A & B: Initial Interview & Medical history/health appraisal

Question 1

What is a PAR-Q?

Answer 1

Questionnaire that requires self-recall of observations and signs and symptoms by client, in addition to confirmation of diagnosis by a physician

Question 2

What are some advantages to the PAR-Q?

Answer 2

Cost-effective
Easy to administer
Sensitate (identifies people who need additional medical screening, while not excluding those who would benefit from participation in low-intensity activity

Question 3

What is a limitation to the PAR-Q

Answer 3

Designed primarily to determine the safety of exercise and not necessarily the risk of coronary disease

Question 4

What is a health/medical questionnaire?

Answer 4

Tool for assessing the appropriateness of moderate and vigorous levels of exercise.
It can identify positive coronary risk factors associated with coronary artery disease, sudden cardiac death risk factors, existing diagnosed pathologies, orthopedic concerns, recent operations, personal history of suggested sign and symptoms, medications, supplements, and lifestyle management

Question 5

What are key areas to evaluate coronary risk factors, disease, and lifestyle?

Answer 5

Positive risk factors associated with CAD (coronary artery disease)
Medical conditions & diagnosed disease
Current lifestyle

Question 6

How many CAD risk factors are there?

What are they?

Answer 6

7 risk factors:
Family history
Smoking
Hypertension
Dislipidemia
Impaired fasting glucose levels
Obesity
Sedentary lifestyle

Question 7

What is the threshold for Age as a CAD risk factor?

Answer 7

Men ≥ 45 y.o

Women ≥ 55 y.o

Question 8

What is the threshold for family history as a CAD risk factor?

Answer 8

Sudden death before 55 y.o. in biological father or other male first-degree relative (immediate family)
Before 65 y.o. in biological mother or other female first-degree relative

Question 9

What is the threshold for cigarette smoking as a CAD risk factor?

Answer 9

Current smoker or quit less than 6 months prior

Exposure to environmental tobacco smoke

Question 10

What is the threshold for obesity as a CAD risk factor?

Answer 10

BMI ≥ 30kg/m2
Waist girth of >102 cm for men
>88 cm waist girth for women

Question 11

Men are more likely to develop CAD than women (True or false)

Answer 11

True

Question 12

What is the threshold for hypertension as a CAD risk factor?

Answer 12

Systolic ≥140 mmHg
Diastolic ≥90 mmHg
Stage 1: 130-139/ 80-89
Stage 2: ≥140 / ≥90

Question 13

What is the threshold for sedentary lifestyle as a CAD risk factor?

Answer 13

< 30 min of moderate activity (40-60% VO2) < 3x/w less than 3 months

Question 14

What is the threshold for dislipidemia as a CAD risk factor?

Answer 14

LDL-C > 130 mg/dl (more predictive than total cholesterol)
HDL-C <35 mg/dl
On lipid medications
Total cholesterol ≥200 mg/dl

Question 15

What is the threshold for prediabetes as a CAD risk factor?

Answer 15

Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) ≥ 100 but < 126 mg/dl
Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) ≥140 mg/dl but < 200mg/dl
Both have to be confirmed on two separate measurements

Question 16

What is a negative risk factor for CAD?

Answer 16

High serum HDL-C ≥60mg/dl

Question 17

What is introjected regulation?

Answer 17

When we view exercise and training as means to a valued end

Question 18

What is external regulation?

Answer 18

Adhering to an exercise behaviour to satisfy others or avoid punishment

Question 19

How does one’s physiological arousal/anxiety affect self-efficacy?

Answer 19

The way we interpret our physiological state before or during exercise can either decrease or increase our confidence.
The difference between “I’m nervous” & “I’m ready”

Question 20

How does performance accomplishments affect self-efficacy?

Answer 20

It has the strongest influence on self-efficacy.

It builds confidence

Question 21

What does modelling effects have on self-efficacy?

Answer 21

Seeing people perform a desired behaviour/goal can increase our self-efficacy by enhancing imitating behaviour

Question 22

What has the most impact on increasing self-efficacy?

Answer 22

Performance accomplishments. Any win, however small.

Question 23

What is amotivation?

Answer 23

Part of the self-determination theory.

It is a complete lack of intrinsic or extrinsic motivation

Question 24

How does verbal persuasion affect self-efficacy?

Answer 24

When somebody we trust/respect has expertise in a area and encourage us, it increases our self-efficacy

Question 25

What is stage of readiness? | How many levels are there?

Answer 25

It is the degree to which a client is ready to begin an exercise program. There are 5 stages

Question 26

What is maintenance in the stage of readiness?

Answer 26

Individual has been participating in physical activity for at least 6 months for at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity (40-60%) at least 5x/w

Question 27

In what order come the stages of readiness

Answer 27

``` Precontemplation Contemplation Preparation Action Maintenance ```

Question 28

What is contemplation in the stages of readiness?

Answer 28

Individual is thinking about being more physically active but has not done so yet

Question 29

What is precontemplation in the stages of readiness?

Answer 29

Individual has no interest in being more physically active

Question 30

What is preparation in the stages of readiness?

Answer 30

Individual is physically active for at least 30 minutes at moderate intensity (40-60%), but only 1x/w

Question 31

What is action in the stages of readiness?

Answer 31

Individual is physically active for at least 30 minutes at a moderate intensity (40-60%) 5x/week but has been doing it for less than 6 months

Question 32

What is the role of the PT?

Answer 32

``` Motivate Assess Train Educate Refer ```

Question 33

What is an example of the delivery process for client consultation and health appraisal?

Answer 33

Schedule an appointment Conduct interview Implement and complete health appraisal forms Evaluate for coronary risk factors, lifestyle, and diagnosed disease Assess and interpret results Refer to health professional if necessary Obtain medical clearance if needed There is no standardized process. It is usually predicated on 4 factors: Credentials of PT, Site of delivery, Population served, Legal statutes

Question 34

How many parts are there for the client consultation? | What are they?

Answer 34

3 parts Assess compatibility between client and PT Discussion of goals Establish client-trainer agreement

Question 35

How many steps are there to assessing client-trainer compatibility? What are they?

Answer 35

3 steps PT providing detailed description of services available PT may need to evaluate exercise readiness through motivation and commitment of client Assess suitability & appropriateness

Question 36

How can you assess exercise readiness of client?

Answer 36

Discussion of past experiences Appreciation for exercise, availability of support Time management & organization skills Potential obstacles to exercise adherence

Question 37

What does it mean to assess suitability & appropriateness for client-trainer compatibility?

Answer 37

Agree on boundaries, roles, resources & expectations, & address concerns from issues or information from initial interview

Question 38

What services should PT give a detailed description of?

Answer 38

``` Formal education Professional experience Expertise or specializations Certifications Mission statement Success rate Logical aspects Unique features of program ```

Question 39

What should be part of the client-trainer agreement?

Answer 39

``` Services provided Cost structure Parties involved Time of delivery Payment process Cancellation policy Termination of contract Circumstances that would render agreement void ```

Question 40

What additional screening forms can be handed for extra info?

Answer 40

Lifestyle inventories Informed consent Release/assumption of risk agreement

Question 41

What is an informed consent? | What are its essential elements?

Answer 41

``` It gives the client info about the content & process of program delivery system. Its essential elements are: Detailed description of program Risks & benefits associated w/ participation Confidentiality clause Responsibilities of participant Documentation of acknowledgement Acceptance of terms ```

Question 42

What is part of lifestyle inventories?

Answer 42

Personal choices & patterns regarding dietary intake Stress management Level of physical activity Other practices that may affect person's health

Question 43

What is an assumption of risk agreement?

Answer 43

Agreement preparticipation to give up participant's rights to legal remedy (damages) in the event of injury

Question 44

What forms can be used to screen health appraisal?

Answer 44

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) | Health/Medical questionnaire

Question 45

What is self-efficacy?

Answer 45

Powerful predictor of exercise behaviour A person's confidence in their own ability to perform specific actions leading to successful outcome It is related to persistence in striving for a goal achievement

Question 46

What is integrated regulation in self-determination theory?

Answer 46

Person values behaviour, internalizes it, & voluntarily engages in it

Question 47

What is identified regulation in self-determination theory?

Answer 47

Person accept instruction as beneficial but mainly follows leadership instead of initiating behaviour

Question 48

How many types of influences affect self-efficacy? | What are they?

Answer 48

``` Four Performance accomplishments Verbal persuasion Modelling effects Physiological anxiety/arousal ```

Question 49

What is self-determination theory / internalization? How many levels are there? What are they? Which is best?

Answer 49

``` The continuum b/w intrinsic & extrinsic motivation. 5 levels Amotivation External regulation Introjected regulation Identified regulation Integrated regulation Best match is when someone is intrinsically and extrinsically motivated ```

Question 50

In what order is the continuum for self-determination?

Answer 50

``` Amotivation External regulation Introjected regulation Identified regulation Integrated regulation ```