Ch 8 The Circulatory System Flashcards

1
Q

What does the circulatory system include?

A

the heart, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules and veins

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2
Q

Is the circulatory system entirely closed?

A

yes

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3
Q

What are the two circuits in the body?

A

systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation

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4
Q

Which circuit travels throughout the body?

A

the systemic circulation

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5
Q

Which circuit travels only between the heart and lungs?

A

the pulmonary circulation

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6
Q

The process of blood cell formation

A

hematopoiesis

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7
Q

The blood components and the organs involved in their development and production

A

the hematopoietic system

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8
Q

The primary site of hematopoietic cell production

A

the bone marrow

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9
Q

Secondary hematopoietic organs

A

the lymphoid tissues, consisting of the thymus, lymph nodes, and spleen

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10
Q

The ______ is involved with the filtering and breakdown of RBC’s, assists with the production of lymphocytes, and has an important role in providing homeostasis and infection control.

A

spleen

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11
Q

What two types of hematopoietic tissue are found in the body?

A

myeloid and lyphoid

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12
Q

What tissue is mainly found in the bone marrow and produces RBC’s, WBC’s, and blood platelets?

A

myeloid tissue

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13
Q

What tissue is found in the lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus and is the home to lymphocytes and other cells derived from them, such as plasma cells?

A

lymphoid tissue

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14
Q

What do plasma cells do?

A

produce antibodies to destroy antigens or antigen-containing particles

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15
Q

Name the five functions of the blood

A

respiratory, nutritional, excretory, regulatory and defensive

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16
Q

What is blood primarily composed of?

A

plasma (55%) and formed cellular fragments (45%)

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17
Q

The liquid portion of the blood in which the formed elements of blood are suspended

A

plasma

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18
Q

What comprises the major portion of the whole blood?

A

plasma

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19
Q

The formed elements are a mixture of ____, _____, and ______.

A

RBC’s, WBC’s, and platelets

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20
Q

What is plasma composed of?

A

water, proteins (albumins, globulins, fibrinogen), gases (oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen), electrolytes, nutrients, vitamins, hormones, and wastes

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21
Q

Regulate oncotic pressure, and thereby control the movement of water into and out of the circulation

A

albumins

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22
Q

Important for blood clotting and makes up about 4% of the plasma proteins

A

fibrinogen

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23
Q

Antibodies made by the liver that make up around 36% of the plasma proteins

A

globulins

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24
Q

These are produced in the lymphatic tissue and they include proteins that act as antibodies in the immune system

A

gamma globulins

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25
Q

What carries oxygen to the tissues?

A

RBC’s

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26
Q

What gives RBC’s their red color?

A

hemoglobin

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27
Q

How many molecules of oxygen is each hemoglobin capable of binding to?

A

up to four

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28
Q

The ongoing process by which RBC’s are made

A

erythropoiesis

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29
Q

A hormone produced mainly by the kidneys that stimulates the production of RBC’s by stem cells within the bone marrow.

A

erythropoietin

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30
Q

The part of the hemoglobin that is not recycled is converted to

A

bilirubin

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31
Q

WBCs are derived from

A

stem cells

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32
Q

Functions of WBCs include

A

phagocytosis, production of antibodies, secretion of heparin and histamine, and secretion of other chemokines

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33
Q

Most WBCs are motile and leave the blood vessels by a process known as

A

diapedesis

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34
Q

The three types of granulocytes are

A

neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

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35
Q

The two types of agranulocytes are

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

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36
Q

____ are normally the most common type of granulocyte in the blood, widely dispersed in the body, are highly specialized for finding and destroying bacteria, a primary defense against bacterial infection, and are also a major component of the inflammatory response.

A

neutrophils

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37
Q

____ release substances that damage or kill parasitic invaders, have a major role in mediating the allergic response, release chemotactic factors, which are substances that cause cells to migrate into an area.

A

eosinophils

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38
Q

The least common of all granulocytes that play a role in both allergic and inflammatory reactions.

A

basophils

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39
Q

____ dilates blood vessels, speeds blood flow to injured tissue, and makes blood vessels more permeable so that neutrophils, clotting proteins, and other blood components can enter connective tissues more quickly.

A

histamine

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40
Q

When activated, these cells release histamine and heparin

A

basophils

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41
Q

A substance that inhibits blood clotting and enhances the mobility of other WBCs in the area

A

heparin

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42
Q

The smallest of the granulocytes and are found in the lymphoid tissues and in circulating lymph and blood as well

A

lymphocytes

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43
Q

Two major types of lymphocytes

A

T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes (B cells)

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44
Q

Lymphocyte that is formed in the thymus and mainly works to rid the body of bacteria and viruses through direct invasion

A

T lymphocytes

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45
Q

Lymphocytes that are formed in the bone marrow and mainly work to rid the body of bacterial and viral organisms through the production of antibodies

A

B lymphocytes

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46
Q

One of the first lines of defense in the inflammatory process

A

monocytes

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47
Q

In response to infection, _____ migrate out of the blood vessels and into the tissues where they differentiate into macrophages

A

monocytes

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48
Q

A key component in the formation of clots, or coagulation

A

platelets (thrombocytes)

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49
Q

A protein hormone that is related to erythropoietin and controls platelet production.

A

thrombopoietin

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50
Q

Cells in the liver and kidneys secrete

A

thrombopoietin

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51
Q

Cessation of bleeding

A

hemostasis

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52
Q

What is the immediate physiologic response to bleeding?

A

vasoconstriction, to clamp down and cut off blood flow at the affected site

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53
Q

What happens if the bleeding proves to be a significant threat to homeostasis?

A

the adrenal glands release epinephrine (a potent vasoconstrictor), leading to systemic vasoconstriction

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54
Q

What is the secondary response to hemorrhage?

A

platelet plugging (the first platelets to be activated release chemicals that cause the aggregation (clumping) of additional platelets at the site of injury)

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55
Q

A set of interactions that lead to the formation of a clot

A

clotting cascade (coagulation cascade)

56
Q

The two steps in the coagulation cascade that occur at the same time

A

extrinsic pathway and intrinsic pathway

57
Q

The result of damage to the tissues, which then release clotting factors that react with other clotting factors and calcium.

A

extrinsic pathway (tissue factor pathway)

58
Q

The final product of the extrinsic pathway

A

tissue thromboplastin

59
Q

The result of damaged platelets releasing clotting factors that react with other clotting factors and calcium

A

intrinsic pathway (contact pathway)

60
Q

The final product of the intrinsic pathway

A

platelet thromboplastin

61
Q

Both tissue thromboplastin and platelet thromboplastin join at the common pathway, ultimately converting prothrombin (produced by the liver) to its active form, _____

A

thrombin

62
Q

Thrombin acts on another blood protein called

A

fibrinogen

63
Q

When activated, fibrinogen is converted into

A

fibrin

64
Q

Long branching fibers that produce a weblike network in the wall of the damaged blood vessel

A

fibrin

65
Q

The clot-dissolving portion of coagulation

A

fibrinolysis

66
Q

What happens during fibrinolysis?

A

the enzyme plasminogen is converted to plasmin, which dissolves the fibrin fibers of the clot

67
Q

Any process that interferes with the activation or continuation of the clotting cascade or hemostasis is known as

A

coagulopathy

68
Q

Bleeding disorders that can lead to heavy or prolonged bleeding

A

coagulopathies

69
Q

The RBC classification types are O, A, B, and AB, which indicate the antigens found in the plasma embrane

A

ABO system

70
Q

RBCs contain _____ on their surfaces

A

antigens

71
Q

The process of classification based on the presences or absence of specific antigens

A

blood typing

72
Q

Blood that contains RBCs with type A surface antigens and plasma containing type B antibodies

A

Type A blood

73
Q

Blood that contains type B surface antigens and plasma containing type A antibodies

A

Type B blood

74
Q

Blood that contains both types of antigens but the plasma contains no ABO antibodies

A

Type AB blood

75
Q

Blood that contains neither A or B antigens but contains both A and B plasma antibodies

A

Type O blood

76
Q

Blood that has no ABO antigens and can be given to anyone, also known as a universal donor

A

Type O blood

77
Q

Blood that has no ABO antibodies and is known as the universal recipient

A

Type AB blood

78
Q

The secondary antigen in blood

A

Rh antigen (discovered in rhesus monkey)

79
Q

Antigen that determines the immune response

A

Rh antigen D (Rh factor)

80
Q

Sits in the chest, above the diaphragm, behind and slightly to the left of the lower sternum

A

the heart

81
Q

The tip of the heart

A

apex

82
Q

The top of the heart

A

base

83
Q

The large vessels that carry blood to the heart

A

the superior and inferior venae cavae (vessels that return venous blood from the upper and lower parts of the body to the right atrium), and the pulmonary veins (vessels that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium)

84
Q

The large vessels that carry blood away from the heart

A

the aorta (which delivers blood from the left ventricle to the body) and the pulmonary arteries (which deliver unoxygenated blood from the right ventricles to the lungs)

85
Q

A thick fibrous membrane that surrounds the heart

A

pericardium (pericardial sac)

86
Q

The two membranes of the pericardium

A

outer fibrous membrane (parietal) and the inner membrane (visceral)

87
Q

Between the parietal and visceral layers is the ______ ______, containing a small volume of serous fluid that reduces friction between the pericardial membranes as the heart moves within them.

A

pericardial cavity

88
Q

The wall of the heart consists of three layers:

A

the epicardium (outer layer), the myocardium (the middle layer), and the endocardium (the inner layer)

89
Q

This protects the heart by reducing friction

A

the epicardium (outer layer)

90
Q

The four chambers of the heart:

A

the left and right atria (the two receiving chambers) and the left and right ventricles (the two pumping chambers)

91
Q

The heart is divided into right and left halves by a tough piece of tissue called the

A

septum

92
Q

What separates the two atria?

A

the interatrial septum

93
Q

What separates the right and left ventricles?

A

the interventricular septum

94
Q

Long, branching cells that fit together tightly at intercalated disks

A

cardiac muscle fibers

95
Q

The four valves of the heart:

A
two atrioventricular (AV) valves (right AV valve is the tricuspid valve and the left AV valve is the mitral valve or bicuspid valve);  and two semilunar (SL) valves (the right SL valve is the pulmonic valve and the left SL valve is the aortic valve)
*T, P, M, A  mnemonic is (toilet paper my ass)
96
Q

These valves direct the flow of blood between the chambers and also prevent backward flow during ventricular contraction (regurgitation)

A

the right AV valve (tricuspid valve) and the left AV valve (mitral or bicuspid valve)

97
Q

Fibrous bands of tissue attached to each part, or cusp of the valve

A

chordae tendineae

98
Q

Attached to the chordae tendineae and the endocardium of the ventricles are

A

papillary muscles

99
Q

These valves separate the ventricles and their associated great vessel and have three cusps

A

the SL valves (the right SL which is the pulmonic valve) and (the left SL valve which is the aortic valve)

100
Q

The AV valves are closed during

A

ventricular contraction (ventricular systole)

101
Q

Blood enters the right atrium by way of the

A

superior and inferior venae cavae and the coronary sinus

102
Q

Where is oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged?

A

the alveolar-capillary membrane

103
Q

The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs by

A

the four pulmonary veins (two from the right lung and two from the left lung)

104
Q

A repetitive pumping process that includes all the events associated with blood flow through the heart

A

cardiac cycle

105
Q

The two phases of the cardiac cycle

A

systole and diastole

106
Q

The period during which the chamber is contracting and blood is being ejected

A

systole

107
Q

The period of relaxation during which the chambers are allowed to fill

A

diastole

108
Q

The efficiency of the heart may be affected by

A

abnormalities of the cardiac muscle, the valves, or the conduction system

109
Q

Blood flows from one heart chamber to another if the pressure in the chamber is

A

more than the pressure in the next

110
Q

The conduction system of the heart provides the necessary timing of events between

A

atrial and ventricular systole

111
Q

The low pressure right side of the heart is responsible for

A

pulmonic circulation

112
Q

The high pressure left side of the heart is responsible for

A

systemic circulation

113
Q

As both atria undergo systole, the ventricles are in

A

diastole

114
Q

As both ventricles undergo systole, the atria are in

A

diastole

115
Q

The first heart sound (lub)

A

S1

116
Q

The second heart sound (dub)

A

S2

117
Q

Occurs near the beginning of ventricular contraction (systole) when the tricuspid and mitral valves close

A

S1

118
Q

Occurs near the end of ventricular contraction (systole) when the pulmonary and aortic valves close

A

S2

119
Q

When S3 is heard in older adults, it is often associated with abnormally increased filling pressures in the atria secondary to

A

moderate to severe heart failure

120
Q

The S4 sound represents either

A

decreased stretching of the left ventricle or increased pressure in the atria

121
Q

An abnormal whooshing sound heard over the heart that indicates turbulent blood flow through the heart valves

A

murmur

122
Q

An abnormal whooshing sound heard over a main blood vessel that indicates turbulent blood flow within the blood vessel, (often indicates localized atherosclerotic disease)

A

bruit

123
Q

Indicate abnormal cardiac valve function

A

ejection clicks and opening snaps

124
Q

The amount of blood that is pumped by the ventricles in 1 minute

A

CO cardiac output

125
Q

The amount of blood pumped out by either ventricle in a single cardiac contraction (heartbeat)

A

SV stroke volume

126
Q

The number of cardiac contractions per minute (the pulse rate)

A

HR heart rate

127
Q

The percentage of blood that leaves the heart each time it contracts

A

EF ejection fraction

128
Q

The volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole and is primarily a reflection of venous return

A

preload (end-diastolic volume)

129
Q

The force against which the ventricles must contract to eject blood

A

afterload

130
Q

When cardiac muscle is stretched, it contracts with greater force to a limit, a property called

A

the Frank-Starling mechanism or Starling’s law

131
Q

What is the Cardiac Output equation?

A

CO = SV x HR

132
Q

The heart can vary the degree of contraction of its muscle without changing the stretch on the muscle, a property called

A

contractility

133
Q

Refers to affecting the contractility of muscle tissue

A

inotropic

134
Q

Related to the effect of the rate of contraction of the heart

A

chronotropic effect

135
Q

The pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them

A

blood pressure

136
Q

One mechanism of evaluating the effectiveness of CO is

A

the measure of blood pressure

137
Q

The resistance to blood flow within all of the blood vessels except the pulmonary vessels

A

systemic vascular resistance