Chapter 3: The Regulation of Financial Markets and Institutions p3. Flashcards

1
Q

An FCA-regulated firm Bob & Bills issues an investment advertisement which invites readers to apply for units in a unit trust. A tear-off slip is provided. What criteria is the advertisement required to meet?

A

a. Be fair and not misleading
b. Include details of charges or expenses
c. Be tailored to the likely level of sophistication of the reader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An FCA-regulated firm, Bob & Bills issues a financial promotion that is not a direct offer promotion. What must the firm ensure it does?

A

a. Apply appropriate expertise
b. Ensure that the advertisement is clear, fair and not misleading
c. Ensure that the advertisement identifies it as the issuer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is exempt from financial promotions rules under FSMA 2000?

A

a. Communications with certified high net worth individuals
b. Communications with certified sophisticated investors
c. Generic advertising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When are cold (unsolicited) calls permitted?

A

Cold/unsolicited calls are not allowed unless an existing customer envisages such a call, or the call relates to generally marketable packaged products, or it relates to a controlled activity/service regarding readily realisable securities. AN adviser should identify themselves and their firm, and should call ‘at an appropriate time of the day’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bob Bill, a retail investment adviser (RIA), is not required to supply a suitability letter to his client. This is because of what?

A

A suitability letter is not supplied if the client is making the transaction on an ‘execution only basis’, as advice is then ‘neither being sought nor given’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bobbills Investments is not required to assess appropriateness in respect of part of its business. This is because the firm is executing client orders in what?

A

Units in a collective investment scheme – an appropriateness check is not required for certain non-complex financial instruments. Non-complex products include shares listed on a regulated market, money market instruments and units in a UCITS collective investment scheme. Complex products include warrants, derivatives and unlisted shares.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bob has recently started a stakeholder pension plan. Bob is allowed a ‘cooling-off’ or cancellation period of what?

A

30 calendar days – The maximum period of reflection is 30 calendar days in this case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What statements concern rules governing investment research activities?

A

a. Financial analysts can take positions in securities contrary to their current recommendations only in exceptional circumstances and with senior permission.
b. Analysts must refrain from dealing on the information contained in research until the clients have been provided with time to consider it.
c. Research analysts must not promise issuers favourable research coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bill & Bobs makes a research recommendation. The firm must make disclosures in relation to all of what?

A

Shareholding held by the issuer of over 3% of the share capital of the recommending firm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is true of the rule on inducements?

A

Third-party payments are allowed if immaterial and disclosed in the conflicts of interest policy – The rule on inducements applies to retail and professional clients. Inducements cover fees, commissions and non-monetary benefits paid to or by the client or someone on their behalf. Inducements are then only allowed if they do not impair compliance with the firm’s duty to act in the best interest of the client and are generally disclosed in the conflicts of interest policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is associated with the safe custody rules?

A

a. Internal system evaluation method
b. Internal custody record check
c. Physical asset reconciliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the types of client bank account that a firm may operate?

A

a. Designated client fund account
b. Designated client bank account
c. General client bank account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An investor in an OEIC requests that the fund manager send her all reports about the progress of the fund that are required by the regulator. Which reports should she receive?

A

A short report and a long report must be prepared half-yearly and annually. The short report is to be sent out to all unitholders, and the long report is to be made available to unitholders on request.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What describes the ‘pillars’ of the FCA’s supervision model?

A

a. Analysis of issues and products
b. Event-driven work
c. The firm systematic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bob Bill Investments is given Part 4A permission to offer investment advice but a period of 13 months passes during which it carries out no business in this field at all. It is also authorised to deal on its own account which it continues to do during this period. The FCA becomes concerned that it should protect potential clients from receiving inappropriate advice. What would be the regulator’s most likely action?

A

Vary the firm’s permission – Given the firm is investing on its own account without apparent problem, it is unlikely that the regulator will cancel the firm’s permission. However, because the firm has not offered advice for over 12 months, the regulator is likely to vary the firm’s permission to stop them offering advice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A professional client who is a large company (£8m annual turnover) has lost £80,000 (in respect to a derivatives transaction) owing to negligence of an FCA-authorised firm that has now become insolvent. The client would be eligible to make a maximum claim from the Financial Services Compensation Scheme of what?

A

Nil – a professional client who is a large company is not an eligible claimant.

17
Q

How often must an authorised firm inform the regulator of all complaints received?

A

A summary of complaints should be reported to the regulator every six months.

18
Q

What can the Ombudsman do?

A

a. Require that a firm involved complies with a money award
b. Make an award to cover costs of a complainant
c. Make a money awards

The Financial Ombudsman Service is an alternative to the courts for an eligible complainant when a firm has failed to deal with a compliant to their satisfaction. The FOS maximum award is £160,000 for complaints about actions before 1st April 2019 and £350,000 for complaints about actions by firm’s on or after this date.

19
Q

If the outcome of an investigation by the Financial Ombudsman is accepted by the complainant, what does this mean for the firm?

A

The firm is bound by the Ombudsman’s ruling.

20
Q

If a firm fails to resolve a complaint within eight weeks, what should the firm give the complainant?

A

Information about the FOS – they must be given the FOS leaflet and told of their right to use the service.

21
Q

Who should an eligible complainant take their complaint about an authorised form to first?

A

The complainant must first take their complaint to the firm. If it is not resolved to their satisfaction, they may go to the Financial Ombudsman Service.

22
Q

When can the FCA exercise its power to make temporary product intervention rules (TPIRs)?

A

TPIRs may only last for up to 12 months. They may be used where complex or niche products are sold to the mass market. There is no specific requirement for the FCA to consult the PRA regarding TPIRs.

23
Q

Under which Act is money laundering an offence?

A

The Proceeds of Crime Act (POCA) 2002 supersedes the Criminal Justice Act (CJA) 1993.

24
Q

Who will generally be an insider (in reference to insider dealing)?

A

a. A company director
b. Someone who receives information from an insider
c. A fund manager

25
Q

Which body is responsible for insider dealing legislation?

A

The legislation is the responsibility of HM Treasury. Investigation and prosecution are the responsibility of the LSE and the FCA respectively.

26
Q

What statements about insider dealing are correct?

A

a. It only relates to unpublished, price-sensitive information
b. It is prosecuted by the FCA
c. It cannot be prosecuted if information is passed on in the proper course of duties.

27
Q

A market maker acting in good faith will not be prosecuted for insider dealing because there is what?

A

A special defence for market makers.

28
Q

An investment firm should undertake enhanced due diligence before taking investment business in a case where the client is what?

A

Enhanced due diligence is for higher-risk situations, including politically exposed persons (PEPs), a category that includes high-ranking non-UK public officials.

29
Q

Under the EU benchmark regulation you may be a benchmark administrator if you provide indices that are used in what?

A

You may be a benchmark administrator if you provide indices used in investment funds, mortgage and consumer credit contracts and financial instruments traded on EU trading venues or systematic internalisers.

30
Q

The Packaged Retail and Insurance-based Investment products (PRIIPs_ Regulation has applied since 1 January 2018. It requires persons who advise a retail investor on a PRIIP or sells a PRIIP to a retail investor to provide the investor with a KID before any transaction is concluded. Who does the PRIIP rules apply to?

A

a. UK corporate bond OEIC
b. Discretionary managed investment portfolio
c. FTSE 100 option contract

31
Q

The FCA Product intervention and Product governance sourcebook (PROD) contains rules and guidance on the obligations of manufacturers and distributors when creating or distributing financial instruments. What are the phases of the product governance cycle?

A

The four distinct phases of the product governance cycle for both manufacturers and distributors are

a. design and approval,
b. development and implementation,
c. launch and promotion and,
d. monitoring and review

32
Q

What are the stages in the financial planning process?

A

The stages of the financial planning process are Establish, Collect, Analyse, Develop, Implement and Review.