitude
EX: an org may find that several jobs involve creative judgement, & therefore a valid predictor of this skill would be the number score on an aptitude test

97
Q

The UGESP describe what 3 major strategies for validation a selection process:

A

1) criterion-related validity
2) content validity
3) construct validity

98
Q

What is the info typically requested on applications?

A

1) vital statistics- name, address, & phone #
2) educational background- schools attended, degrees
3) work history
4) background exp

99
Q

What is graphology?

A

handwriting analysis- can be used to study an individuals personality

Note: the validity of this analysis is questionable- popular in European countries

100
Q

The EEOC cautions Employers about obtaining the following kinds of info:

A
  • height and weight
  • marital status, # of children & provisions for childcare
  • educational level
  • english language skills
  • name of friends or relatives working for employer
  • arrest records
  • conviction records
  • discharge from military svc
  • citizenship
  • availability for work on weekends or holidays
  • economic status
  • previous use of medical leave
  • disabilities
101
Q

List the types of Employment Interviews

A

1) Patterned or structured- involves asking questions then providing multiple choice answers- the method is typically used for research- less biased
2) Semi-structured- major questions are prepared in advance. Ex: why did you choose this particular field of work?
3) Situational Interview- consists of asking hypothetical questions, this helps decide how to solve problems
4) Target selected interview- relies on job analysis to identify the critical job requirements for each position- the questions focus on what the person has done in past situations
5) Non-directive interviews- or unstructured- Ex: tell me about yourself/what are your future goals?
6) Stress Interview- how applicants will react under pressure- this method is rarely used- this was created in WWII as a technique for selecting military espionage personnel
7) virtual interviews- interview in front of webcan
8) Team & group interviews- this allows interviewer not only to collect info from several applicants at once but also helps to avoid repeating the same info abt the company to each individual applicant - frequently used in assessment centers
9) Board interviews or panel interviews: commonly used by universities, military & gov agencies - multiple interviewers interview one candidate
10) Working interviews- candidates perform the tasks associated w/ the job in the actual work environment

102
Q

Empathetic listeners require being able to reflect or restate the applicants responses at what 2 different levels?

A

1st level- Expressed Level- interviewer simply paraphrases, restates, or summarizes the content of the response
2nd level- Implied Level- more advanced & involves attending not only to what the applicant expresses but also what was implied or left unstated as well

103
Q

List the Interview Biases (10)

A

1) contrast bias
2) anchoring bias
3) negative emphasis bias
4) similarity bias
5) halo/horn effect
6) Cultural Noise Bias
7) Stereotyping
8) intuition bias
9) confirmation bias
10) racial & gender bias

104
Q

List the types of Pre-Employment Tests that may be used (5)

A

1) achievement tests
2) aptitude & ability tests
3) personality tests
4) interest inventories
5) honesty & integrity tests

105
Q

Describe an achievement test (pre employment)

A

to assess how much students have learned; used mainly in education; also used for evaluating how much individuals know about a particular trade

106
Q

Describe an aptitude & ability test (pre employment)

A

used to indicate which individuals will learn best during training & which will perform best after they have been trained

  • Mental ability- IQ tests, verbal reasoning, word fluency, perceptual speed
  • Mechanical ability- individuals ability to recognize mechanical relationships & to visualize internal movement in a mechanical system
  • Motor & Physical abilities- individuals skill in making various body movements such as: precision, multi-limb coordination, reaction time, speed of arm movements manual dexterity, finger dexterity
107
Q

Describe a Personality Test (pre employment)

A

extensively used in physchological research for diagnosing mental disorders

108
Q

Describe Honesty & Integrity tests (pre employment)

A

These tests contain questions about situations whether a person who has taken company merchandise should be trusted in another job that involves handling money or whether taking damaged goods w/o permission from a company is acceptable if the merchandise would be disposed of otherwise.

109
Q

List the FIVE FACTOR MODEL (personality)

A

1) extraversion- talkative, assertive, adventurous, energetic
2) agreeableness- good natured, flexible, cooperative, caring, trusting, tolerant
3) conscientiousness- responsible, careful, preserving, orderly, hardworking
4) emotional stability- secure, stable, relaxed, self sufficient, tolerant of stress
5) openness of experience- intellectual, curious, imaginative, cultured

110
Q

Explain the purpose of Expectancy Charts

A

provides a method of illustrating the validity of a test & for interpreting test scores in terms of the probability of successful performance

111
Q

Explain the case Washington vs Davis

A

large % of black applicants were disqualified from police training program because of low test scores on the civil service exam

112
Q

Explain the Assessment Center Techniques (6)

A
  • Assessment Center- a selection procedure primarily used for selecting managers in which candidates participate in individual & group exercises & evaluated by observers
  • In Basket Exercise- 2 hour activity in which participants are expected to read & respond to a series of memos & other correspondence
  • Group Discussion- observers watch carefully to see which participants will try to lead the group & how the members respond to leadership attempts- some group situations involve brainstorming- while some involve competition
  • Individual tests- IQ tests, personality tests, aptitude tests & tests measuring attitudes about management & supervision
  • Interviews- focus on interview is career development & planning
  • Business games- video exercises, computer simulations
113
Q

What is a Qualified Privilege Doctrine?

A

allows previous employers to describe former employees work record to prospective employers provided the information is factual & relevant & serves a legitimate business purpose

114
Q

What is a Investigative Consumer Report?

A

include info on a consumers character, general reputation, personal characteristics & mode of living- this info can be obtained through personal interviews w/neighbors, friends or associates of the consumer

115
Q

Explain EEOC vs Virginia Bank/Seaboard National

A

the district court found that the bank had business need to conduct credit checks because employees handled large sums of cash.

NOTE: Credit check have the likelihood of creating an adverse impact

116
Q

A physical examination cannot be done until…

A

a conditional offer of employment has been made

117
Q

3 Factors that influence the usefulness of a predictor (note: I don’t understand this)

A

1)Selection Ratio-indicates how many applicants are hired for the job- EX: if everyone who applies is hired the selection ratio is 1.00. However, if only 1 out of 5 applicants is hired then the selection ratio is 0.20.
FORMULA: selection ratio= # of applicants hired/total # of applicants
2)Validity Coefficient- correlation coefficient btw the predictor & the criteria
3)Base rate of success- % of employees that would be considered successful if they were hired at random w/o the use of the new predictor

118
Q

List the issues that should be included in an Employment Contract (9)

A

1) the length of the contract: whether employment is indefinite or a specified time
2) duties & responsibilities- job description
3) career opportunities- if a promise for advanced was discussed
4) compensation- need to know their starting salary
5) benefits & prerequisites- unless described in handbook
6) restrictive covenants- Ex: non-competition clause, confidentiality clause
7) severance payments- explain how much money employees are promised when they leave
8) dispute resolution- explain how disputes will be resolved & who will pay the legal fees
9) change of control- should explain what happens if there is a change of control though a merger or acquisition

119
Q

How long do you keep employment applications?

A

2 years (from date of termination)

120
Q

How long do you keep i9 (employment eligibility verification)?

A

3 years from the date of employment or 1 year from the date of termination, which is later

121
Q

How long do you keep Personnel files?

A

4 years (from date of termination)

122
Q

How long do you keep Accident Records: OSHA forms 300 & 301?

A

5 years

123
Q

How long do you keep chemical and toxic exposure records?

A

30 yrs (from the date of termination)

124
Q

How long do you keep union agreements and individual employee contracts?

A

3 years (from the date of termination)

125
Q

How long do you keep employment agreements?

A

7 years

126
Q

How long do you keep attendance records?

A

7 years

127
Q

How long do you keep training manuals?

A

permanently

128
Q

How long do you keep employee expense reports?

A

7 years

129
Q

How long do you keep accident reports and settled claims?

A

6 years after settlement

130
Q

How long do you keep fire inspection and safety reports?

A

7 years

131
Q

How long do you keep insurance policies (after expiration)?

A

7 years

132
Q

How long do you keep child labor certificates and notices?

A

3 years

133
Q

What is contrast bias? (an interview bias)

A

evaluation of one applicant is partially influenced by the previous applicant- for ex: an avg level applicant will be rated lower if preceded by an outstanding applicant

134
Q

What is anchoring bias? (an interview bias)

A

interviews makes evaluations very quickly, based on first impressions within the first few minutes of an interview

135
Q

What is a negative emphasis bias? (an interview bias)

A

interviewer is highly influenced by negative information

136
Q

What is similarity bias? (an interview bias)

A

candidate who reminds an interviewer of someone outstanding- will be viewed more favorably

137
Q

What is halo/horn effect? (an interview bias)

A

one characteristic about a person strongly influences all other perceptions
halo- positive
horn- negative

138
Q

What is cultural noise bias? (an interview bias)

A

candidate answers questions based on what he or she thinks the interviewer wants to hear.

139
Q

What is stereotyping? (an interview bias)

A

assumptions because a candidate is a member of a particular group

140
Q

What is Intuition bias? (an interview bias)

A

trusts his or her own intuition more than objective data

141
Q

What is Ideal employee bias? (an interview bias)

A

interviewer has a preconceived notion of what an “ideal employee” looks like

142
Q

What is Confirmation bias? (an interview bias)

A

an interviewer draws a conclusion about a candidate based on early information & the searches for, favors, & remembers info that confirms the conclusion

143
Q

What is racial & gender bias? (an interview bias)

A

discriminate against race & females