a&p 1 Final Flashcards

Study (68 cards)

1
Q

What are the three subatomic particles and their charges?

A

Protons: Positive charge (+), Neutrons: Neutral charge (0), Electrons: Negative charge (−)

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2
Q

Define covalent bonds

A

Electrons are shared

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3
Q

What is the difference between polar and non-polar covalent bonds?

A

Polar: Unequal sharing (e.g., H₂O), Non-polar: Equal sharing (e.g., O₂)

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4
Q

What characterizes ionic bonds?

A

Electrons are transferred (e.g., NaCl)

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5
Q

What are hydrogen bonds?

A

Weak attraction between polar molecules (e.g., between water molecules or DNA strands)

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6
Q

List the types of macromolecules

A
  • Carbohydrates
  • Proteins
  • Lipids
  • Nucleic Acids
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7
Q

What are monosaccharides? Give an example.

A

Simple sugars, e.g., glucose

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8
Q

What are the four levels of protein structure?

A
  • Primary
  • Secondary
  • Tertiary
  • Quaternary
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9
Q

What are the building blocks of nucleic acids?

A

Nucleotides: sugar + phosphate + base

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10
Q

What is the function of ATP?

A

Energy currency

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11
Q

Define catalysis in the context of enzymes

A

Speeds up reactions by lowering activation energy

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12
Q

What is the difference between anabolic and catabolic metabolism?

A
  • Anabolic: Builds molecules (requires energy)
  • Catabolic: Breaks molecules down (releases energy)
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13
Q

What factors affect enzyme activity?

A
  • pH
  • Temperature
  • Alcohol
  • Salt
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14
Q

What is the active site of an enzyme?

A

Where substrate binds

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15
Q

What is osmosis?

A

Diffusion of water

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16
Q

Differentiate between hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic solutions.

A
  • Hypertonic: Cell shrinks (crenation)
  • Isotonic: No net movement
  • Hypotonic: Cell swells (lysis)
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17
Q

What occurs during transcription?

A

DNA → mRNA (in nucleus)

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18
Q

What are the stages of mitosis?

A
  • Prophase
  • Metaphase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
  • Cytokinesis
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19
Q

What are the end products of glycolysis?

A

Glucose → pyruvate

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20
Q

What is the role of the cerebellum?

A

Coordinates movement, balance

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21
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • Sympathetic: ‘Fight or flight’
  • Parasympathetic: ‘Rest and digest’
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22
Q

What is the function of astrocytes?

A

Blood-brain barrier, ion regulation

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23
Q

What are the phases of an action potential?

A
  • Resting: -70 mV
  • Depolarization: Na+ influx (+30 mV)
  • Repolarization: K+ efflux (return to -70 mV)
  • Hyperpolarization: Slightly more negative (-90 mV)
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24
Q

What is the difference between EPSP and IPSP?

A
  • EPSP: Excitatory (depolarization)
  • IPSP: Inhibitory (hyperpolarization)
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25
Fill in the blank: The _______ is the automatic response pathway in a reflex arc.
Reflex Arc
26
What is the function of the phrenic nerve?
Controls diaphragm
27
What are dermatomes?
Areas of skin supplied by specific spinal nerves
28
What is the major function of the spinal cord?
* Spinal reflexes * Integration of nerve impulses * Conduction highway for sensory and motor information
29
What is the primary role of Schwann cells in the nervous system?
Myelinate PNS axons
30
True or False: Action potentials can occur in unmyelinated axons through continuous conduction.
True
31
What is the role of neurotransmitter release in synapses?
Ca2+ channels open → neurotransmitters released → bind to receptors
32
What is the consequence of complete spinal cord transection?
Paralysis and loss of sensation below injury
33
What is the function of the hypothalamus?
Homeostasis, hormone control
34
What are the components of a reflex arc?
* Receptor * Sensory neuron * Integrating center * Motor neuron * Effector
35
What does the phrenic nerve control?
Diaphragm ## Footnote Supplies head, neck, diaphragm
36
What does the sacral plexus supply?
Buttocks, perineum, lower limbs ## Footnote L4–S4
37
What is the largest nerve that can cause sciatica if injured?
Sciatic nerve
38
What are dermatomes?
Areas of skin supplied by specific spinal nerves (except C1)
39
Why is mapping dermatomes clinically relevant?
Helps localize spinal injuries
40
What happens when the spinal cord is completely severed?
Leads to paralysis and loss of sensation below injury
41
What condition results from the reactivation of the chickenpox virus?
Shingles
42
What does cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) contain?
Glucose, proteins, ions
43
What are the functions of cerebrospinal fluid?
* Mechanical: Cushions brain * Chemical: Maintains ionic environment * Circulatory: Delivers nutrients, removes waste
44
What does the medulla oblongata control?
* Cardiovascular centers * Respiratory centers * Reflexes: swallowing, coughing, sneezing
45
What is the primary function of the cerebellum?
Coordinates motor activity
46
What is the role of the thalamus?
Relay station for all sensory input (except smell)
47
What does the hypothalamus regulate?
* ANS regulation * Hormone production * Emotion/behavior * Hunger/thirst * Body temperature * Circadian rhythms
48
What are the lobes of the cerebrum?
* Frontal: motor, judgment * Parietal: sensory processing * Temporal: hearing, memory * Occipital: vision * Insula: taste, visceral functions (deep)
49
What is the function of the basal ganglia?
Controls automatic movements
50
What is the role of the limbic system?
Emotion, memory
51
What type of brain waves are associated with rest?
Alpha waves
52
What is a concussion?
Temporary dysfunction due to brain injury
53
What is the difference between ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes?
* Ischemic: clot * Hemorrhagic: bleed
54
What is the function of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
Controls involuntary functions
55
What are the two main divisions of the ANS?
* Sympathetic Division * Parasympathetic Division
56
What is the origin of the sympathetic division?
Thoracolumbar (T1–L2)
57
What are the effects of the sympathetic division?
* Increases heart rate * Increases blood pressure * Increases pupil size * Increases respiratory rate
58
What is the origin of the parasympathetic division?
Craniosacral (CN III, VII, IX, X & S2–S4)
59
What is meant by dual innervation?
Most organs receive signals from both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
60
What neurotransmitter do cholinergic neurons release?
Acetylcholine (ACh)
61
What types of receptors respond to norepinephrine?
* Alpha (α1, α2) * Beta (β1, β2, β3)
62
What is the function of the reticular activating system (RAS)?
Activates the cerebral cortex for wakefulness
63
What are the types of learning and memory?
* Immediate: seconds * Short-term: seconds to hours * Long-term: days to years
64
What is adaptation in the context of sensory receptors?
Decreased sensitivity to a constant stimulus
65
What are the types of pain?
* Somatic: superficial, deep * Visceral: organs * Referred pain * Phantom pain
66
What is the role of proprioceptors?
Provides awareness of body position/movement
67
What are the three neurons in the somatic sensory pathways?
* First-order neuron * Second-order neuron * Third-order neuron
68
What is the homunculus?
Sensory map showing larger areas for more sensitive regions