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avit 325 > Stage 94 Oral > Flashcards

Stage 94 Oral Flashcards

1
Q

How many FPM would we loose with a win milling prop?

A

-200 FPM

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2
Q

How many FPM would we loose with the landing gear down?

A

-250 FPM

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3
Q

How many FPM would we loose with flaps 25 degrees and gear down

A

-490 FPM

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4
Q

How many FPM would we loose with flaps full and gear down

A

-525 FPM

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5
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by applying maximum available takeoff power?

A 
Vmca = increase
Performance = increase
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6
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by increasing density altitude?

A 
Vmca = decrease
Performance = decrease
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7
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by propellers in the takeoff position (high RPM)?

A 
Vmca = increase
Performance = increase
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8
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by landing gear retracted?

A 
Vmca = increase
Performance = increase
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9
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by having the most unfavorable CG? AFT CG

A 
Vmca = increase
Performance = increase
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10
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by the critical engine failed?

A 
Vmca = increase
Performance = decrease
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11
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by applying no more than 5 degrees of bank into the operative engine?

A 
Vmca = decrease
Performance = increase
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12
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by having the most unfavorable weight (light weight)?

A 
Vmca = increase
Performance = increase
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13
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by applying takeoff flaps (no flaps)?

A 
Vmca = increase
Performance = stay the same
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14
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by being out of ground effect?

A 
Vmca = increase
Performance = decrease
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15
Q

How would Vmca and performance be affected by trimmed for takeoff?

A 
Vmca = decrease
Performance = increase
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16
Q

How is Vyse depicted on the airspeed indicator?

A

blue line

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17
Q

How is Vmc depicted on the airspeed indicator?

A

red line

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18
Q

What is the difference between Vmc and MCA

A

Vmc is specific to multi-engine aircraft

MCA is minimum control airspeed, every aircraft has one

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19
Q

What is Vmcg

A

minimum control speed on the ground

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20
Q

What is a spin?

A

an aggravated stall that results in an airplane descending in a helical, or corkscrew path.

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21
Q

What will the flight instruments read in a spin?

A

Airspeed indicator = relatively constant, close to stall speed

VSI = consistent descent

Rate of turn = show direction your turning

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22
Q

What engines does the carbureted Seminole have?

A

O-360-A1H6 (Left engine)

LO-360-A1H6 (Right engine)

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23
Q

What engines does the fuel injected Seminole have?

A

IO-360-B1G6 (Left engine)

LIO-360-B1G6 (Right engine)

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24
Q

What type of carburetor does the Seminole have?

A

A side draft carburetor, which helps decrease the chance of carb ice because it is on the side versus the very front of the engine

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25
Q

What drives the propeller to high pitch, low RPM?

A

Nitrogen charge
Mechanical Spring
Counterweights

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26
Q

What drives the propeller to low pitch, high RPM?

A

Oil pressure

Aerodynamic twisting force

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27
Q

What does the unfeathering accumulator do?

A

stores and boosts oil pressure so you don’t need to use the starter to start the engine back up after feathering

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28
Q

How many pressure switches are there on the seminole landing gear? What are the pressure switches on the seminole landing gear?

A

9

3 up limit switches
3 down limit switches
1 pressure switch
2 squat switches on mains

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29
Q

What does the left squat switch do?

A

prevents gear retraction on ground

turns off the heater blower

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30
Q

What does the right squat switch do?

A

starts MX hobbs

turns on the stall warning horn

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31
Q

When would you get a check gear annuciation?

A
  • MAP below 14” Hg
  • Flaps greater than first notch
  • Gear is selected up on the ground
  • Below 400’ AGL
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32
Q

What are the stages of a spin?

A

Entry
Incipient
Fully Developed
Recovery

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33
Q

What are some factors that affect stall speed?

A 
Weight
C.G.
Load factor
Bank
Aircraft config
Wing contamination
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34
Q

Risk vs Hazard

A

A hazard is something that can cause harm. A risk is the chance, high or low, that any hazard will actually cause somebody harm.

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35
Q

What are the factors that affect a multi-engine aircraft while operating under 1 engine.

A

P-factor
Accelerated Slipstream
Spiraling Slipstream
Torque

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36
Q

The Piper Seminole has a total fuel capacity of [_]gallons, the total usable fuel is
[__]gallons.

A

110, 108

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37
Q

Zero side slip condition in the Piper Seminole is identifed as:

A

½ ball deflection and 2-3 degrees of bank.

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38
Q

What does the O stand for in the engine name?

A

Horizontally Opposed Cylinders

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39
Q

What does the 360 stand for?

A

360 cubic inches of cylinder displacement

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40
Q

Is our engine air cooled or liquid cooled?

A

air cooled

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41
Q

What is the Oil Pressure minimum psi?

A

15 PSI

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42
Q

What does the Carburetor do?

A

Controls the fuel and air mixture

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43
Q

What temperature range is Carb Icing most common?

A

Between 20-70 Fahrenheit

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44
Q

What are two ways that Carb icing can be identified by?

A

Identified by loss of Manifold Pressure

Identified by engine roughness

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45
Q

Where does the Carb heat come from?

A

Heat comes from the exhaust shroud

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46
Q

Why do we not want to takeoff with Carb heat?

A

The heated air used by the engine is less dense than the outside air and will result in a drop in engine power.

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47
Q

You notice a high CHT and engine temperature. What will you do? (4)

A

Open cowl flaps
Retard throttle
Lower nose; increase airspeed
Enrichen mixture

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48
Q

What type of Propellers do we have? How many blades? (3 more items to memorize)

A

Hartzell, two-blade, controllable pitch, constant speed, full-feathering

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49
Q

What does Controllable Pitch mean?

A

Pilot can control engine RPM by changing the pitch of the propeller blades

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50
Q

What does Constant Speed mean?

A

Propellers will maintain at a constant RPM regardless of power setting

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51
Q

How is a Constant Speed prop controlled?

A

By the Prop Governor

52
Q

What does the Prop Governor do? (2)

A

Changes the blade angle

Matches load torque with engine torque to maintain RPM

53
Q

Which way do the fly weights move on High Pitch/Low RPM? Which direction does Oil move?

A

The fly weights move out! Oil also moves out of prop hub for High Pitch/Low RPM

54
Q

Which way do the fly weights move on Low Pitch/High RPM? Which direction does Oil move?

A

Fly weights move in towards each other for Low Pitch/High RPM. Oil moves into the prop hub

55
Q

What does full feathering do?

A

Reduces drag by aligning blade with the relative wind

56
Q

How long does it take for the propellers to feather?

A

Approx 10-17 seconds

57
Q

How long does it take for the propellers to unfeather?

A

Approx 8-12 seconds

58
Q

What do the anti-feathering pins prevent?

A

Prevents propeller from feathering below 950 RPM

59
Q

If we were to lose oil, what would happen to the pitch of the propeller?

A

The propeller would go to a high pitch and then feather

60
Q

Tell me about our Landing Gear on the Seminole? (4 things)

A

Well it’s, Electrically Activated, Hydraulically Actuated, Fully Retractable, Tricycle Type

61
Q

What turns the gear pump off when the gear is retracted? What would happen if this failed? Would there be any indication?

A

The pressure switch/getting to 1800 psi. If it fails, the gear would drop by gravity, the indication would be a hydraulic pump fail annunciator.

62
Q

How does the landing gear retract? What does Hydraulic pressure increase to?

A

Moving landing gear handle activates the 12V electric hydraulic pump
Hydraulic pressure increases to 1500-1800 PSI

63
Q

How does the Landing Gear extend? When the Landing Gear is extended, what happens to Hydraulic Pressure psi?

A

Releasing hydraulic pressure, assisted by gravity and springs. Gear is fully extended when all 3 downlimit switches are closed
Decreases to 400-800 PSI

64
Q

What are 3 possible reasons that the one or two of the gear lights do not illuminate?

A
  1. The gear is not locked down.
  2. An annunciator is making a false indication
  3. There is a malfunction in the downlimit switches.
65
Q

How does Emergency Gear Extension work? (3 things)

A
  1. Manual Extension
  2. Relieves hydraulic pressure
    and uses gravity for free fall
  3. Does not require electrical
    power
66
Q

What brand of autopilot do we have in the Piper Seminole? How many axis is it? Will it control our rudder for us?

A

GFC 700 automatic flight control system(AFCS)
2 axis- lateral and vertical.
Does not control the rudder

67
Q

What limitations are there with the GFC700 Autopilot?

A

No Takeoff or Landing
Cannot use below 400 ft AGL for T/O Climb
1000 ft AGL for cruise/descent
200 ft AGL for approaches.
No slower than 80 knots (90 when on approach), 190 knots maximum
10 gal FUEL IMBAL
NO go around

68
Q

Can I use the autopilot to conduct an OEI approach?

A

No.

69
Q

Tell me about our brakes system?

A

The wheel brakes consistent of two single‐disc double‐puck brake assemblies one on each main wheel.

70
Q

How many Volts and Amps does our battery have?

A

24V and 13.6 Amps

71
Q

How many Volts and Amps do our Alternators have?

A

28V and 80 Amps (carbureted) 70 Amps (Fuel injected)

72
Q

seminole electrical buses

A 
essential
nonessential
avionics
battery (hot battery)
lighting
emergency
73
Q

How many fuel vents do we have per side? How many total?

A

2 per side (4 total)

74
Q

What does the primer do? What needs to be on for the primer to work?

A

Only pushes fuel into 3 cylinders per engine (Elect. Fuel Pump must be ON)

75
Q

What are the movements among these 3 axis’s?

A

Longitudinal Axis = Roll
Lateral Axis= Pitch
Vertical Axis= Yaw

76
Q

What type of Flaps do we have? What do they do?

A

Single Slotted. When extended, they open up a slot of space between the wing and the flap. They also increase wing camber.

77
Q

What kind of heater do we have?

A

Janitrol Combustion Heater

78
Q

Where does the fuel come from for the heater?

A

From the left fuel tank

79
Q

How many gallons of fuel does the heater use per hour? Janitrol vs C&D

A

1/2 a gallon per hour vs 2 gallons per hour

80
Q

When does the Overtemp light illuminate for the heater?

A

At or above 375 degrees Fahrenheit

81
Q

In a conventional multi-engine aircraft, which engine is considered critical?

A

The left engine

82
Q

What is Vmc?

A

The minimum speed at which you can maintain directional control

83
Q

For P-Factor, what is the equation for moment?

A

Thrust x Arm = Moment

84
Q

Does a longer arm (from Engine to CG) provide more stability or less?

A

Less! Longer arm means greater yaw and roll which means more rudder input is necessary to control the aircraft.

85
Q

Explain P-Factor

A

The descending propeller blade creates more thrust than the ascending blade. This causes
asymmetrical thrust on each side of the propeller

86
Q

Explain Accelerated Slipstream

A

The propellers will accelerate air over the wings. More lift is produced where the propellers
accelerate the air over the wing.

87
Q

Explain Spiraling Slipstream

A

The propellers send air spiraling behind them. The more compact the spiral, the more prominent the force. Faster the speed, the more stretched the slipstream becomes.

88
Q

Explain Torque

A

As the engine and propeller rotate in one direction, they, in turn, try to rotate the airplane in the other direction. Newton’s 3rd law (action/reaction). Torque always works to the left

89
Q

For P-Factor, what makes the left engine critical?

A

Because the descending propeller blade on the right wing engine has a longer arm than the descending propeller blade on the left wing engine, the airplane will have a greater yawing moment to the left due to asymmetrical thrust if the left engine fails than if the right engine fails making it the critical engine

90
Q

For Accelerated Slipstream, what makes the left engine critical?

A

Accelerated slipstream always moves the same direction as asymmetrical thrust. If the left engine fails, the right accelerated slip stream due to its longer arm, works harder to yaw the plane to the left, requiring more rudder than if the right engine were to fail (shorter accelerated slipstream in that case) Therefore the left engine is the critical engine.

91
Q

For Spiraling Slipstream, what makes the left engine critical?

A

If the left engine fails the spiral slipstream will not hit the tail at all. If the right engine fails the spiraling slipstream will hit the rudder allowing more airflow hitting the rudder making it more effective. This makes the left engine critical.

92
Q

For Torque, what makes the left engine critical?

A

If the left engine fails, asymmetrical thrust and torque are moving left. This will require more rudder than if the right engine failed because if the right engine failed, the asymmetrical thrust would be opposing the torque making more rudder available.

93
Q

Does Vmc speed change based on each days conditions?

A

yes

94
Q

What is our Max Ramp Weight?

A

3816

95
Q

What is our Max Takeoff Weight?

A

3800

96
Q

What is our Max Landing Weight?

A

3800

97
Q

What is our Max Baggage Weight?

A

200

98
Q

what is accelerate stop distance

A

distance it takes from starting the takeoff roll, to Vr, lose an engine, and come to a full stop

99
Q

what prevents us from deep stall

A

stabilator down spring

100
Q

do we have a wet or dry sump oil system

A

wet sump

101
Q

how does the parking brake work

A

locks hydraulic fluid in the lines to hold brake pressure

102
Q

what happens to prop governor in a descent

A

flyweights out, pilot valve up, pulls oil out of the hub, higher pitch to maintain lower rpm and not overspeed

103
Q

what is the structural connection of the constant speed system

A

pilot valve - speeder spring - weights

104
Q

what is the purpose of the oil bypass filter

A

if oil is too cold it bypasses the cooling fins

105
Q

what is the overvoltage relay

A

kicks the alternator offline if it reaches 32 volts

106
Q

what is an alternator control unit

A

voltage control unit that helps with load sharing in the alternator

107
Q

what does a rectifier do

A

concert AC to DC

108
Q

minimum autopilot speed

A

90 on approach, and 80 in normal operations

109
Q

What is Vmc

A

the lowest airspeed at which the aircraft is controllable with one engine inoperative & no flaps

110
Q

What is Vsse

A

minimum airspeed for intentionally rendering one engine inoperative in flight for pilot training ; 82 KIAS

111
Q

What is common carriage?

A

Common carriage refers to the carriage of passengers or cargo as a result of advertising the availability of the carriage to the public

112
Q

How is Vmc certified?

A 
Maximum takeoff power
Unfavorable weight & C.G.
Landing gear retracted
Takeoff flaps
Trimmed for takeoff
Into the inoperative engine (zero sideslip)

Out of ground effect
Prop windmilling
Standard day (density altitude)

113
Q

Incipient phase

A

The transition from a stall to a full spin is called the incipient phase
During this phrase, the aerodynamic forces are not balanced and the aircraft is more or less tumbling

114
Q

Developed Phase

A

the developed phase begins when the aerodynamic forces are in balance
The spin, although chaotic looking from inside the cockpit, has been established and recovery procedures are now necessary to break the spin

115
Q

how much PSI is the nitrogen charge in the prop hub?

A

30-40 psi

116
Q

What is in the unfeathering accumulator to boost oil pressure?

A

nitrogen

117
Q

when does the thermal relief valve activate?

A

3000 psi

118
Q

Can we go flying if its below freezing and heater is inoperative?

A

no

119
Q

when does the heater shutdown due to the overtemp limit switch?

A

APPROX 450 DEGREES

120
Q

How do you turn heater on?

A

air intake - open
temperature - warmer
Cabin heat - on

121
Q

How to turn heater off on the ground?

A

turn on blower fan for 2 minutes before switching off

122
Q

How to turn heater off in the air?

A

leave air intake open for 15 seconds before turning off

123
Q

How do we warm an engine ?

A

15 manifold pressure

2000 RPM

124
Q

What PSI is high pressure control?

A

2400 +/- 200

125
Q

What PSI is low pressure control?

A

600 +/- 200

126
Q

What PSI turns on pressure switch?

A

1500 +/- 100 PSI

127
Q

What PSI turns off pressure switch?

A

1800 +/- 100 PSI

avit 325 (4 decks)

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