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BNF > Chapter 2: Cardiovascular system > Flashcards

Chapter 2: Cardiovascular system Flashcards

1
Q

Is treatment usually required for ectopic beats?

A

No, but can use beta blockers if needed

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2
Q

What two things can you try and control in a patient with AF?

A

Rate and rhythm control

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3
Q

In patients without life-threatening haemodynamic instability, if a patient has onset of AF less than 48 hours ago, what can be offered to the patient? A- rate control B- rhythm control C- both

A

C- both

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4
Q

If a patient presents with AF and the onset is more than 48 hours ago or uncertain, is it preferable to control rate or rhythm?

A

Rate

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5
Q

What beta blocker should you not use in rate control for AF?

A

Sotalol

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6
Q
  1. How can ventricular rate be controlled in AF? 2. If this does not work, what can be used?
A
  1. Monotherapy: Standard beta blocker (not sotalol) Rate limiting CCB e.g. verapamil Diltiazem is used but unlicensed Digoxin 1. Combination of beta blocker, digoxin or diltiazem
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7
Q

What group of patients should digoxin monotherapy be used for ventricular control in AF?

A

Only effective for controlling the ventricular rate at rest, so should only be used as monotherapy in sednetary (inactive) patients with non-paroxysmal atrial fibrillation.

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8
Q

What is meant by paroxysmal AF?

A

Episodes come and go

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9
Q

If dual ventricular rate therapy does not control symptoms in AF, what can then be considered?

A

Rhythm control

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10
Q

In patients with AF and diminished ventricular function, what should be used to control rate?

A

Beta blockers that are licensed for use in heart failure and digoxin

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11
Q

Post cardioversion in AF, what is used to maintain sinus rhythm?

A

Beta blocker

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12
Q

What is 1st line for long term rhythm control in AF?

A

Beta blocker (not sotalol)

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13
Q

If amiodarone is needed in an electrical cardioversion patient, how long before and after the procedure can they be on it for?

A

4 weeks before and up to 12 months after

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14
Q

For rhythm control in AF, when what group of patients would flecainide acetetate or propafenone NOT be suitable for?

A

Known ischaemic or structural heart disease

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15
Q

When would dronedarone be used in rhythm control for AF?

A

As an option for the maintenance of sinus rhythm after successful cardioversion in people with paroxysmal or persistent atrial fibrillation: - whose atrial fibrillation is not controlled by first‑line therapy (usually including beta‑blockers), that is, as a second‑line treatment option and after alternative options have been considered and who have at least 1 of the following cardiovascular risk factors: -hypertension requiring drugs of at least 2 different classes - diabetes mellitus - previous transient ischaemic attack, stroke or systemic embolism - left atrial diameter of 50 mm or greater or - age 70 years or older and And: who do not have left ventricular systolic dysfunction and who do not have a history of, or current, heart failure. (consider amiodarone in these patients)

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16
Q

What group of patients would you consider amiodarone for in rhythm control for AF?

A

Left ventricular impairment or heart failure

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17
Q

What 2 drugs can be used for the “pill in the pocket” approach for AF?

A

Flecainide or propafenone

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18
Q

What tool do you use to assess for stroke risk in AF patients?

A

CHA2-DS2-VASc

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19
Q

What tool do you use to assess for bleeding risk?

A

HAS BLED

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20
Q

At what CHADVASC score in men would you consider anticoagulation in AF? At what score should you offer (taking into account bleeding risk)?

A

1 2

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21
Q

At what CHADVASC score in females would you consider anticoagulation to in AF?

A

2

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22
Q

Is aspirin monotherapy recommended for stroke prevention in AF?

A

No

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23
Q

What is the MHRA warning associated with amiodarone and hepatitis C antivirals?

A

Increased risk of bradycardia and heart block Needs very close monitoring if used together but ideally use alternatives

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24
Q

What are the key side effects of amiodarone?

A
  1. Corneal microdeposits (reversible upon withdrawal of treatment but can cause blindness) 2. Thyroid function- amiodarone contains iodine and can cause hyper and hypothyroidism (thyrotoxicosis) 3. Hepatotoxicity 4. Pulmonary toxicity- pneumonitis should always be suspected is new or worsening SOB occurs 5. “Dazzled in light” phototoxicity 6. Grey skin discolouration 7. Altered taste 8. Sleep disorders 9. Peripheral neuropathy
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25
Q

What does amiodarone contain that could cause thryoid problems?

A

Iodine

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26
Q

What is the patient advice regarding amiodarone and the sun?

A

Patients should be instructed to avoid exposure to sun and to use protective measures during therapy as patients taking Amiodarone tablets can become unduly sensitive to sunlight, which may persist after several months of discontinuation of Amiodarone tablets. In most cases symptoms are limited to tingling, burning and erythema of sun-exposed skin but severe phototoxic reactions with blistering may be seen. Patients need to shield their skin from light during treatment and for several months after discontinuing treatment as it has a very long half life

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27
Q

What is the main side effects with dronedarone?

A

Can cause/worsen heart failure so patients should seek help if symptoms of SOB, oedema, weight gain Hepatic failure - Seek prompt medical attention if symptoms such as abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fever occur Pulmonary toxicity

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28
Q

What is the important safety information regarding sotalol and what it should be used for?

A

QT prolongation Need to correct any hypokalaemia before starting The use of sotalol should be limited to the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias or prophylaxis of supraventricular arrhythmias. It should no longer be used for angina, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis or for secondary prevention after myocardial infaction

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29
Q

If digoxin is being used alongside amiodarone, dronedarone or quinine, what do you do to the dose of digoxin?

A

Half it

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30
Q

When switching from IV to oral digoxin, how should you convert the dose?

A

Increase by 20-33%

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31
Q

True or false: Hypocalcaemia increases risk of digoxin toxicity

A

False Hypercalcaemia increases this risk

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32
Q

True or false: Hyperkalaemia increases risk of digoxin toxicity

A

False Hypokalaemia increases this risk

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33
Q

True or false: Hypomagnesaemia increases risk of digoxin toxicity

A

True

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34
Q

Digoxin toxicity- what colour can your vision go?

A

Yellow

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35
Q

What is nimodipine used for?

A

Used in subarachnoid haemorrhage

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36
Q

What should patients immediately receive if they have a suspected TIA? If within 4.5 hours of symptom onset, what should be given?

A

300mg Aspirin (2 weeks) Alteplase

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37
Q

Within how many hours of symptom onset for TIA can a patient receive alteplase?

A

Within 4.5 hours

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38
Q

If a patient has been thromobylsed with alteplase for TIA, when should aspirin be given?

A

24 hours after However, if the patient is not being thrombolysed- aspirin should be started immediately within 48 hours of symptom onset

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39
Q

Can warfarin be started in the acute phase of TIA? If they are experiencing symptoms or at high risk of VTE or PE, what should the management be?

A

No Parenteral anticoagulants can be used - risk vs benefit

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40
Q

Anticoagulation should be considered post stroke if the patient has AF. When should you consider aspirin before considering anticoagulation treatment?

A

If it is a disabling ischaemic stroke, give the aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks Then, consider the value of anticoagulation for prevention of stroke in AF

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41
Q

If a patient experiences a disabling ischaemic stroke but has a prosthetic heart valve (and is on anticoagulation), what should happen to their anticoagulation treatment?

A

Stopped for 7 days and substituted with aspirin

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42
Q

Treatment of hypertension in the acute phase of TIA can result in what? In what situations would you want to lower the blood pressure?

A

Reduced cerebral perfusion Only lower the blood pressure if: - Hypertensive emergency (>180/110mmHg) - In patients considered for thrombolysis

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43
Q

Following an ischaemic stroke (not associated with AF), what long term treatment is recommended?

A

Clopidogrel Statin started 48 hours after stroke symptom onset

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44
Q

Long term management post ischaemic stroke: If clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated, what can patients have instead?

A

Modified-release dipyridamole in combination with aspirin

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45
Q

Is long term aspirin monotherapy recommended post ischaemic stroke?

A

No - only in combination with dipyridamole

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46
Q

Is long term MR dipyridamole monotherapy recommended post ischaemic stroke?

A

No - only in combination with aspirin

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47
Q

When should long term anticoagulation be considered post ischaemic stroke?

A

ONLY if the patient has AF Should not be used for the general long-term prevention of recurrent stroke

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48
Q

When should a statin be started post ischaemic stroke? What about if their cholesterol levels are in range?

A

48 hours after symptom onset Regardless of their cholesterol levels, a statin should be initiated

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49
Q

How long should a patient be on high dose aspirin post ischaemic stroke?

A

300mg 2 weeks

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50
Q

How do you manage someone in the acute phase of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Supportive measures e.g. blood pressure, fluids

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51
Q

If a patient has had a haemorrhagic stroke, at what systolic BP would you initiate antihypertensive treatment?

A

Over 200 mmHg

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52
Q

What are the 3 vitamin K antagonists?

A

Warfarin Acenocoumarol (sinthrome) Phenindione

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53
Q

When would you have a target INR of 3.5?

A

Recurrent DVT/PE in patients receiving anticoagulation and with an INR > 2 Mechanical prosthetic heart valves

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54
Q

How long should a patient be anticoagulated for following an isolated calf DVT?

A

6 weeks

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55
Q

How long should a patient be anticoagulated for following a VTE provoked by a risk factor e.g. surgery, oral contraceptive?

A

3 months

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56
Q

What is the reversal agent for warfarin?

A

Phytomenadione (vitamin K)

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57
Q

If a patient is on warfarin and needs surgery straight away, what should be given?

A

Phytomenadione and dried prothrombin complex

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58
Q

Is aspirin recommended in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease?

A

No

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59
Q

When is aspirin indicated as cardiovascular disease prevention?

A

Secondary prevention Not primary

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60
Q

What is the cut off point for CrCl in apixaban?

A

Avoid if CrCl < 15 mL/min

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61
Q

When do you reduce dose in apixaban in terms of CrCl?

A

15-29 mL/min - reduce dose to 2.5 mg BD for stroke prophylaxis in AF

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62
Q

When do you reduce dose of apixaban in terms of weight?

A

<61 kg - reduce dose to 2.5 mg BD for stroke prophylaxis in AF

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63
Q

If a patient on warfarin has a major bleed, what do you do?

A

Stop warfarin and give phytomenadione by slow IV Give dried prothrombin complex Can give fresh frozen plasma but this is less effective

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64
Q

Warfarin patient: If their INR > 8 and has minor bleeding, what do you do? When would you restart warfarin?

A

Give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by slow intravenous injection; repeat dose of phytomenadione if INR still too high after 24 hours Restart warfarin when INR <5.0

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65
Q

Warfarin patient: If their INR > 8 but no bleeding, what do you do? When would you restart warfarin?

A

Give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by mouth (using injection solution- unlicensed) Repeat dose of phytomenadione if INR still too high after 24 hours Restart warfarin when INR <5.0

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66
Q

Warfarin patient: If their INR is 5-8 and has minor bleeding, what do you do?

A

Stop warfarin sodium; give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by slow intravenous injection Restart warfarin sodium when INR <5.0

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67
Q

Warfarin patient: If their INR is 5-8 and has no bleeding, what do you do?

A

Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin sodium and reduce subsequent maintenance dose

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68
Q

How many days before is warfarin usually stopped before elective surgery? If they are at high risk of clot e.g. VTE in last 3 months, AF with previous stroke, what would you do?

A

5 days Bridge with LMWH and stop this 24 hours before surgery

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69
Q

If a patient who carries high risk of thromboembolism is on LMWH and is having surgery that carries high risk of bleeding, when should the LMWH be restarted?

A

At least 48 hours after

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70
Q

Does unfractionated or low molecular weight heparin have a shorter duration of action?

A

Unfractionated

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71
Q

What is the only DOAC that has a reversal agent?

A

Dabigatran

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72
Q

What is the reversal agent for dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

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73
Q

Are DOACs recommended in patients with prosthetic heart valves?

A

No- efficacy has not been established

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74
Q

Can apixaban be crushed?

A

Yes- mix with water or apple juice/puree

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75
Q

Is apixaban once or twice daily dosing?

A

Twice daily

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76
Q

Is edoxaban once or twice daily dosing?

A

Once daily

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77
Q

If a patient is taking one of the following drugs: - ciclosporin - dronedarone - erythromycin - ketoconazole And needs to be on edoxaban, what is the maximum daily dose?

A

30mg OD

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78
Q

What DOACs are black triangle drugs?

A

Rivaroxaban and edoxaban

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79
Q

When would you reduce the dose of edoxaban in renal impairments?

A

15-50 mL/min Max 30mg OD

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80
Q

What is the cut off point for renal impairment for edoxaban?

A

Avoid if < 15mL/min

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81
Q

When do you reduce dose of edoxaban in terms of weight?

A

<61 kg reduce to 30mg OD

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82
Q

What is the cut off point for renal impairment for rivaroxaban?

A

Avoid if < 15mL/min

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83
Q

Can rivaroxaban be crushed?

A

Yes in water/apple juice or puree

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84
Q

What can rivaroxaban be used for in ACS patients?

A

Prophylaxis of atherothrombotic events following an ACS with elevated cardiac biomarkers Combined with aspirin alone or with clopidogrel too

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85
Q

Which DOAC should be taken with food?

A

Rivaroxaban

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86
Q

Which DOAC cannot be put in a blister pack?

A

Dabigatran

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87
Q

What is the cut off point for renal impairment for dabigatran?

A

Avoid if < 30 mL/min

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88
Q

When would you reduce dose of dabigatran in renal impairment?

A

30-50 mL/min

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89
Q

What is the advice around a patient on dabigatran who is taking one of the following: - Verapamil - Amiodarone

A

Reduce dabigatran dose Take doses at the same time

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90
Q

What are the main side effects of heparins?

A

Thrombocytopenia Haemorrhage Hyperkalaemia

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91
Q

When do you take anti factor Xa levels?

A

3-4 hours after dose

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92
Q

Are multidose or single vials of dalteparin and enoxaparin recommended in pregnancy and why?

A

Single vials Multidose vials contain benzyl alcohol

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93
Q

What is the MHRA warning associated with Vit K antagonists and hepatitis C antivirals?

A

Changes in liver function (secondary to antivirals for hep C) may effect efficiacy of Vit K antagonists so INR should be closely monitored

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94
Q

In what trimesters of pregnancy are Vit K antagonists particularly dangerous?

A

1st and 3rd

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95
Q

What is the MHRA warning associated with warfarin?

A

Calciphylaxis - patient should consult doctor if they develop a painful skin rash. (Calcification of the small blood vessels located within the fatty tissue and deeper layers of the skin) Particularly in those with end stage renal failure

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96
Q

Are DOACs licensed in cancer patients?

A

No

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97
Q

Are DOACs licensed in antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

No

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98
Q

When would a warfarin patient need to seek medical help with a nose bleed?

A

> 10 mins or heavy bleeding

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99
Q

When would a warfarin patient need to seek medical help with a cut?

A

Bleeding > 30 mins or heavy bleeding

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100
Q

If a warfarin patient is experiencing heavier periods than usual, what should they do?

A

Seek medical help

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101
Q

If a warfarin patient has hit their head/ had an accident but seem fine, what should they do?

A

Seek medical help, always get it checked out to rule out bleed on brain

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102
Q

Do DOACs interact with alcohol?

A

No

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103
Q

Which DOAC has the least risk of GI bleed?

A

Apixaban

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104
Q

Do DOACs or warfarin carry higher GI bleed risk?

A

DOACs (apart from apixaban which has same risk as warfarin)

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105
Q

What juice interacts with warfarin and should therefore be avoided?

A

Cranberry

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106
Q

What is the max time a warfarin patient should go without having their INR checked?

A

12 weeks

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107
Q

What sort of AF are DOACs licensed in?

A

Non valvular

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108
Q

What is valvular AF?

A

AF + artificial heart valve Mitral stenosis

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109
Q

What would you use for prophylaxis of stroke in valvular patients?

A

Vit K antagonists Not DOACs

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110
Q

Why is missing a DOAC dose more dangerous than missing a warfarin dose?

A

DOACs have a shorter half life

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111
Q

What is classed as stage 1 hypertension? When would you treat?

A

Clinic 140/90 mmHg or higher and daytime average of 135/85 mmHg or higher If under 80 with: Target organ damage, CKD, retinopathy QRISK 20% or more Renal disease Diabetes

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112
Q

What is classed as stage 2 hypertension? Would this need treatment?

A

Clinic 160/100 mmHg or higher and daytime average of 150/95 mmHg or higher Treat all

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113
Q

What is classed as severe hypertension? Would this need treatment and how?

A

Clinic systolic of at least 180 mmHg or clinic diastolic of at least 110 mmHg Yes: Hypertensive emergency (acute target organ damage) - IV drugs to reduce BP slowly (otherwise risk of hypoperfusion) Hypertensive urgency (without organ damage) Oral BP meds to reduce slowly over 24-48 hours

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114
Q

What is the target blood pressure for patients under 80 years including diabetes with no additional disease?

A

Clinic of below 140/90 mmHg Average home of 135/85 mmHg

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115
Q

What is the target blood pressure in those with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease/diabetes (with related disease e.g. kidney, eye)?

A

130/80 mmHg

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116
Q

What is step 1 in a patient under 55 years with hypertension? If these are not tolerated or contraindicated, what would be an alternative?

A

ACEi if not tolerated ARB Beta blocker

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117
Q

What is step 2 in a patient under 55 years with hypertension?

A

ACEi/ARB and CCB

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118
Q

What is step 3 in a patient under 55 years with hypertension?

A

ACEi/ARB combined with CCB and thiazide like diuretic

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119
Q

What is step 4 (resistant) in a patient under 55 years with hypertension?

A

Add in beta blocker/alpha blocker/further diuretic Spironolactone if potassium if fine, but if potassium is high (>4.5) use a high dose thiazide related diuretic

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120
Q

What is step 1 in a patient over 55 years/Black or Carribbean with hypertension? If not tolerated, what can be used?

A

CCB Thiazide like diuretic - indapamide

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121
Q

What is step 2 in a patient over 55 years/Black or Carribbean with hypertension?

A

CCB and ACEi/ARB

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122
Q

What is step 3 and 4 in a patient over 55 years/Black or Carribbean with hypertension?

A

Same as under 55 years ACEi/ARB combined with CCB and thiazide like diuretic Add in beta blocker/alpha blocker/further diuretic Spironolactone if potassium if fine, but if potassium is high (>4.5) use a high dose thiazide diuretic

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123
Q

What antihypertensive drugs are safe to use in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol Methyldopa MR nifedipine (unlicensed)

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124
Q

If a woman (who previously had hypertension) was switched to methyldopa during pregnancy, when should she resume her original antihypertensive treatment?

A

Within 2 days of birth

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125
Q

What is a hypertensive emergency?

A

Severe hypertension with acute organ damage

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126
Q

How do you treat a hypertensive emergency?

A

IV nicardipine, labetolol

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127
Q

When can minoxidil be used in hypertension? What is the problem with this and what other drugs must the patient be on?

A

Resistant- when other drugs have failed Tachycardia and fluid retention Addition of beta blocker to counteract tachycardia and duretic (usually furosemide in high dosage) to help with fluid and electrolyte balance = mandatory

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128
Q

Systemic minoxidil is unsuitable for what gender and why?

A

Females as it causes XS hair growth (hypertrichosis)

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129
Q

What are the 3 centrally acting antihypertensive drugs?

A

Methyldopa Clonidine Moxonidine

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130
Q

What kind of drug is prazosin and what is the associated problem with it after the first dose?

A

Alpha blocker and vasodilator Can reduce BP rapidly after the first dose, so needs to be introduced with caution

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131
Q

What should you monitor if patient is on ACEi/ARB and potassium sparing diuretic?

A

Potassium levels- increased risk of hyperkalaemia

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132
Q

Are ACEis recommended in people with renal artery stenosis?

A

No

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133
Q

What should you monitor if patient is on ACEi and loop diuretic?

A

Blood pressure ACEi can cause a rapid fall in BP, and so can loops if high dose

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134
Q

Under specialist supervision, what two ARBs are licensed alongside ACEi and what for?

A

Candesartan and valsartan for management of heart failure when other treatments are unsuitable

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135
Q

When are beta blockers contraindicated?

A

2nd or 3rd degree heart block Asthma and COPD (especially poorly controlled- if needed, use cardioselective one) Worsening unstable heart failure Severe hypotension or bradycardia

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136
Q

If a beta blocker is needed in asthma/COPD, what type of beta blocker should be used?

A

Cardioselective

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137
Q

What are the cardioselective beta blockers?

A

Bisoprolol Acetabutol Metoprolol Atenolol Nebivolol

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138
Q

What is the advantage of water soluble beta blockers over lipid soluble ones?

A

Does not cross BBB so less likely to cause sleep disturbances and nightmares

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139
Q

What are the side effects of beta blockers?

A

Fatigue Coldness of extremities (Raynaud’s phenomenon) Sleep disturbances (if lipid soluble) Bradycardia Bronchospasm Hypo/hyperglycaemia

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140
Q

Beta blockers are cautioned in diabetic patients. What kind of beta blockers are preferred in diabetic patients and why?

A

Cardioselective ones as beta blockers can alter glucose control

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141
Q

What beta blockers have additional vasodilatory effects?

A

Labetlol Nebivolol Celiprolol Carvedilol Can lower peripheral resistance

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142
Q

What is the advice surrounding treatment cessation of beta blockers?

A

Patients are advised to not stop abruptly Can cause rebound myocardial ischaemia Gradual reduction is recommended

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143
Q

Is carvedilol a cardioselective beta blocker?

A

No

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144
Q

What is the main organ (and related function tests) that should be monitored if on labetalol therapy?

A

Liver Can cause severe liver injury even after short term treatment

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145
Q

What is a disadvantage of water soluble beta blockers in renal impairment?

A

Excreted via the kidneys so requires dose reduction in renal impairment

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146
Q

What two CCBs are contraindicated in heart failure?

A

Verapamil and diltiazem

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147
Q

What group of cardiac drugs commonly causes peripheral oedema?

A

CCBs

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148
Q

Hypokalaemia is associated with what types of diuretics?

A

Loop and thiazide

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149
Q

In hepatic failure, hypokalaemia caused by diuretics can result in what?

A

Encephalopathy

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150
Q

Thiazide diuretics can exacerbate what conditions?

A

Diabetes Gout Systemic lupus erythematosus

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151
Q

What is the cut off point regarding renal impairment in thiazides and why?

A

Below 30 mL/min as they are no longer effective

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152
Q

What are the main side effects of ACEis?

A

Angioedema Hyperkalaemia Renal impairment Hypotension Hepatitis and hepatic failure Cholestatic jaundice Dry cough

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153
Q

For ACEis, when should the first dose be given?

A

Bedtime

154
Q

Aliskren is what type of drug and what is it licensed for?

A

Renin inhibitor Essential hypertension

155
Q

What is essential hypertension?

A

Otherwise known as primary hypertension When there is no clear cause behind the hypertension

156
Q

When is aliskren contraindicated in combination with ACEi/ARB?

A

If eGFR <60 Or in patients with diabetes However, this combination is generally not recommended due to increased risk of hypotension, hyperkalaemia etc

157
Q

What kind of drug is hydralazine?

A

Vasodilator

158
Q

What drugs are used in pulmonary hypertension?

A

Epoprostenol Sildenafil Tadalafil Selexipag Iloprost Ambrisentan Bosentan Macitentan

159
Q

What is the MHRA warning regarding riociguat for pulmonary hypertension?

A

Idiopathic interstitial pneumonias

160
Q

What is first line for heart failure?

A

ACEi and beta blocker (ARB if ACEi not tolerated)

161
Q

If a heart failure patient remains symptomatic on ACEi and beta blocker, what can be added?

A

However if showing signs of breathlessness and fluid overload, loop diuretics should be used If symptomatic despite optimal first line treatment, an aldosterone antagonist e.g. spironolactone can be added

162
Q

When would eplerenone be used over spironolactone?

A

In males getting oestrogen-like side effects Or in chronic heart failure after acute myocardial infarction

163
Q

When can you add in ivabradine to heart failure treatment?

A

After ACEi, beta blocker and aldosterone antagonist (on this for at least 4 weeks) In sinus rhythm with heart rate of 75 bpm or more

164
Q

When can you add in digoxin to heart failure treatment?

A

If it is worsening heart failure and other combinations have not worked Patient needs to be in sinus rhythm Routine monitoring of serum levels is not recommended in patients with heart failure

165
Q

For heart failure patients who are fluid overloaded, what can be added?

A

Loop or thiazide

166
Q

Is sacubitril valsartan a black triangle drug?

A

Yes

167
Q

When should you use sacubitril valsartan?

A

Chronic heart failure that LEVF <35% (can already be taking stable dose of ACE or ARB) However, need to stop any ACEis or ARBs patient is on Started by specialist

168
Q

Are there established guidelines for preserved (right sided) heart failure?

A

No- existing guidelines are for left sided (reduced ejection fraction) heart failure

169
Q

What vaccines are recommended in heart failure patients?

A

Flu vaccine annually Pneumococcal (once only)

170
Q

What assessment tool is used for determining if someone needs to go on a statin for primary prevention?

A

QRISK2 Measures 10 year risk of cardiovascular disease

171
Q

What QRISK2 % would indicate someone should go on a statin?

A

10%

172
Q

What are the high intensity statins and what doses?

A

Atorvastatin 20mg OD or higher Rosuvastatin 10mg OD or higher Simvastatin 80mg OD

173
Q

What is the highest intensity statin (and dose)?

A

Atorvastatin 80mg OD

174
Q

What statin recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease?

A

Atorvastatin 20mg OD (unlicensed at this starting dose) Dose can be increased if necessary

175
Q

What statin recommended for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease?

A

Atorvastatin (unlicensed)

176
Q

True or false: All patients with diabetes should be considered for a statin

A

True 20mg atorvastatin

177
Q

If a patient still has high cholesterol after max dose of statin, what should be added?

A

Another lipid regulating drug e.g. ezetimibe

178
Q

Which of the following are most effective at reducing triglycerides: Fibrates Statins Ezetimibe

A

Fibrates

179
Q

What group of lipid regulating drugs are the most effective at reducing LDL cholesterol?

A

Statins

180
Q

When would you add a fibrate to statin therapy?

A

If triglycerides remain high even after the LDL-cholesterol concentration has been reduced adequately.

181
Q

What is the MHRA advice regarding high dose (80mg) simvastatin?

A

Increased risk of myopathy

182
Q

What is 1st line for familial hypercholesterolaemia?

A

High intensity statin

183
Q

Patients with primary heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia who have contra-indications to, or are intolerant of statins, can be considered for treatment with what?

A

Ezetimibe as monotherapy

184
Q

The combination of a statin and fibrate carries the risk of what?

A

Muscle related side effects

185
Q

What is the problem with bile acid sequestrants in lowering cholesterol?

A

Even though they effectively reduce LDL, they can aggravate hypertriglyceridaemia

186
Q

What type of drug is colesevelam and colestipol?

A

Bile acid sequesterant

187
Q

What is the advice surrounding bile acid sequesterants if a patient is on other medication?

A

Avoid taking other drugs at the same time

188
Q

What is the caution surrounding statins and thyroid function?

A

Hypothyroidism needs to be appropriately managed before starting Hypothyroidism may cause high cholesterol and treating this will lower cholesterol without the need for statins

189
Q

What are the side effects of statins?

A

Muscle myopathy Interstitial lung disease - if patient develops SOB, cough, weight loss, seek medical attention Hepatic disorders- LFTs needed before starting treatment Can cause diabetes in those at risk- but should not be discontinued if blood glucose is high as benefit outweighs risk

190
Q

What creatine kinase level is concerning in a statin patient?

A

If it is 5 x upper limit of normal

191
Q

What is the max dose of atorvastatin if a patient is on ciclosporin?

A

10mg OD

192
Q

What kind of stroke is atorvastatin cautioned in?

A

Haemorrhagic Higher incidence of this type of stroke

193
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with bezafibrate or ciprofibrate?

A

10mg OD

194
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with amiodarone?

A

20mg OD

195
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with amlodipine?

A

20mg OD

196
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with diltiazem/verapamil?

A

20mg OD

197
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin if combined with ticagrelor?

A

20mg OD

198
Q

What kind of juice should be avoided in patients on a statin?

A

Grapefruit

199
Q

Acute attacks of stable angina should be managed with what?

A

Sublingual GTN

200
Q

If a patient is on GTN for attacks of stable angina, when is regular drug therapy indicated?

A

If attacks occur more than twice a week

201
Q

After GTN, how is stable angina managed?

A

Beta blocker or CCB. Diltiazem or verapamil are more effective than other CCBs

202
Q

In stable angina, if a beta blocker or CCB monotherapy fails to control symptoms, what should you do?

A

Combination of beta blocker and dihydropyridine CCB e.g. amlodipine (Not diltiazem or verapamil due to increased risk of hypotension and bradycardia with beta blocker)

203
Q

When is a long acting nitrate indicated in stable angina? What can alternatively be added?

A

If the following steps have not controlled symptoms: 1. GTN 2. Add in beta blocker/CCB 3. Combine beta blocker and CCB therapy Other options: Ivabradine, nicorandil, ranolazine can be added in OR monotherapy if beta blockers and CCBs are not tolerated/contraindicated

204
Q

True or false: Stable angina medication should be titrated according to symptom control to the maximum tolerated dose

A

True

205
Q

How often should response to stable angina treatment be monitored?

A

Every 2-4 weeks

206
Q

What are the requirements for an individual starting on ivabradine for stable angina?

A

Needs to be in normal sinus rhythm and heart rate of 70 bpm or over

207
Q

What interacts with ivabradine?

A

CYP3A4 inhibitors

208
Q

What drugs are contraindicated alongside ivabradine?

A

Diltiazem, clarithromycin, erythromycin, verapamil

209
Q

Does ranolazine prolong QT interval?

A

Yes

210
Q

Does ivabradine prolong QT interval?

A

Yes

211
Q

What is the MHRA alert with nicorandil?

A

Can cause skin/mucosal/eye ulceration including GI ulcers. Stop if this occurs and consider alternative

212
Q

What is the difference between stable and unstable angina?

A

Stable angina (more common) – attacks have a trigger (such as stress or exercise) and stop within a few minutes of resting Unstable angina (more serious) – attacks are more unpredictable (they may not have a trigger) and can continue despite resting

213
Q

ACS is an umbrella term for what 3 conditions?

A

Unstable angina NSTEMI STEMI

214
Q

What is the difference between STEMI and NSTEMI?

A

STEMI results in irreversible damage of the heart muscle NSTEMI can progress to STEMI

215
Q

Are lower or higher doses of thiazide diuretics preferable in hypertension?

A

Lower doses produce maximal/near maximal BP lowering effect Higher doses have little advantage over BP lowering but causes more biochemical disturbances

216
Q

What are the preferred thiazide like diuretics in hypertension?

A

Indapamide and chlortalidone Some patients still take bendro although this is no longer considered first line

217
Q

Should potassium supplements be given with potassium sparing diuretics and aldosterone antagonists?

A

No

218
Q

What type of diuretic is mannitol and when is it used?

A

Osmotic that can be used to treat cerebral oedema and raised intra-ocular pressure

219
Q

What group of patients are particularly susceptible to side effects of diuretics?

A

Elderly so lower initial doses used

220
Q

If a patient has an enlarged prostate and is on a loop diuretic, what can occur?

A

Urinary retention

221
Q

Diuretics increase the risk of what in alcoholic cirrhosis?

A

Hypomagnesaemia and therefore arrhythmias

222
Q

Can beta blockers be used with verapamil and diltiazem?

A

No- severe interaction Bradycardia and hypotension risk

223
Q

How does atorvastatin interact with diltiazem and verapamil?

A

Increases exposure of atorvastatin so increased risk of myopathy Adjust atorvastatin dose and monitor

224
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding ivabradine?

A
  • Monitor for symptoms of bradycardia and do not prescribe with other medicines that cause bradycardia, eg, verapamil or diltiazem -If heart rate reduces to less than 50 bpm, a dose reduction can be considered or drug stopped if this persists - Monitor regularly for signs of atrial fibrillation - Consider stopping if no or only limited improvement after three months
225
Q

Does ranolazine interact with simvastatin? If so, what should be done?

A

Increases exposure of simvastatin, so statin dose should be adjusted Or Change to atorvastatin (although interaction is still present, manufacturer does not give dose adjustment advice)

226
Q

What is the target blood pressure in a pregnant lady with uncomplicated chronic hypertension?

A

<150/90mmHg

227
Q

What is 1st line for gestational hypertension What are alternatives?

A

Labetalol Methyldopa, MR nifedipine

228
Q

Although labetalol is used in pregnancy for hypertension, in what group of patients should it not be used in it it can be helped?

A

Asthmatics

229
Q

Aspirin is often given to pregnancy who are at a high risk of pre-eclampsia after week 12 of pregnancy. Is this a licensed indication?

A

No

230
Q

What is the difference between hypertensive emergency and hypertensive urgency?

A

A hypertensive emergency is defined as severe hypertension (>180/110mmHg) with acute organ damage A hypertensive urgency is defined as severe hypertension with NO acute organ damage.

231
Q

Sudden withdrawal of clonidine can result in what?

A

Rebound hypertension

232
Q

What type of drug is chlortalidone?

A

Thiazide like diuretic

233
Q

For step 2 treatment in hypertension in Afro and Caribbean patients, is an ACEi or an ARB preferred?

A

ARB

234
Q

What is the risk of starting a patient on ACEi and diuretic?

A

Electrolyte imbalances May cause a very quick fall in BP

235
Q

What are examples of water soluble beta blockers? (CANS acronym)

A

Celiprolol, Atenolol, Nadolol, Sotalol

236
Q

What is the most cardioselective CCB?

A

Verapamil

237
Q

What two CCBs should not be used in unstable angina?

A

Amlodipine and nifedipine

238
Q

What CCB should you take 30-60 minutes before food?

A

Lercanidipine

239
Q

What kind of drug is indapamide?

A

Thiazide like diuretic Usually used in preference for earlier stages of hypertension over a thiazide diuretic e.g. bendro

240
Q

What kind of drug is metolazone?

A

Thiazide like diuretic

241
Q

What age is nebivolol licensed for in heart failure?

A

70 years and over

242
Q

Thiazides are ineffective in an EGFR of what? What is the exception to this?

A

< 30 Metolazone but this is associated with excessive risk of diuresis

243
Q

Aldosterone antagonists are contraindicated in what condition?

A

Addison’s Disease

244
Q

Should spironolactone be taken with food?

A

Yes- with or just after food

245
Q

What kind of drug is amiloride?

A

Potassium sparing diuretic

246
Q

What diuretic can cause urine to look blue under certain lights?

A

Triamterene

247
Q

True or false: Statins should be considered for all Type 1 diabetic patients, especially if over 40 years

A

True

248
Q

What is the aim of treatment for statin use in primary and secondary prevention for cholesterol levels?

A

The aim of treatment is to reach a non-HDL concentration of greater than 40% or target non-HDL cholesterol concentration below 2.5 mmol/litre Increase statin dose if this is not achieved

249
Q

Are fibrates recommended in primary and secondary prevention?

A

No

250
Q

What cholesterol lowering drug class is first line for high cholesterol?

A

Statins

251
Q

What cholesterol lowering drug class is first line for primary and secondary prevention?

A

Statins

252
Q

What is the problem with using gemfibrozil and a statin together?

A

Severe interaction- avoid Risk of rhabdo

253
Q

What is the aim of treatment for statin use in familial hypercholesterolaemia for cholesterol levels?

A

The dose of the statin should be titrated to achieve a reduction in LDL-cholesterol concentration of greater than 50% from baseline.

254
Q

What dose of simvastatin is classed as high intensity?

A

80mg daily

255
Q

What dose of atorvastatin is classed as high intensity?

A

20mg daily

256
Q

What dose of rosuvastatin is classed as high intensity?

A

40mg daily

257
Q

If a patient was prescribed systemic (oral) fusidic acid and was regularly on a statin, what would you do?

A

Suspend statin Statin therapy may be re-introduced seven days after the last dose of fusidic acid.

258
Q

If a patient was prescribed macrolides and was regularly on a statin, what would you do?

A

Suspend statin during antibiotic treatment

259
Q

What is the max dose of simvastatin you can have if taken with amlodipine?

A

20mg daily

260
Q

What is the recommendation with statins during pregnancy or if the patient is wishing to conceive?

A

Statins should be avoided in pregnancy (discontinue 3 months before attempting to conceive) as congenital anomalies have been reported

261
Q

What is a main side effect of nitrates?

A

Headaches and postural hypotension

262
Q

True or false: You can develop tolerance with nitrate use

A

True Reducing the nitrate concentration in the blood for 4 to 8 hours each day usually maintains effectiveness e.g. by giving twice daily preparations after 8 hours then after 16 hours.

263
Q

On an aspirin prescription, if no strength is stated what does the BP direct to do?

A

Dispense the 300mg

264
Q

What is the antidote for overdose of unfractionated heparin and LMWH?

A

Protamine sulphate

265
Q

When would verapamil be preferred over adenosine in supraventricular arrhythmias?

A

In asthmatics

266
Q

What is the storage requirements for GTN tablets?

A

GTN tablets should be supplied in glass containers of not more than 100 tablets, closed with a foil-lined cap, and containing no cotton wool wadding (i.e. the original container). They should be discarded after 8 weeks.

267
Q

What is the the advice regarding how to take GTN spray and when to seek medical attention?

A

400–800 micrograms (1-2 sprays), to be administered under the tongue and then close mouth, dose may be repeated at 5 minute intervals if required; if symptoms have not resolved after 3 doses, medical attention should be sought.

268
Q

What is the oral loading dose regimen for amiodarone in arrhythmias?

A

200mg TDS for 1 week Then 200mg BD for 1 week Then 200mg OD maintenance

269
Q

What is the CHADVASC score along with its associated points?

A

Congestive heart failure - 1 Hypertension - 1 Age (75 years and above) - 2 Diabetes - 1 Stroke/Thromboembolism - 2 Vascular disease - MI, peripheral artery disease - 1 Age 65-74 years - 1 Sex (female) - 1

270
Q

What does HAS BLAD stand for?

A

Each has 1 point: Hypertension Abnormal renal/liver function Stroke Bleeding tendency Labile INR Age > 65 Drugs that could cause bleeding or alcohol

271
Q

When should digoxin levels be taken?

A

6 hours or more post dose

272
Q

What is the MHRA warning on hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Risk of non-melanoma skin cancer, particularly in long-term use

273
Q

In what situations would you reassess using warfarin for anticoagulation (INR ranges)?

A

2 INR values higher than 5 in the last 6 months 1 INR value higher than 8 in the last 6 months Time in therapeutic range < 65%

274
Q

Amiodarone IV should be put in what fluid and why?

A

Glucose It is incompatible with sodium chloride

275
Q

Warfarin is stopped 5 days before elective surgery. At what INR would you administer phytomenadione the day before?

A

If INR is 1.5 or above, give phytomenadione

276
Q

Post surgery, if a warfarin patient is haemodynamically stable, when can their warfarin be restarted?

A

Evening of surgery or day after

277
Q

When should ACEi and ARBs be stopped before surgery? Why is it recommended that they are stopped?

A

24 hours before - don’t give the morning of Can be associated with severe hypotension after induction of anaesthesia

278
Q

When should potassium sparing diuretics be stopped before surgery and why?

A

The morning of surgery Hyperkalaemia may develop if renal perfusion is impaired or if there is tissue damage

279
Q

When should loop diuretics be stopped before surgery?

A

Don’t give the morning of

280
Q

If a patient is on LMWH and required epidural, how should this be managed? i) prophylactic dose ii) treatment dose

A

i) Prophylactic dose - stop at least 12 hours before ii) Treatment dose- stop at least 24 hours before Risk of neuraxial haematoma

281
Q

In pregnant women with target-organ damage as a result of chronic hypertension, and in women with chronic hypertension who have given birth, what is their target BP?

A

<140/90 mmHg

282
Q

Which cardio drug class can cause gingival hyperplasia (gum overgrowth)?

A

CCBs

283
Q

True or false: Routine digoxin monitoring is recommended in heart failure patients

A

False

284
Q

What monitoring requirements are needed with amiodarone and when? What additional precautions are needed for IV administration?

A
  1. Thyroid function tests before treatment and then every 6 months NB- clinical assessment of thyroid function is unreliable (T4, T3 and TSH should all be measured) 2. LFTs before treatment and then every 6 months 3. Potassium concentration before treatment - hypokalaemia monitoring 4. Chest X-Ray before treatment IV use - requires ECG monitoring and resuscitation facilities need to be available
285
Q

How does warfarin and amiodarone interact?

A

Amiodarone inhibits warfarin metabolism - enhanced anticoagulation

286
Q

How does amiodarone interact with beta blockers?

A

Increased risk of bradycardia, AV block and myocardial depression

287
Q

How does amiodarone interact with lithium?

A

Risk of ventricular arrhythmias

288
Q

How does amiodarone interact with digoxin?

A

Plasma concentration of digoxin increased by amiodarone

289
Q

Is digoxin a positive or negative ionotrope?

A

Positive - increases the force of myocardial contraction and reduces conductivity within the AV node

290
Q

What is the desired digoxin level?

A

1-2mcg/L

291
Q

How does digoxin interact with eythromycin?

A

Digoxin concentration increased as erythromycin is an enzyme inhibitor

292
Q

How does digoxin interact with rifampicin?

A

Digoxin concentration decreased as rifampicin is an enzyme inducer

293
Q

How does digoxin interact with St John’s Wort?

A

Digoxin concentration decreased as St John’s Wort is an enzyme inducer

294
Q

How does digoxin interact with loop and thiazide diuretics?

A

Increased toxicity risk - hypokalaemia

295
Q

How does digoxin interact with CCBs?

A

Digoxin concentration increased by CCBs

296
Q

True or false: Warfarin is highly protein bound

A

True

297
Q

Can you use warfarin in severe renal impairment?

A

Yes but need to monitor INR more frequently

298
Q

How does warfarin interact with NSAIDs?

A

Increased anticoagulation effect

299
Q

How does warfarin interact with fluconazole?

A

Increased anticoagulation effect

300
Q

How does warfarin interact with statins?

A

Increased anticoagulation effect

301
Q

How does warfarin interact with ciprofloxacin, metronidazole, erythromycin?

A

Increased anticoagulation effect

302
Q

How does warfarin interact with griseofulvin?

A

Decreased anticoagulation effect

303
Q

How does warfarin interact with St John’s Wort?

A

Decreased anticoagulation effect

304
Q

How does warfarin interact with antiepileptics?

A

Decreased anticoagulation effect

305
Q

How does warfarin interact with cranberry juice?

A

Anticoagulant effect enhanced by cranberry juice

306
Q

Which of these drugs is not associated with ototoxicity? Loop diuretics Aminoglycosides Aspirin Calcium channel blockers

A

CCBs

307
Q

In what condition is spironolactone contraindicated in?

A

Addison’s as it is an aldosterone antagonist

308
Q

Which of these drug classes carries the risk of hypoglycaemia unawareness? Alpha blockers ACEis Beta blockers

A

Beta blockers They can mask the symptoms of hypoglycaemia that would otherwise be detected by the patient

309
Q

What is the MOA of class 1 antiarrythmics?

A

Sodium channel blockers

310
Q

What is the MOA of class 2 antiarrythmics?

A

Beta blockers

311
Q

What is the MOA of class 3 antiarrythmics?

A

Potassium channel blockers

312
Q

What is the MOA of class 4 antiarrythmics?

A

Calcium channel blockers

313
Q

What is the target blood pressure for patients 80 years and older?

A

Clinic - 150/90 Home- 145/85 mmHg for people aged 80 years and over.

314
Q

If AF has been present for more than 48 hours, what procedure is preferred? What anticoagulation length is recommended?

A

Electrical cardioversion Needs to be orally anticoagulated 3 weeks before and then 4 weeks after cardioversion

315
Q

Before an electrical cardioversion for AF, it is recommended that the patient is orally anticoagulated 3 weeks before and then 4 weeks after the procedure. If this is not possible, what is an alternative?

A

Parenteral anticoagulation Left arterial thrombus needs to be ruled out immediately before the procedure Oral anticoagulation for 4 weeks after

316
Q

What are the two types of cardioversion?

A

Electrical Pharmacological

317
Q

If pharmacological cardioversion is required, what can be used?

A

IV amidarone (preferred if patient has heart disease) Or IV Flecainide

318
Q

Is digoxin rate or rhythm control?

A

Rate

319
Q

What are the class 1 antiarrhythmics?

A

Membrane stabilising drugs - lidocaine, flecainide

320
Q

What are the class 2 antiarrhythmics?

A

Beta blockers

321
Q

What are the class 3 antiarrhythmics?

A

Amiodarone, sotalol Sotalol is also class 2

322
Q

What are the class 4 antiarrhythmics?

A

Non-dihydropyridine CCBs e.g. verapamil

323
Q

What group of patients is adenosine contraindicated in?

A

Asthmatics COPD

324
Q

Can amiodarone cause: a) Hypothyroidism b) Hyperthyroidism c) Both

A

Both

325
Q

What is the effect of amiodarone on potassium levels?

A

Can cause hypokalaemia

326
Q

Does amiodarone have a long or short half life?

A

Long

327
Q

Does digoxin have a long or short half life?

A

Long

328
Q

What are the digoxin interactions? (CRASED) acronym

A

Calcium channel blockers (verapamil) Rifampicin Amiodarone St Johns Wort Erythromycin Diuretics - hypokalaemia risk

329
Q

Is systolic hypertension a bleeding or a VTE risk?

A

Bleeding risk

330
Q

Is fondaparinux a LMWH?

A

No It is a synthetic and selective inhibitor of activated Factor X (Xa)

331
Q

What is the safest class of medicine to use for a VTE in pregnancy?

A

LMWH

332
Q

Does unfractionated heparin or LMWH carry a lower risk of osteoporosis?

A

LMWH

333
Q

Does unfractionated heparin or LMWH carry a lower risk of HIT?

A

LMWH

334
Q

What do you need to monitor regularly if a patient is on unfractionated heparin?

A

APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time)

335
Q

What is the antidote for heparin?

A

Protamine

336
Q

What effect can heparins have on potassium levels?

A

Can cause hyperkalaemia

337
Q

What is the treatment dose of dalteparin for VTE or PE? What is the max dose a day?

A

200 units/kg OD Max 18,000 units OD

338
Q

What is the treatment dose of enoxaparin for VTE or PE in low risk patients?

A

1.5mg/kg OD

339
Q

What is the treatment dose of enoxaparin for VTE or PE in high risk patients? What would be classed as high risk?

A

1mg/kg BD Obesity Cancer Recurrent VTE Proximal thrombosis - above the knee

340
Q

What is a proximal thrombosis?

A

Above the knee

341
Q

What is a distal thrombosis?

A

Below the knee

342
Q

White warfarin tablets are what strength?

A

0.5mg

343
Q

Brown warfarin tablets are what strength?

A

1mg

344
Q

Blue warfarin tablets are what strength?

A

3mg

345
Q

Pink warfarin tablets are what strength?

A

5mg

346
Q

If a patient has had a major bleed on warfarin, in addition to IV phytomenadione, is dried prothrombin complex or fresh frozen plasma preferable?

A

Dried prothrombin complex

347
Q

If a warfarin patient is due for surgery but their INR is still too high, what can be given?

A

Oral phytomenadione the day before if INR is 1.5 or above

348
Q

What is the treatment dose of tinzaparin for VTE or PE?

A

175 units/kg OD Same dose in pregnancy and for high risk patients e.g. cancer

349
Q

What is the expiry date of dabigatran capsules in a bottle once opened?

A

4 months (if usual blister packaging, expiry is 4 months)

350
Q

After the acute phase of an ischaemic stroke, what should the blood pressure target be?

A

130/80 max

351
Q

Can beta blockers be used in the management of hypertension following a stroke?

A

No - unless already on for an existing condition

352
Q

What drugs would you avoid in a haemorrhagic stroke that you would normally use in an ischaemic stroke?

A

Avoid aspirin, statins and anticoagulants in a patient with haemorrhagic stroke Only give if essential eg very high risk of ischaemic event

353
Q

If a hypertensive emergency (acute organ damage), why would you want to reduce the BP slowly?

A

To reduce the risk of reduced organ perfusion

354
Q

When would you treat Stage 1 hypertension (140/90)?

A

If under 80 with: Target organ damage, CKD, retinopathy QRISK 20% or more Renal disease Diabetes

355
Q

When would you refer in Stage 1 hypertension?

A

Patients under 40 years with no overt target organ damage/risk factors To find out if there is a secondary cause of hypertension

356
Q

Which ACEi is a pro drug and conversion to its active drug is reduced by food?

A

Perindopril Better to take 30-60 mins before food

357
Q

Do ARBs cause a dry cough?

A

No (it does not inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin)

358
Q

What are the beta blockers that have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity? What are the advantages of these?

A

PACO Pindolol Acebutol Celiprolol Oxprenolol Less bradycardia and less coldness of the extremities

359
Q

What are the once daily dosing beta blockers?

A

BACoN Bisoprolol Atenolol Celiprolol Nadalol

360
Q

What CCB commonly causes constipation?

A

Verapamil

361
Q

What are the main side effects of CCBs?

A

Ankle swelling Flushing Headaches

362
Q

What beta blockers are licensed in heart failure?

A

For all grades of HF: Bisoprolol Carvedilol For mild-moderate HF and in 70 years + : Nebivolol

363
Q

When can you use nebivolol for HF?

A

For mild-moderate HF and in 70 years +

364
Q

How does sacubitril work?

A

Inhibits breakdown of BNP

365
Q

What role does a combination of hydrazaline and isosorbide dinitrate play in heart failure?

A

Useful if the patient is on an ACEi and BB and remains symptomatic Especially if the patient is Black/Caribbean

366
Q

If a patient on a statin reports feeling short of breath, having a cough and weight loss, what should you do?

A

Refer Interstitial lung disease is a side effect of statins

367
Q

If a patient is on a statin, at what LFT level would you stop the statin?

A

If it is 3 x the upper limit of normal

368
Q

If a patient is on a statin, at what creatine kinase level would you stop the statin?

A

If it is 5 x the upper limit of normal

369
Q

When taking a nitrate, is it recommended the patient stands up or sits down?

A

Sits down - can cause dizziness

370
Q

As patients can develop tolerance with nitrates, what is the recommendation is off a nitrate patch?

A

Leave patch off for 8-12 hours (overnight)

371
Q

Can loop diuretics exacerbate diabetes and gout?

A

Yes

372
Q

Which drug used in heart failure and resistant hypertension can cause menstrual disturbances, such as post menopausal bleeding?

A

Spironolactone

373
Q

In what 3 groups of patients would you offer lipid modification therapy for primary prevention without the need for a formal assessment?

A
  1. Type 1 diabetics 2. CKD eGFR <60 3. Familial hypercholesterolaemia CONSIDER lipid modification therapy for 85 years and older (as QRISK score is not applicable to this age group)
374
Q

The QRISK tool has an upper age limit of what?

A

84 years

375
Q

True or false: All pravastatin strengths are low intensity

A

True

376
Q

What is the target for total cholesterol?

A

< 5 mmol/L

377
Q

What is the target for LDL?

A

< 3 mmol/L

378
Q

What is the target for HDL?

A

> 1.0 mmol/L

379
Q

What is the target for triglycerides?

A

< 1.7 mmol/L

380
Q

Is amiodarone an enzyme inducer or inhibitor?

A

Enzyme inhibitor

381
Q

What is licensed for the following: Potassium conservation when used as an adjunct to thiazide or loop diuretics for hypertension or congestive heart failure

A

Amiloride

382
Q
A

BNF (21 decks)

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