A&P Flashcards by Austin Wieman

The pre-embryonic period ends when

Unselected
a morula is formed.
Unselected
the zygote undergoes cleavage.
Selected
the blastocyst implants in the uterus.
Unselected
the morula develops a trophoblast.

the blastocyst implants in the uterus.

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Which type of gamete remains viable for a longer time after it enters the female reproductive tract?
Selected
Sperm
Unselected
Egg

Sperm

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Capacitation lasts several ________ and involves removal of ___________.
Unselected
seconds; lipids from the surface of the egg

Selected
hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm

Unselected
days; carbohydrates from the surface of the egg

Unselected
weeks; glycolipids from the surface of the sperm

hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm

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Cleavage involves a series of ________ divisions and __________ in the overall size of the conceptus.
Unselected
meiotic; an increase

Unselected
meiotic; no change

Unselected
meiotic; a decrease

Selected
mitotic; no change

Unselected
mitotic; an increase

mitotic; no change

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At the 16-cell stage, the conceptus is known as a(n)

Unselected
trophoblast.
Unselected
blastocyst.
Unselected
embryoblast.
Selected
morula.
Unselected
zygote.

morula.

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The process by which a blastocyst embeds within the uterine endometrium is known as

Unselected
cleavage.
Unselected
morulation.
Selected
implantation.
Unselected
capacitation.
Unselected
the acrosome reaction.

implantation.

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The outer layer of the trophoblast that burrows into the lining of the uterus is the

Unselected
embryoblast.
Selected
syncytiotrophoblast.
Unselected
cytotrophoblast.
Unselected
morula.
Unselected
zona pellucida.

syncytiotrophoblast.

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Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted from cells of the

morula.
Unselected
embryoblast.
Selected
syncytiotrophoblast.
Unselected
zygote.

syncytiotrophoblast.

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Which structure develops directly into a bilaminar germinal disc?
Unselected
Trophoblast
Selected
Embryoblast
Unselected
Morula
Unselected
Cytotrophoblast

Embryoblast

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Approximately when in development does the bilaminar germinal disc begin to form?
Selected
Day 8
Unselected
Day 32
Unselected
Week 8
Unselected
Week 24

Day 8

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Which structure is an important site for early blood cell formation and is the first of the extraembryonic membranes to form?
Unselected
Amnion
Selected
Yolk sac
Unselected
Chorion
Unselected
Zona pellucida

Yolk sac

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The fingerlike structures of the placenta that form from its fetal portion are known as

Unselected
amniotic villi.
Selected
chorionic villi.
Unselected
amniotic stalks.
Unselected
chorionic stalks.

chorionic villi.

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Gastrulation results in the formation of a(n)

Unselected
morula.
Selected
embryo.
Unselected
blastocyst.
Unselected
trophoblast.
Unselected
umbilical cord.

embryo.

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When epiblast cells travel through the primitive streak and underneath the epiblast layer, that movement is described as

Unselected
capacitation.
Selected
invagination.
Unselected
chemotaxation.
Unselected
cleavage.

invagination.

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Cephalocaudal folding occurs because of the rapid growth of the

Selected
amnion and embryonic disc.
Unselected
yolk sac.

amnion and embryonic disc.

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he future head and buttocks regions of the embryo are facilitated by the process of _____________ folding.
Unselected
cleavage
Selected
cephalocaudal
Unselected
transverse
Unselected
amitotic
Unselected
chorionic

cephalocaudal

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The structure of the mesoderm that induces formation of the neural tube is the

Unselected
head mesenchyme.
Unselected
amnion.
Selected
notochord.
Unselected
paraxial mesoderm.

notochord.

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Drugs that lead to birth defects in the formation of the limbs are most damaging when the conceptus is exposed to them during weeks

Unselected
1–2 of development, before the placenta is fully formed.
Selected
4–8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development.
Unselected
12–16 of development, when limbs have formed but are not fully mature.
Unselected
24–28 of development, when plasticity of surrounding tissues has been lost.

4–8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development.

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What is the approximate duration of the fetal period of development?
Unselected
4 weeks
Unselected
12 weeks
Selected
29 weeks
Unselected
39 weeks

29 weeks

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The trimester during which an embryo becomes a fetus is the _________ trimester.
Selected
first
Unselected
second
Unselected
third

first

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During pregnancy, estrogen and progesterone from the placenta

Unselected
stimulate FSH and LH secretion and thereby stimulate ovarian follicle development.
Selected
inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development.
Unselected
stimulate GnRH secretion and thereby inhibit overgrowth of the uterus.
Unselected
inhibit release of corticotropin-releasing hormone and thereby prevent excessive stress responses.

inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development.

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Growth of the functional layer and prevention of menstruation during pregnancy are brought about by secretion of

Unselected
relaxin.
Selected
progesterone.
Unselected
cortisol.
Unselected
human chorionic thyrotropin.
Unselected
human placental lactogen.

progesterone.

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Changes in the size of the uterus during pregnancy are due to

Unselected
hypertrophy but not hyperplasia.
Unselected
hyperplasia but not hypertrophy.
Selected
both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

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By the 4th month of pregnancy, the fundus of the uterus is located inches below the ________ and by the ninth month it is located at the level of the ____________.
Unselected
urinary bladder; umbilicus

Selected
umbilicus; xiphoid process

Unselected
diaphragm; laryngeal prominence

Unselected
pubic symphysis; heart

umbilicus; xiphoid process

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Prolactin is secreted from the ________ gland, and its levels ___________ during pregnancy. Unselected hypothalamus; double Unselected mammary; double Unselected corpus luteum; increase tenfold Selected anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

Which type of food do women suffering from morning sickness generally prefer? Selected Carbohydrate-rich foods Unselected Protein-rich foods

Carbohydrate-rich foods

Edema and varicose veins in the lower extremities sometimes develop in the third trimester of a pregnancy due to Unselected decreased cardiac output. Unselected elevated blood pressure. Selected compression of abdominal blood vessels. Unselected elevated hematocrit.

compression of abdominal blood vessels.

Hormonal and neural changes during pregnancy function to facilitate diffusion of gases across the placenta. One way this occurs is by _________ respiration rate, thereby __________ CO2 levels in the blood. Unselected increasing; raising Selected increasing; lowering Unselected decreasing; raising Unselected decreasing; lowering

increasing; lowering

As the fetus develops, the mother's glomerular filtration rate Unselected increases by about 10%. Selected increases by about 40%. Unselected decreases by about 10%. Unselected decreases by about 40%.

increases by about 40%.

Braxton-Hicks contractions tend to be Unselected regular and increasingly frequent as time passes. Unselected increasingly intense as time passes. Selected irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes. Unselected regular in timing but relatively weak.

irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes.

Pain from false labor contractions tends to be more localized to the __________ abdomen than that experienced from contractions of true labor. Unselected upper Selected lower

lower

Prostaglandins are _________ acids that ___________ the cervix. Unselected amino; constrict Unselected amino; dilate Unselected fatty; constrict Selected fatty; dilate

fatty; dilate

Which statement accurately describes the effects of oxytocin and prostaglandins on uterine contractions? Selected Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction. Unselected Both oxytocin and prostaglandins inhibit uterine contraction. Unselected Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions, but prostaglandins inhibit them. Unselected Prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions, but oxytocin inhibits them.

Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction.

What is expelled during the expulsion stage of labor? Unselected Colostrum Selected The fetus Unselected The placenta and remaining fetal membranes Unselected Only amniotic fluid

The fetus

Upon a newborn's first breath, pulmonary arterioles Unselected constrict. Selected dilate.

dilate.

After delivering a child, the levels of CRH in the mother's blood Unselected increase. Selected decrease. Unselected remain the same.

decrease.

After childbirth, a woman's aldosterone levels ________ which results in _________ urine volume. Unselected increase; increased Unselected increase; decreased Unselected decrease; decreased Selected decrease; increased

decrease; increased

In nonpregnant women, ____________ inhibits secretion of substantial amounts of prolactin. Unselected GnRH Selected dopamine Unselected estrogen Unselected progesterone

dopamine

Compared to breast milk, colostrum contains Unselected more fat and more immunoglobulins. Unselected more fat but less immunoglobulins. Selected less fat but more immunoglobulins. Unselected less fat and less immunoglobulins.

less fat but more immunoglobulins.

Release of breast milk occurs when the hormone __________ stimulates _________ cells to contract. Unselected prolactin; mechanoreceptor Selected oxytocin; myoepithelial Unselected estrogen; areolar Unselected prolactin; mammary acini Unselected oxytocin; suspensory

oxytocin; myoepithelial

In a mother who has recently delivered a child, afterpains occur when Unselected dopamine triggers uterine contractions. Selected oxytocin triggers uterine contractions. Unselected estrogen triggers prostaglandin release. Unselected progesterone inhibits prostaglandin release.

oxytocin triggers uterine contractions.

The display of chromosome pairs arranged by size and similar features is known as the Unselected genotype. Unselected Punnet square. Selected karyotype. Unselected heredity gel.

karyotype.

The place on a chromosome where a particular gene is located is its Selected locus. Unselected phenotype. Unselected karyotype. Unselected genotype. Unselected linkage.

locus.

Individuals who are described as heterozygous have different Unselected genotypes than the predominant genotype. Unselected genes for one trait on several chromosomes. Selected alleles for a particular trait. Unselected parents who displayed two different phenotypes.

alleles for a particular trait.

Mendelian inheritance specifies that if two heterozygous individuals mate, the chances that a child would be homozygous for the recessive allele would be Selected 25%. Unselected 50%. Unselected 75%. Unselected impossible to predict.

25%.

Blood type is an example of a trait that demonstrates Unselected strict Mendelian inheritance. Selected codominant inheritance. Unselected incomplete dominance. Unselected polygenic dominance. Unselected sex-linked recessiveness.

codominant inheritance.

Which is the larger of the sex chromosomes and is more commonly involved in sex-linked inheritance? Selected The X chromosome Unselected The Y chromosome

The X chromosome

Consider a mother with normal vision who has a son with red-green color blindness. The mother was a "carrier" of the affected gene, as she had a normal phenotype but Unselected two recessive alleles. Unselected two dominant alleles. Selected one dominant and one recessive allele. Unselected a codominant set of alleles. Unselected an incompletely penetrating genotype.

one dominant and one recessive allele.

Someone with the genotype associated with hereditary pancreatitis might not show symptoms of the disorder because the disorder does not have a _________ level of 100%. Unselected dominance Selected penetrance Unselected polygenicity Unselected homozygous Unselected sex-linkage

penetrance

Fetal alcohol syndrome involves a disorder that alters the Unselected sequence of base pairs in the genes of the fetus. Unselected structural integrity of the chromosomes of the fetus. Selected expression of genes in the fetus. Unselected gametes of the fetus.

expression of genes in the fetus.

The gonads Unselected are the male testes and female ovaries. Unselected secrete sex hormones. Unselected produce gametes. Unselected are dormant until puberty. Selected All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

The male homologue to the labia majora is the Unselected testis. Selected scrotum. Unselected penis. Unselected bulbourethral gland. Unselected prostate gland.

scrotum.

Puberty is initiated when a region of the brain begins secreting Unselected luteinizing hormone. Unselected estrogen or testosterone. Unselected follicle-stimulating hormone. Selected gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Unselected androgens.

gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

The primary target cells for GnRH are located in the Unselected hypothalamus. Unselected gonads. Selected anterior pituitary gland. Unselected adrenal gland. Unselected genitals.

anterior pituitary gland.

The perineum consists of an anterior Unselected ischial tuberosity and a posterior anal ellipse. Unselected urethral orifice and a posterior pubic crest. Unselected false pelvis and a posterior true pelvis. Selected urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle. Unselected pubic quadralateral and a posterior anal rhombus.

urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle.

The anterior border to the perineum is the Unselected anus. Selected pubic symphysis. Unselected ischial tuberosity. Unselected bulbospongiosus muscle.

pubic symphysis.

Human somatic cells contain only one pair of Unselected chromosomes. Unselected autosomes. Unselected homologous chromosomes. Selected sex chromosomes.

sex chromosomes.

A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes is Unselected polyploid. Selected diploid. Unselected haploid. Unselected monoid.

diploid.

A child has the same number of chromosomes as each of his parents. This is because the gametes that combined when that child was conceived each contained _____ chromosomes. Unselected 12 Selected 23 Unselected 46 Unselected 92 Unselected 2

When the process of meiosis is complete, the result is Unselected two daughter cells that are diploid. Unselected two daughter cells that are haploid. Unselected four daughter cells that are diploid. Selected four daughter cells that are haploid.

four daughter cells that are haploid.

The process by which double-stranded, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is known as Unselected crossing over, and it occurs in interphase. Unselected crossing over, and it occurs in mitosis. Selected crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis. Unselected interphase, and it occurs in meiosis. Unselected interphase, and it occurs in mitosis.

crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis.

Interphase occurs Selected prior to meiosis. Unselected between meiosis I and meiosis II. Unselected between anaphase I and telophase I. Unselected between prophase I and prophase II. Unselected between telophase II and cytokinesis.

prior to meiosis.

A reduction division is one in which Unselected the chemical reactions of oxidation and reduction take place. Selected the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had. Unselected one daughter cell is substantially reduced in size compared to the parent cell. Unselected the size of chromosomes is reduced from double-stranded to single-stranded.

the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had.

The daughter cells that result from meiosis I are Unselected diploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes. Unselected diploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes. Unselected haploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes. Selected haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.

haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.

Which is not correct regarding the ovaries? Unselected Each ovary has an outer cortex and an inner medulla. Unselected The ovaries are located lateral to the uterus. Unselected The ovarian artery and vein join the ovary at its hilum. Selected The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium. Unselected The tunica albuginea is deep to the germinal epithelium.

The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium.

What structure forms from the remnants of the follicle following ovulation? Unselected Corona radiata Unselected Zona pellucida Unselected Corpus albicans Selected Corpus luteum Unselected Antrum

Corpus luteum

The volume of the antrum is largest in a __________ follicle. Unselected primary Unselected secondary Unselected primordial Unselected polar Selected mature

mature

In a female infant, the ovaries contain Unselected primordial oocytes within primordial follicles. Selected primary oocytes within primordial follicles. Unselected primordial oocytes within secondary follicles. Unselected primary oocytes within corpora lutea. Unselected primordial oocytes within corpora albicans.

primary oocytes within primordial follicles.

How many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte? Selected 1 Unselected 2 Unselected 3 Unselected 4 Unselected 5

Ovulation is induced by a peak in the secretion of Unselected inhibin. Selected LH. Unselected ovulin. Unselected estrogen. Unselected progesterone.

LH.

Ovulation typically occurs on day 14 of the ovarian cycle, and the luteal phase occurs on days Unselected 1–5. Unselected 6–14. Selected 15–28. Unselected 8–18.

15–28.

Fimbriae Unselected are extensions of the ovarian ligament. Unselected line the ampulla of the uterine tube. Selected enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation. Unselected are sloughed off during menstruation. Unselected assist in the movement of sperm through the female reproductive tract.

enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation.

What is the correct order for the segments of the uterine tube, beginning at the ovary? Unselected Infundibulum - isthmus - ampulla - uterine part Unselected Uterine part - infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus Unselected Ampulla - infundibulum - uterine part - isthmus Selected Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part Unselected Uterine part - isthmus - ampulla - infundibulum

Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part

Which is not a uterine function? Unselected Protection and support of developing embryo Selected Usual site of fertilization Unselected Site of implantation Unselected Muscle contraction for labor and delivery Unselected Passageway for sperm

Usual site of fertilization

The portion of the uterine wall that includes the basal layer is the Unselected myometrium. Unselected perimetrium. Selected endometrium. Unselected serosa. Unselected muscularis.

endometrium.

The myometrium of the uterus is composed of Unselected skeletal muscle. Unselected mucous membrane. Unselected fibrous connective tissue. Unselected loose connective tissue. Selected smooth muscle.

smooth muscle.

The hymen is located Unselected at the cervix. Unselected near the fundus of the uterus. Unselected at the superior end of the vagina. Selected near the vaginal orifice. Unselected at the external urethral sphincter.

near the vaginal orifice.

Which layer of the uterine wall is sloughed off during menstruation? Unselected Perimetrium Unselected Basal layer of endometrium Unselected Myometrium Selected Functional layer of endometrium Unselected Epimetrium

Functional layer of endometrium

What is the correct order for the phases of the uterine cycle, beginning with day 1? Selected Menstrual - proliferative - secretory Unselected Proliferative - secretory - menstrual Unselected Secretory - proliferative - menstrual Unselected Menstrual - secretory - proliferative Unselected Proliferative - menstrual - secretory

Menstrual - proliferative - secretory

Progesterone levels are highest during the ________ phase. Unselected menstrual Unselected proliferative Unselected follicular Selected luteal Unselected ovulation

luteal

Which is not part of the vulva? Unselected Mons pubis Unselected Clitoris Unselected Labia majora Unselected Labia minora Selected Vagina

Vagina

The posterior pituitary hormone that is crucial for milk ejection is Unselected LH. Unselected GnRH. Selected oxytocin. Unselected prolactin. Unselected progesterone.

oxytocin.

The function of the dartos and cremaster muscles is to Unselected attach the penis to the body wall. Unselected produce erections. Selected regulate the temperature of the testes. Unselected help the testes descend into the scrotum prior to birth. Unselected move sperm along the ductus deferens.

regulate the temperature of the testes.

Which of the following is a thin layer of smooth muscle just beneath the skin of the scrotum? Unselected Raphe Unselected Cremaster Unselected Tunica vaginalis Selected Dartos muscle Unselected Inguinal muscle

Dartos muscle

Sperm are produced in the Unselected rete testis. Selected seminiferous tubules. Unselected epididymis. Unselected seminal vesicles. Unselected efferent ductules.

seminiferous tubules.

What part of a spermatozoon contains the nuclear material? Unselected Acrosome cap Selected Head Unselected Midpiece Unselected Flagellum Unselected Tail

Head

The acrosome cap contains Unselected testosterone. Unselected nutrients to sustain the sperm. Selected enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte. Unselected mitochondria to provide energy for movement. Unselected buffers to neutralize the acidity of the female reproductive tract.

enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte.

In men, LH stimulates Unselected hypothalamic cells to secrete GnRH. Selected interstitial cells to secrete testosterone. Unselected anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH. Unselected sustentacular cells to secrete testosterone. Unselected spermatogenic cells to secrete ABP.

interstitial cells to secrete testosterone.

Where are spermatozoa stored until they are fully mature? Selected Epididymis Unselected Rete testis Unselected Ductus deferens Unselected Seminiferous tubules Unselected Efferent ductules

Epididymis

The rete testis Selected receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules. Unselected is the nerve plexus that supplies the testis. Unselected is a venous network that cools the arterial blood traveling to the testis. Unselected transports seminal fluid to the efferent ductules. Unselected is the site of spermiogenesis.

receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules.

The ejaculatory duct is formed by the Selected ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle. Unselected ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland. Unselected ampulla and the distal portions of the bulbourethral glands. Unselected ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland and bulbourethral glands. Unselected ampulla and the prostatic urethra.

ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle.

Which gland secretes a fluid containing fructose? Selected Seminal vesicle Unselected Bulbourethral gland Unselected Vestibular gland Unselected Prostate gland Unselected Urethral gland

Seminal vesicle

The external urethral orifice is found at the _________ of the penis. Unselected bulb Unselected crus Selected glans Unselected corpus cavernosum Unselected body

glans

he ___________ nervous system facilitates increased blood flow to the penis by facilitating local release of __________. Unselected sympathetic, nitric oxide Unselected sympathetic, norepinephrine Selected parasympathetic, nitric oxide Unselected parasympathetic, norepinephrine Unselected somatic, acetylcholine

parasympathetic, nitric oxide

The appearance of the external genitalia determines an individual's Unselected gender identity. Unselected genetic sex. Selected phenotypic sex. Unselected genotypic sex.

phenotypic sex.

When a woman in her fifth decade of life is not pregnant and has stopped having menstrual cycles for _________, she is said to be in menopause. Unselected 2 months Unselected 4 months Unselected 6 months Selected 1 year Unselected 18 months

1 year

Which is not considered to be a change associated with aging in males? Unselected Erectile dysfunction Unselected Impotence Unselected Decreased testosterone levels Unselected Prostate enlargement Selected Termination of spermatogenesis

Termination of spermatogenesis

What structures fuse during female development to form the uterus? Unselected The superior ends of the mesonephric ducts Unselected The anterior ends of the Wolffian ducts Selected The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts Unselected The posterior ends of the gubernaculum

The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts

In females, the genital tubercle forms the Selected clitoris. Unselected vagina. Unselected labia majora. Unselected labia minora. Unselected uterus.

clitoris.

Anti-Mullerian hormone is secreted by Unselected ovarian follicular cells. Unselected primary spermatocytes. Selected sustentacular cells. Unselected interstitial cells. Unselected paramesonephric cells.

sustentacular cells.

Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract? Unselected Esophagus Unselected Large intestine Unselected Stomach Unselected Oral cavity Selected Liver

Liver

Which organ is not considered an accessory digestive organ? Unselected Tongue Unselected Teeth Unselected Pancreas Unselected Salivary glands Selected Pharynx

Pharynx

Peristalsis Unselected is under voluntary control. Unselected involves the opening and closing of muscular sphincters. Unselected involves back-and-forth movement for mixing. Selected is the alternating contraction of muscle layers in the GI tract wall that propels materials through the tract. Unselected All of the choices are correct.

is the alternating contraction of muscle layers in the GI tract wall that propels materials through the tract.

The initial site of both mechanical and chemical digestion is the Unselected stomach. Unselected small intestine. Unselected esophagus. Selected oral cavity. Unselected pharynx.

oral cavity.

Where are the transverse palatine folds located? Unselected Soft palate Unselected Glossopalatine arch Selected Hard palate Unselected Pharyngopalatine arch Unselected Labial frenulum

Hard palate

Which bones form the hard palate? Unselected Palatine bones Unselected Maxillae and inferior nasal conchae Unselected Ethmoid and sphenoid bones Selected Palatine bones and maxillae Unselected Maxillae and sphenoid

Palatine bones and maxillae

The lining of the gastrointestinal tract that allows for absorption and secretion is Unselected keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Unselected nonkeratinized stratfied squamous epithelium. Unselected areolar connective tissue. Selected simple columnar epithelium. Unselected simple squamous epithelium.

simple columnar epithelium.

Lipid molecules that are absorbed from the GI tract enter Unselected mesenteric arteries. Unselected mesenteric veins. Selected lymphatic capillaries. Unselected the liver.

lymphatic capillaries.

he type of receptor within the GI tract wall that detects stretch is the Unselected steroid receptor. Unselected chemoreceptor. Selected mechanoreceptor. Unselected retroperitoneal proprioceptor.

mechanoreceptor.

Mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors are found in the Unselected adventitia of the upper portion of the GI tract. Unselected epithelium of the inferior portion of the GI tract. Selected mucosa and submucosa of the GI tract along its length. Unselected myenteric plexus of the mucosa of the intestine. Unselected muscularis interna of the entire length of the GI tract.

mucosa and submucosa of the GI tract along its length.

In some digestive reflexes, the facial nerve stimulates salivary glands; the salivary glands are acting as Unselected afferents. Unselected receptors. Unselected efferents. Selected effectors. Unselected control centers.

effectors.

Secretin is a hormone that is secreted by the Unselected stomach. Selected small intestine. Unselected large intestine. Unselected liver. Unselected pancreas.

small intestine.

Which of the following is considered to be one of the primary digestive system hormones? Unselected Bile Selected Gastrin Unselected Hydrochloric acid Unselected Pancreatic amylase

Gastrin

An enzyme found within saliva is salivary Unselected pancreatase. Unselected nuclease. Selected amylase. Unselected protease. Unselected pepsin.

amylase.

The lingual salivary glands are Unselected unicellulilar endocrine glands. Selected unicellulilar exocrine glands. Unselected multicellulilar endocrine glands. Unselected multicellulilar exocrine glands.

unicellulilar exocrine glands.

Most saliva is produced by the _________ gland. Unselected parotid Selected submandibular Unselected sublingual Unselected lingual Unselected buccal

submandibular

Lysozyme within saliva primarily functions to Unselected moisten and disperse food. Unselected initiate the chemical breakdown of starch. Selected inhibit bacterial growth. Unselected wash materials off teeth.

inhibit bacterial growth.

The mastication center is located in the _____________ of the brain. Unselected hippocampus and amygdala Selected medulla and pons Unselected hypothalamus Unselected entorhinal cortex and basal nuclei Unselected solitary nucleus

medulla and pons

Mastication is a process that facilitates Unselected propulsion of materials through the intestine, and it involves simultaneous secretion of enzymes. Unselected mixing of food within the stomach, and it occurs with simultaneous hormone secretion there. Selected swallowing of food, and it increases the surface area of the food for exposure to enzymes. Unselected absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream, and it involves carrier proteins in the epithelium.

swallowing

The projections on the superior surface of the tongue, some of which house taste buds, are the Unselected tonsils. Unselected cilia. Unselected rugae. Unselected glossal spines. Selected papillae.

papillae.

Late one night, while studying for your anatomy class, you open a box of saltine crackers to do a little snacking. After chewing on a starchy morsel for a few minutes, you begin to notice a sweet taste in your mouth. What accounts for this? Unselected “Sweet” taste receptors are slower to respond than others Unselected Activity of bacteria in the mouth lowers the pH Unselected Esophageal reflux Selected Salivary amylase activity Unselected Phagocytosis by the pharyngeal tonsils produces by-products that taste sweet

Salivary amylase activity

Which of the following statements is true about teeth? Unselected The primary component of teeth is dentin. Unselected The outer surface of enamel forms the crown of a tooth. Unselected The root is covered by cementum. Selected All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

The deciduous teeth are the _________ teeth, and there are a total of ____ deciduous teeth. Unselected milk; 8 Selected milk; 20 Unselected wisdom; 4 Unselected permanent; 20 Unselected permanent; 28

milk; 20

The term “canines” describes the teeth that Unselected are most anterior, used for slicing and cutting. Selected are lateral to the incisors, used for puncturing and tearing. Unselected bear dental cusps for cutting and grinding. Unselected are only found as permanent teeth.

are lateral to the incisors, used for puncturing and tearing.

Which is the layer of the serous membrane that directly covers the surface of internal organs? Unselected Omental layer Selected Visceral peritoneum Unselected Parietal peritoneum Unselected Rectal peritoneum Unselected Muscularis mucosa

Visceral peritoneum

Which is not a fold of peritoneum that forms a mesentery? Unselected Lesser omentum Unselected Falciform ligament Unselected Mesentery proper Unselected Mesocolon Selected Intraperitoneal ligament

Intraperitoneal ligament

Which peritoneal fold supports the large intestine? Unselected Greater omentum Unselected Lesser omentum Unselected Falciform ligament Selected Mesocolon Unselected Peritoneal ligament

Mesocolon

Which organ is retroperitoneal? Unselected Stomach Unselected Jejunum Unselected Transverse colon Selected Pancreas Unselected Cecum

Pancreas

The gastroenterologist has just determined that you have a blockage in your jejunum and he will have to perform surgery, making a small incision in the wall to remove the obstruction. Which tunic will be cut first? Incorrect ResponseSelected Mucosa Unselected Submucosa Unselected Tunica muscularis Correct AnswerUnselected Serosa Unselected Adventitia

Serosa

For the majority of the GI tract, which layer(s) of the wall contain smooth muscle? Incorrect ResponseSelected Muscularis only Unselected Mucosa and adventitia Unselected Serosa only Correct AnswerUnselected Mucosa and muscularis Unselected Submucosa and muscularis

Mucosa and muscularis

The esophagus Unselected secretes digestive enzymes from its mucosa. Unselected is located anterior to the trachea. Unselected opens to the stomach at the pyloric sphincter. Selected contains both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers. Unselected is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

contains both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers.

Stenosis (constriction) of the pyloric sphincter would interfere with Unselected passage of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum. Unselected peristalsis. Unselected passage of a bolus into the stomach. Selected passage of chyme into the duodenum. Unselected mucus secretion.

passage of chyme into the duodenum.

Manufacturers of some medications used to treat heartburn advertise that their products shut down the acid-producing pumps in the stomach. Where are these “acid-producing pumps”? In other words, which type of gastric gland cell secretes acid? Unselected Chief cells Selected Parietal cells Unselected Mucous neck cells Unselected Surface mucous cells Unselected Enteroendocrine cells

Parietal cells

Which phase of digestion involves the thought, smell, and sight of food? Unselected Gastric phase Selected Cephalic phase Unselected Enteric phase Unselected Colic phase

Cephalic phase

"Segmentation" within the small intestine refers to the Unselected propulsion of material between the segments of the GI tract. Unselected division of function between the different segments of the small intestine. Selected back-and-forth motion that mixes chyme with glandular secretions. Unselected gastroileal reflex that moves materials from the stomach to the large intestine.

back-and-forth motion that mixes chyme with glandular secretions.

Villi Unselected are found throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Unselected generate movement of materials in the large intestine. Selected increase surface area in the small intestine. Unselected contain both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers. Unselected All of the choices are correct.

increase surface area in the small intestine.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of regions of the small intestine, from beginning to end? Unselected Ileum - duodenum - jejunum Unselected Jejunum - duodenum - ileum Unselected Duodenum - ileum - jejunum Unselected Ileum - jejunum - duodenum Selected Duodenum - jejunum - ileum

Duodenum - jejunum - ileum

What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine, starting at the cecum and ending at the rectum? a: Left colic flexure b: Ascending colon c: Transverse colon d: Right colic flexure e: Sigmoid colon f: Descending colon Unselected f, c, d, e, a, b Selected b, d, c, a, f, e Unselected e, b, a, c, d, f Unselected b, a, c, d, f, e Unselected e, b, d, c, a, f

b, d, c, a, f, e

Which is (are) not found in the wall of the large intestine? Unselected Goblet cells Unselected Simple columnar epithelium Unselected Lymphatic nodules Selected Villi Unselected Intestinal glands

Villi

Bacteria within the large intestine are called Unselected indigenous macrobiota. Selected indigenous microbiota. Unselected exogenous macrobiota. Unselected exogenous microbiota.

indigenous microbiota.

What material is transported in the sinusoids of the liver? Unselected Bile Unselected Arterial blood Unselected Venous blood Selected Mixed arterial and venous blood Unselected Hepatic juice

Mixed arterial and venous blood

Which is not a lobe of the liver? Unselected Right lobe Unselected Caudate lobe Selected Round lobe Unselected Quadrate lobe Unselected Left lobe

Round lobe

The pancreas is located primarily on the ______ side of the body, and it produces an _______ juice that is rich in a variety of enzymes. Unselected left, acidic Correct AnswerUnselected left, alkaline Unselected right, acidic Incorrect ResponseSelected right, alkaline

left, alkaline

The presence of fatty chyme in the small intestine stimulates it to release _______, which causes the _____. Unselected gastrin; liver to secrete an alkaline solution Selected CCK; gallbladder to release bile Unselected CCK; stomach to increase gastric secretion Unselected secretin; stomach to increase motility Unselected secretin; pancreas to release acidic pancreatic juice

CCK; gallbladder to release bile

Amylase from saliva digests Unselected lipids. Unselected protein. Unselected glucose. Selected starch.

starch.

Digestion of carbohydrates within the small intestine involves enzymes that come from the a: mouth. b: stomach. c: pancreas. d: lining of the small intestine. Unselected a, b Unselected b, c Correct AnswerUnselected c, d Unselected a, d Incorrect ResponseSelected a, b, c, d

c, d

Pepsinogen is an Unselected active enzyme that is released in the small intestine and digests carbohydrates. Selected inactive precursor to the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach. Unselected active enzyme that digests proteins within the small intestine. Unselected inactive precursor to a nonspecific enzyme that is synthesized in the pancreas and released in the small intestine.

inactive precursor to the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach.

Proteolytic enzymes secreted from the pancreas are activated Unselected once they reach the pancreatic duct. Selected within the lumen of the small intestine. Unselected in secretory vesicles within pancreatic secretory cells. Unselected once they reach the large intestine.

within the lumen of the small intestine.

Bile salts are Selected amphipathic. Unselected completely hydrophilic. Unselected completely hydrophobic.

amphipathic.

Nucleic acids are digested within the Unselected mouth. Unselected stomach. Selected small intestine. Unselected pancreas. Unselected large intestine.

small intestine.

At which stage of life is the percentage of fluid in the human body highest? Selected Infancy Unselected Childhood Unselected Middle age Unselected Advanced age

Infancy

When comparing a lean adult female to a lean adult male, which will most likely have a higher percentage of body fluid? Unselected The female Selected The male

The male

Fluid imbalances are more common in individuals with a _________ percentage of body fluid. Unselected high Selected low

low

A comparison of the two major body fluid compartments reveals that Unselected two-thirds of the total fluid is outside our cells and one-third is within our cells. Selected two-thirds of the total fluid is within our cells and one-third is outside our cells. Unselected half of the total fluid is within our cells and half is outside our cells. Unselected six-sevenths of the total fluid is within our cells and one-seventh is outside our cells. Unselected six-sevenths of the total fluid is outside our cells and one-seventh is within our cells.

two-thirds of the total fluid is within our cells and one-third is outside our cells.

The plasma of our blood constitutes ______ than half of the fluid in our body; plasma is part of the _____________ fluid. Unselected more; intracellular Unselected more; extracellular Unselected less; intracellular Selected less; extracellular

less; extracellular

Interstitial fluid composes about ________ of the body's extracellular fluid. Unselected one-tenth Unselected one-third Unselected one-half Selected two-thirds Unselected nine-tenths

two-thirds

When compared to extracellular fluid, intracellular fluid contains Selected more potassium and more negatively charged proteins. Unselected more potassium but fewer negatively charged proteins. Unselected less potassium but more negatively charged proteins. Unselected less potassium and less negatively charged proteins.

more potassium and more negatively charged proteins.

Interstitial fluid has a relatively _______ concentration of sodium and chloride; the concentrations of ions within the interstitial fluid and blood plasma are very ______. Selected high; similar Unselected high; different Unselected low; similar Unselected low; different

high; similar

Which statement accurately describes the permeability to water of the cell membrane and the capillary wall? Selected Both the plasma membrane and the capillary wall are permeable to water. Unselected The plasma membrane is permeable to water, but the capillary wall is not. Unselected The plasma membrane is not permeable to water, but the capillary wall is. Unselected Neither the plasma membrane nor the capillary wall is permeable to water.

Both the plasma membrane and the capillary wall are permeable to water.

Drinking a liter of water will cause the osmolarity of blood plasma to Unselected increase. Selected decrease.

decrease.

Which type of intake accounts for most of our daily fluid intake? Unselected Metabolic water Selected Preformed water

Preformed water

Aerobic cellular respiration and dehydration synthesis reactions result in Selected metabolic water intake. Unselected preformed water intake. Unselected insensible water output. Unselected preformed water output. Unselected obligatory water output.

metabolic water intake.

Water lost through feces is considered ___________ water loss. Selected sensible, obligatory Unselected sensible, facultative Unselected insensible, obligatory Unselected insensible, facultative

sensible, obligatory

Facultative water loss is loss that Unselected occurs regardless of the state of hydration of the body. Selected is controlled by hormone effects on the kidney. Unselected occurs through sweating and breathing.

is controlled by hormone effects on the kidney.

If someone in an accident suffered severe burns as well as hemorrhage, they would be at high risk for Unselected hypotonic hydration. Selected volume depletion. Unselected hypotonic dehydration. Unselected volume excess.

volume depletion.

Renal failure would likely lead to Unselected volume depletion. Unselected hypotonicity. Selected volume excess. Unselected hypertonic ascites.

volume excess.

Runners who drink too much water before a marathon run a risk of water intoxication, also known as Unselected diabetes insipidus. Unselected volume excess. Selected hypotonic hydration. Unselected volume depletion. Unselected hypertonic ascites.

hypotonic hydration.

Blockage of lymphatic vessels or surgical removal of lymphatic vessels increases the likelihood of Unselected ascites, which is an example of volume depletion. Unselected ascites, which is an example of hypertonicity. Selected edema, which is a an example of fluid sequestration. Unselected edema, which is a an example of volume depletion. Unselected pleural effusion, which is an example of hypertonic hydration.

edema, which is a an example of fluid sequestration.

Feelings of thirstiness are brought on by Unselected increases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity. Unselected increases in salivary secretions and decreases in blood osmolarity. Selected decreases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity. Unselected decreases in salivary secretions and decreases in blood osmolarity.

decreases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity.

The thirst center of the brain is located in the Unselected hippocampus. Selected hypothalamus. Unselected occipital lobe. Unselected pons.

hypothalamus.

Distention of the stomach causes thirst to Unselected increase. Selected decrease.

decrease.

When compared with the effects of blood pressure and osmolarity on fluid intake, the effects of saliva and stomach distention are Unselected more immediate and more accurate. Selected more immediate but less accurate. Unselected more long-term and more accurate. Unselected more long-term but less accurate.

more immediate but less accurate.

The hormone ANP Unselected increases urine output and increases blood volume. Selected increases urine output and decreases blood volume. Unselected decreases urine output and decreases blood volume. Unselected decreases urine output and increases blood volume.

increases urine output and decreases blood volume.

To account for their effects on osmotic pressure, the concentration of electrolytes is often expressed in Unselected moles. Unselected moieties. Selected milliequivalents per liter. Unselected moles per liter. Unselected milliliters.

milliequivalents per liter.

The most abundant cation within cells is Unselected sodium. Selected potassium. Unselected calcium. Unselected chloride. Unselected magnesium.

potassium.

The most abundant anion in the extracellular fluid is Unselected negatively charged proteins. Unselected phosphate. Selected chloride. Unselected hydrogen. Unselected acetic acid.

chloride.

How are sodium levels and blood pressure related? Unselected Increased plasma sodium levels decrease water retention, decrease blood volume, and increase blood pressure. Unselected Decreased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, increase blood volume, and decrease blood pressure. Selected Increased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, blood volume, and blood pressure. Unselected Decreased plasma sodium levels decrease water retention, increase blood volume, and increase blood pressure.

Increased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, blood volume, and blood pressure.

Most potassium loss from the body occurs through Unselected sweat. Selected urine. Unselected feces. Unselected respiration.

urine.

Increases in secretion of the hormone ADH cause sodium concentration in the blood plasma to Unselected increase. Unselected stay at the same level. Selected decrease.

decrease.

Low levels of calcium within cells are maintained by Unselected a high number of voltage-gated and leakage channels for calcium in cell membranes. Unselected frequent exocytosis and endocytosis of calcium-containing vesicles. Selected pumps that move calcium out of cells or into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Unselected osmosis of large amounts of water into cells that have any calcium within them.

pumps that move calcium out of cells or into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Renin is released from the JG apparatus in response to Unselected high blood pressure or increased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. Unselected high blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. Unselected low blood pressure or increased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. Selected low blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

low blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesized in the _________ and released from the _________. Unselected anterior pituitary; posterior pituitary Unselected anterior pituitary; hypothalamus Selected hypothalamus; posterior pituitary Unselected hypothalamus; anterior pituitary

hypothalamus; posterior pituitary

The stimuli that trigger the release of ADH are Unselected high blood pressure, high blood volume, and high blood osmolarity. Unselected high blood pressure, low blood volume, and low blood osmolarity. Selected low blood pressure, low blood volume, and high blood osmolarity. Unselected low blood pressure, high blood volume, and high blood osmolarity. Unselected low blood pressure, low blood volume, and low blood osmolarity.

low blood pressure, low blood volume, and high blood osmolarity.

In the brain ADH _______ the thirst center, and in the kidneys ADH causes an increase in water __________. Unselected stimulates; secretion Selected stimulates; reabsorption Unselected inhibits; secretion Unselected inhibits; reabsorption

stimulates; reabsorption

The stimulus that directly triggers release of ANP is Unselected decreased pressure detected by baroreceptors in the aorta and carotid arteries. Selected increased stretch of the heart atria. Unselected increased saltiness in the cerebrospinal fluid bathing the hypothalamus of the brain. Unselected increased saltiness of tubular fluid in the proximal convoluted tubule.

increased stretch of the heart atria.

Atrial natriuretic peptide causes __________ of afferent arterioles and _________ of mesangial cells. Unselected constriction; contraction Unselected constriction; relaxation Unselected dilation; contraction Selected dilation; relaxation

dilation; relaxation

Most of the fixed acid in our body comes from Unselected the oxygen we breathe. Correct AnswerUnselected acid absorbed from the GI tract. Unselected loss of bicarbonate in feces. Incorrect ResponseSelected lactic acid from muscle.

acid absorbed from the GI tract.

When blood starts to become too acidic, the kidneys respond by Unselected synthesizing and secreting bicarbonate ions while reabsorbing H+. Unselected synthesizing and reabsorbing H+ while filtering bicarbonate ions. Selected synthesizing and reabsorbing bicarbonate ions while secreting H+. Unselected decreasing filtration rate and increasing reabsorption of both bicarbonate ions and H+. Unselected increasing filtration rate and increasing reabsorption of H+.

synthesizing and reabsorbing bicarbonate ions while secreting H+.

The process by which the kidneys eliminate excess acid or base is relatively Unselected quick (takes minutes) and powerful. Unselected quick (takes minutes) but limited (is not very powerful). Selected slow (takes hours to days) but powerful. Unselected slow (takes hours to days) and limited (is not very powerful).

slow (takes hours to days) but powerful.

The amine groups contained within amino acids of proteins can act as weak Unselected acids. Selected bases.

bases.

The bicarbonate system is composed of H2CO3 and HCO-3. Which statement accurately describes these molecules? Unselected H2CO3 and HCO-3 are both weak acids. Selected H2CO3 is a weak acid, and HCO-3 is a weak base. Unselected H2CO3 is a weak base, and HCO-3 is a weak acid. Unselected H2CO3 and HCO-3 are both strong bases. Unselected H2CO3 is a strong base, and HCO-3 is a weak acid.

H2CO3 is a weak acid, and HCO-3 is a weak base.

If a physiologic condition resulted in blood pH reaching 7.2, but then physiological buffering systems brought the pH to 7.4, that increase in pH would be called Unselected acidosis. Unselected alkalosis. Selected compensation. Unselected imbalance. Unselected partial noncompensation.

compensation.

Respiratory acidosis occurs when the partial pressure of Unselected oxygen rises. Unselected oxygen falls. Selected carbon dioxide rises. Unselected carbon dioxide falls.

carbon dioxide rises.

Medicines that overstimulate respiratory centers in the brain lead to Unselected respiratory acidosis. Selected respiratory alkalosis. Unselected metabolic acidosis. Unselected metabolic alkalosis.

respiratory alkalosis.

When bicarbonate levels fall due to an accumulation of fixed acids in the body, the result is Selected metabolic acidosis. Unselected metabolic alkalosis. Unselected insufficient respiration. Unselected respiratory acidosis. Unselected respiratory alkalosis.

metabolic acidosis.

The high metabolic rate of infants puts them at increased risk of metabolic Selected acidosis. Unselected alkalosis.

acidosis.

An individual who consumes many antacids for stomach upset and many diuretics for high blood pressure will be at risk for metabolic Unselected acidosis. Selected alkalosis.

alkalosis.

Renal compensation to a decrease in blood H+ levels is to increase the activity of type Unselected A cells to secrete more bicarbonate. Unselected A cells to secrete less bicarbonate. Selected B cells to secrete more bicarbonate. Unselected B cells to secrete less bicarbonate.

B cells to secrete more bicarbonate.

The development of hypoxia can limit the effectiveness of respiratory compensation for metabolic Incorrect ResponseSelected acidosis. Correct AnswerUnselected alkalosis.

alkalosis.

When pH decreases, the kidney responds by Selected secreting H+. Unselected reabsorbing carbon dioxide. Unselected secreting bicarbonate. Unselected secreting carbonic acid.

secreting H+.

The ___________ transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. Selected ureters Unselected urethras Unselected vas deferens and uterine tubes Unselected efferent arteries

ureters

What is the correct sequence of organs for the formation and elimination of urine? Unselected Bladder, urethra, kidney, ureter Selected Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra Unselected Kidney, urethra, bladder, ureter Unselected Kidney, bladder, ureter, urethra Unselected Urethra, bladder, kidney, ureter

Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra

n response to low blood ________, the kidneys secrete __________. Unselected calcium; renin Selected oxygen; erythropoietin Unselected sodium; calcitriol Unselected potassium; erythropoietin Unselected glucose; calcitriol

oxygen; erythropoietin

In order to accommodate the large liver, Unselected the left kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the right kidney. Selected the right kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney.

the right kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney.

From innermost to outermost, the protective layers on the kidney are the Selected fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. Unselected renal corpuscle, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. Unselected renal fascia, paranephric fat, renal corpuscle, perinephric fat. Unselected renal fascia, perinephric fat, fibrous capsule, paranephric fat. Unselected fibrous capsule, paranephric fat, renal fascia, perinephric fat.

fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat.

An adult human kidney typically contains ______ renal pyramid(s). Unselected 2 to 5 Selected 8 to 15 Unselected 16 to 24 Unselected 1 Unselected 30 to 40

8 to 15

Which of the following choices lists structures in the order in which urine flows through them? Unselected Major calyx, minor calyx, renal pelvis Unselected Renal pelvis, major calyx, minor pelvis Selected Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis Unselected Major pelvis, minor calyx, renal pelvis Unselected Major calyx, renal pelvis, minor calyx

Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis

Autonomic innervation of the kidney includes Unselected Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T1–T2. Unselected Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T10–T12. Unselected Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T1–T2. Selected Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10–T12.

Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10–T12.

Pain from the kidneys is usually referred by way of the Unselected autonomic pathways to the inferior pelvic organs. Selected sympathetic pathways to the T11–L2 dermatomes. Unselected somatic pathways to the left shoulder. Unselected parasympathetic pathways to the T1–T2 dermatomes.

sympathetic pathways to the T11–L2 dermatomes.

The thick tangle of capillary loops found within a corpuscle is known as the Unselected Bowman. Unselected convoluted capillary bed. Unselected glomerular capsule. Selected glomerulus. Unselected nephron.

glomerulus.

he nephron loop makes a hairpin turn within the ________ and its ________ limb ends at the distal convoluted tubule. Unselected cortex; ascending Unselected cortex; descending Selected medulla; ascending Unselected medulla; descending

medulla; ascending

Cortical nephrons have their corpuscles near the _________ edge of the cortex and are the ______ common type of nephron. Unselected deeper; more Unselected deeper; less Selected peripheral; more Unselected peripheral; less

peripheral; more

How are nephrons, collecting ducts, and collecting tubules related to each other? Unselected One collecting duct drains into one nephron, and one nephron drains into one collecting tubule. Selected One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct. Unselected One nephron drains into one collecting duct, and several collecting ducts empty into a collecting tubule. Unselected One collecting tubule drains into one nephron, and several nephrons drain into one collecting duct. Unselected One nephron drains into several collecting tubules, and all tubules eventually lead to one collecting duct.

One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct.

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located Unselected within the renal sinus. Unselected in the renal papilla. Unselected in the perinephric fat. Unselected inside the tubular pole of the glomerulus. Selected near the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle.

near the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle.

Stimulation of granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system causes them to Selected contract. Unselected relax. Unselected release calcitriol. Unselected increase endocytosis.

contract

Macula densa cells monitor the concentration of Unselected glucose in the blood. Unselected antidiuretic hormone in the urine. Selected sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. Unselected calcium in the fluid of the proximal convoluted tubule. Unselected aldosterone in the afferent arteriole.

sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from most other capillary networks in the body because they Unselected carry only deoxygenated blood. Selected drain into an arteriole instead of a venule. Unselected contain no endothelium. Unselected absorb nutrients from the glomerular capsule. Unselected secrete mucus.

drain into an arteriole instead of a venule.

Immediately before blood enters arterioles of the kidney, it travels through small arteries that project peripherally into the renal cortex. These arteries are the Unselected arcuate arteries. Selected interlobular arteries. Unselected segmental arteries. Unselected lobar arteries. Unselected peritubular arteries

interlobular arteries.

Fluid contained within the lumen of a nephron loop is called Unselected plasma. Selected tubular fluid. Unselected filtrate. Unselected urine.

tubular fluid.

Place the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation. a: Capsular space of glomerulus b: Nephron loop c: Collecting duct d: Distal convoluted tubule e: Proximal convoluted tubule Unselected a, c, b, e, d Unselected e, d, b, a, c Unselected b, e, c, d, a Unselected b, d, c, e, a Selected a, e, b, d, c

a, e, b, d, c

Which step(s) in the process of urine formation occur in the renal tubule? Unselected Filtration only Unselected Secretion only Unselected Reabsorption only Unselected Filtration, secretion, and reabsorption Selected Secretion and reabsorption only

Secretion and reabsorption only

The active transport of solutes out of the blood and into the tubular fluid is called Unselected filtration. Unselected tubular reabsorption. Selected tubular secretion. Unselected fenestration. Unselected titration.

tubular secretion.

The basement membrane of the glomerulus is composed of glycoproteins and _________, and it restricts the passage of _________. Unselected phospholipids; plasma ions Unselected phospholipids; plasma proteins Unselected proteoglycans; plasma ions Selected proteoglycans; plasma proteins

proteoglycans; plasma proteins

Mesangial cells help keep the basement membrane clean by Unselected secreting emulsifying agents that dissolve trapped particles. Selected engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane. Unselected opening larger pores in the membrane so that trapped particles move accross. Unselected secreting antibodies that attack the molecules caught in the endothelium.

engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane.

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of Unselected blood in the nephron capsule. Unselected tubular fluid in the glomerular capsule. Selected blood in the glomerular capillaries. Unselected filtrate in the glomerular capillaries. Unselected solutes in the tubular fluid.

blood in the glomerular capillaries.

The capsular hydrostatic pressure is generally ______ than the glomerular hydrostatic pressure; increases in capsular hydrostatic pressure _________ the formation of additional filtrate. Unselected larger; facilitate Unselected larger; impede Unselected smaller; facilitate Selected smaller; impedeq

smaller; impede

The units for measurement of glomerular filtration rate are Unselected mm Hg. Unselected mm Hg per minute. Unselected liters. Selected liters per minute.

liters per minute.

Sympathetic nervous system influences on glomerular filtration rate are considered ________ controls. Unselected intrinsic Selected extrinsic

extrinsic

If there is an increase in systemic blood pressure, the resulting stretch of afferent arterioles results in reflexive Unselected vasoconstriction of efferent arterioles to raise GFR. Selected vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal. Unselected vasodilation of efferent arterioles to lower GFR. Unselected vasodilation of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

If someone is bleeding severely, the body's adaptive response is to Unselected increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore increase GFR. Selected increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR. Unselected decrease sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR. Unselected decrease sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore increase GFR.

increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR.

Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney results in Unselected constriction of afferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. Selected constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus. Unselected dilation of afferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. Unselected dilation of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus.

constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus.

The hormone ANP is released from the heart and causes the urinary system to Unselected increase urine volume and blood volume. Selected increase urine volume and decrease blood volume. Unselected decrease urine volume and blood volume. Unselected decrease urine volume and increase blood volume.

increase urine volume and decrease blood volume.

Peritubular capillaries tend to exhibit Unselected high hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure. Unselected high hydrostatic pressure and low colloid pressure. Unselected low hydrostatic pressure and low colloid pressure. Selected low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure.

low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure.

The renal threshold of a substance refers to Unselected the number of protein transporters for the substance per tubule. Selected the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine. Unselected the concentration of the substance found in the kidney before the substance becomes toxic. Unselected the concentration of the substance in the urine that results in an overall increase in urine volume.

the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine.

Nutrients such as glucose and amino acids within the tubular fluid Unselected are completely secreted. Selected are completely reabsorbed. Unselected have half of their plasma concentration secreted. Unselected have a little less than half of their tubular fluid concentration reabsorbed. Unselected have concentrations in the filtrate and urine that match their transport maximum.

are completely reabsorbed.

Generally, a very _______ percent of Na+ in the tubular fluid is reabsorbed, and the reabsorption takes place _________. Unselected high; only in the nephron loop Selected high; along the entire tubule Unselected small; only in the nephron loop Unselected small; along the entire tubule

high; along the entire tubule

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Unselected stimulates reabsorption of both calcium and phosphate. Selected stimulates reabsorption of calcium but inhibits phosphate reabsorption. Unselected inhibits reabsorption of calcium but stimulates phosphate reabsorption. Unselected inhibits reabsorption of both calcium and phosphate.

stimulates reabsorption of calcium but inhibits phosphate reabsorption.

The primary mechanism of water reabsorption in the kidney is Unselected primary active transport by means of a protein pump. Selected osmosis through aquaporins. Unselected secondary active transport by means of a sodium-water symporter. Unselected bulk transport by means of endocytosis.

osmosis through aquaporins.

Generally, most water reabsorption in a nephron occurs at the Unselected nephron loop and is called obligatory water reabsorption. Unselected nephron loop and is called facultative water reabsorption. Selected proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption. Unselected proximal convoluted tubule and is called facultative water reabsorption.

proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption.

Someone with a diet that is high in vegetables but low in animal protein is likely to have very active Unselected type A cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. Unselected type A cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+. Selected type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. Unselected type B cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+.

type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+.

Which processes does urea undergo within the kidney? Unselected It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted. Selected It is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted. Unselected It is filtered and can also be secreted but not reabsorbed. Unselected It is not filtered nor reabsorbed but can be secreted. Unselected It is not filtered but can be secreted and reabsorbed.

It is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted.

Pregnancy tests often involve checking the urine for the presence of Unselected bilirubin from the fetus. Selected human chorionic gonadotropin. Unselected sulfonamides. Unselected epinephrine and prostaglandin.

human chorionic gonadotropin.

The word "countercurrent" within "countercurrent multiplier" refers to the opposite direction of flow of Unselected sodium and potassium across the wall of the nephron. Selected tubular fluid within the ascending and descending limb of the nephron loop. Unselected salts and water across the wall of the renal tubule. Unselected tubular fluid in the proximal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule.

tubular fluid within the ascending and descending limb of the nephron loop.

Substances that are both filtered and reabsorbed have a renal plasma clearance that is _________ the GFR. Unselected higher than Selected lower than Unselected the same as

lower than

Careful measurements of GFR are made by injection of _______, but approximations of GFR can be made more simply by measuring renal plasma clearance of _________. Unselected creatine phosphate; insulin Unselected insulin; creatine phosphate Selected inulin; creatinine Unselected creatinine; inulin

inulin; creatinine

The normal pH for urine Unselected is anything below 7.0. Unselected is anything above 7.0 Selected ranges between 4.5 and 8.0. Unselected ranges between 3.0 and 6.0. Unselected ranges between 8.0 and 9.0 for someone with a diet high in protein.

ranges between 4.5 and 8.0.

Normal urine has a specific gravity that is ________ than the specific gravity of pure water; dehydration leads to a __________ in the specific gravity of urine. Selected higher; increase Unselected higher; decrease Unselected lower; decrease Unselected lower; increase

higher; increase

Urine flow from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder is produced by Unselected ciliary action in the renal pelvis. Unselected suction from the urinary bladder. Selected peristalsis of the ureters. Unselected hydrostatic pressure from the small intestine. Unselected contraction of the detrusor muscle.

peristalsis of the ureters.

Which layer is not found in the wall of the urinary bladder? Unselected Adventitia Unselected Muscularis Unselected Mucosa Unselected Submucosa Selected No exceptions; all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder

No exceptions; all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder

The muscularis layer of the urinary bladder is commonly called the _____ muscle. Selected detrusor Unselected trigone Unselected extrusor Unselected extrinsic

detrusor

Which is not a function of the respiratory system? Selected Sound reception Unselected Gas exchange Unselected Odor detection Unselected Air passage

Sound reception

Which region(s) of the pharynx is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium? Unselected Oropharynx Selected Nasopharynx Unselected Laryngopharynx Unselected Oropharynx and nasopharynx Unselected Oropharynx, nasopharynx, and laryngopharynx

Nasopharynx

Mucin _______ the viscosity of mucus, facilitating the ______ of dust and dirt particles. Selected increases; trapping Unselected decreases; flushing Unselected increases; diluting Unselected decreases; exocytosis

increases; trapping

The nose contains a single septal cartilage. How many alar cartilages are in the nose? Unselected One Incorrect ResponseSelected Two Unselected Three Correct AnswerUnselected Four

Four

An air passage (valley) beneath a turbinate within the nasal cavity is referred to as a Unselected vestibule. Unselected concha. Unselected vibrissa. Selected meatus.

meatus.

What structures are used by both the respiratory and digestive systems? Selected Oropharynx and laryngopharynx Unselected Laryngopharynx and larynx Unselected Nasal cavity and nasopharynx Unselected Paranasal sinuses Unselected Laryngopharynx and esophagus

Oropharynx and laryngopharynx

Into what region of the pharynx do auditory tubes open? Unselected Oropharynx Selected Nasopharynx Unselected Laryngopharynx

Nasopharynx

What structure is also known as the "voice box"? Selected Larynx Unselected Pharynx Unselected Esophagus Unselected Bronchus Unselected Trachea

Larynx

What structure prevents food and drink from entering the trachea, conducts air, and produces sound? Unselected Esophagus Unselected Bronchi Unselected Pharynx Unselected Nasal cavity Selected Larynx

Larynx

The male voice tends to be in a lower range than a female's voice because men have Unselected more taut vestibular folds. Unselected more air to push through the rima glottidis. Unselected wider arytenoid cartilages. Unselected shorter and fatter vestibular ligaments. Selected longer and thicker vocal folds.

longer and thicker vocal folds.

What structure connects the larynx to the primary bronchi? Selected Trachea Unselected Pharynx Unselected Esophagus Unselected Bronchioles Unselected Alveolar ducts

Trachea

Which statement is true regarding the location of the trachea? Unselected It lies superior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs. Unselected It lies posterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs. Unselected It lies anterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and inferior to the primary bronchi of the lungs. Selected It lies anterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs. Unselected It lies superior to the esophagus, superior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs.

It lies anterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs.

What type of tissue lines the trachea? Unselected Cuboidal epithelium Unselected Simple squamous epithelium Unselected Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium Unselected Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium Selected Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

Which statement is true regarding secondary bronchi? Unselected The right lung has two secondary bronchi and the left lung has three secondary bronchi. Selected The left lung has two secondary bronchi and the right lung has three secondary bronchi. Unselected Each lung has two secondary bronchi. Unselected Each lung has three secondary bronchi. Unselected Each lung has four secondary bronchi.

The left lung has two secondary bronchi and the right lung has three secondary bronchi.

Alveoli abut each other, causing them to appear _________ in cross section. Unselected enlarged Selected polygonal Unselected stratified Unselected circular Unselected columnar

polygonal

The alveolar cell that secretes pulmonary surfactant is the Selected alveolar type II cell. Unselected alveolar type I cell. Unselected alveolar macrophage. Unselected dust cell. Unselected squamous alveolar cell.

alveolar type II cell.

Which is not part of the respiratory membrane? Unselected Capillary endothelium Unselected Fused basement membrane Unselected Plasma membrane of Type I cell Selected Plasma membrane of Type II cell

Plasma membrane of Type II cell

Each lung consists of a number of segments called Unselected alveolar segments. Selected bronchopulmonary segments. Unselected mesothelial segments. Unselected pleural segments. Unselected systemic segments.

bronchopulmonary segments.

Which of the two lungs is larger and wider? Unselected The left lung Selected The right lung

The right lung

Activation of sympathetic nerves that innervate lung tissue results in Unselected bronchoconstriction. Selected bronchodilation.

bronchodilation.

The main function of serous fluid is to Selected lubricate and reduce friction between pleural membranes around the lung. Unselected improve adhesion of the lungs to the thoracic wall. Unselected facilitate the diffusion of oxygen across the respiratory membrane.

lubricate and reduce friction between pleural membranes around the lung.

The lungs remain inflated because Unselected intrapulmonary pressure is less than intrapleural pressure. Selected intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure. Unselected intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to intrapulmonary pressure. Unselected intrapleural pressure is exactly equal to atmospheric pressure.

intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.

Which answer places the following events in proper order for pulmonary ventilation? a: Thoracic cavity volume changes. b: Brainstem nuclei stimulate skeletal muscles to contract. c: Air flows down its pressure gradient. d: Dimensional changes in the thorax lead to pressure changes within the lung. Selected b, a, d, c Unselected d, c, b, a Unselected b, d, c, a Unselected a, c, d, b Unselected c, a, d, b

b, a, d, c

These muscles increase thoracic cavity dimensions by elevating the first and second ribs during forced inhalation. Unselected External intercostals Selected Scalenes Unselected Transversus thoracis Unselected Internal intercostals Unselected Serratus posterior inferior

Scalenes

Contraction of these muscles depresses the ribs, but only during forced exhalation. Unselected External intercostals Unselected Scalenes Unselected Transversus thoracis Selected Internal intercostals Unselected Serratus posterior inferior

Internal intercostals

Air flows out of the body during expiration because Selected intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. Unselected intrapleural pressure is greater than intrapulmonary pressure. Unselected atmospheric pressure is greater than intrapulmonary pressure. Unselected intrapleural pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.

intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.

What is the name of the column of neurons within the medulla that initiates neural impulses for inspiration and expiration? Unselected Pontine respiratory center Selected Ventral respiratory group Unselected Dorsal respiratory group Unselected Phrenic nucleus

Ventral respiratory group

Also known as the pneumotaxic center, this area allows for smooth transitions between inspiration and expiration. Unselected Dorsal respiratory group Unselected Ventral respiratory group Selected Pontine respiratory center Unselected Medullary respiratory center Unselected Carotid body

Pontine respiratory center

The carotid bodies contain _________ chemoreceptors that respond to changes in ________________. Selected peripheral; blood concentrations of H+ and O2 Unselected central; blood concentrations of H+, but not CO2 and O2 Unselected peripheral; cerebrospinal fluid concentrations of H+ Unselected central; cerebrospinal concentrations of CO2 Unselected peripheral; concentrations of carbon, dust, and pollution in the lungs

peripheral; blood concentrations of H+ and O2

Breathing muscles such as the diaphragm are controlled by neurons of the _________ nervous system. Selected somatic Unselected autonomic Unselected enteric

somatic

Suppose that following an automobile accident, a broken rib penetrates into the pleural cavity, causing air to accumulate in the space between the visceral and parietal pleura. This condition is known as a Selected pneumothorax. Unselected tension hemothorax. Unselected hemothorax. Unselected cystic fibrosis.

pneumothorax.

Pulmonary fibrosis Selected decreases elasticity, thereby increasing resistance and decreasing airflow. Unselected increases elasticity, thereby increasing resistance and decreasing airflow. Unselected decreases elasticity, thereby decreasing both resistance and airflow. Unselected increases elasticity, thereby decreasing resistance and increasing airflow.

decreases elasticity, thereby increasing resistance and decreasing airflow.

Two individuals of the same size (same dead space) have a pulmonary ventilation rate of 6 L/min, but one is breathing 10 breaths/min and the other is breathing 15 breaths/min. How do their alveolar ventilation rates compare? Selected The slower breather has a greater alveolar ventilation rate. Unselected The faster breather has a greater alveolar ventilation rate. Unselected Their alveolar ventilation rates are equivalent.

The slower breather has a greater alveolar ventilation rate.

A buildup of fluid in the lungs caused by pneumonia leads to an increase in the Selected physiologic dead space. Unselected anatomic dead space. Unselected residual volume.

physiologic dead space.

The expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume equals the Unselected tidal volume. Selected functional residual capacity. Unselected inspiratory reserve volume. Unselected vital capacity. Unselected forced expiratory volume.

functional residual capacity.

Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) is the greatest amount of air that can be Selected inspired and then expelled in 1 minute. Unselected expired in 1 second. Unselected held within the lungs for over 30 seconds. Unselected inspired in one breath (regardless of dead space).

inspired and then expelled in 1 minute.

Compared to its partial pressure in the atmosphere, oxygen's partial pressure in the alveoli is Unselected higher. Selected lower. Unselected equivalent.

lower.

Because oxygen has a low solubility coefficient in water, Unselected it is easily dissolved in water and requires only a slight partial pressure gradient to enter the water. Unselected it is easily dissolved in water and the partial pressure gradient is irrelevant to its solubilty. Selected it is not easily dissolved in water and requires a steep partial pressure gradient to enter the water. Unselected it is impossible to dissolve oxygen into water unless the partial pressure gradient is very minor.

it is not easily dissolved in water and requires a steep partial pressure gradient to enter the water.

Which statement accurately describes alveolar exchange of oxygen? Selected Oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen. Unselected Oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a lower partial pressure of oxygen. Unselected Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the alveolus because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen. Unselected Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the alveolus because the alveolus has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.

Oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen.

An increase in the partial pressure of CO2 causes bronchioles to Unselected constrict. Selected dilate.

dilate.

As blood travels through a systemic capillary and exchanges gases with systemic cells, Selected the partial pressure of oxygen in blood decreases as it goes from arterioles to venules. Unselected the partial pressure of oxygen in blood increases as it goes from arterioles to venules. Unselected the partial pressure of oxygen on blood remains the same as it goes from arterioles to venules.

the partial pressure of oxygen in blood decreases as it goes from arterioles to venules.

Hemoglobin is crucial for oxygen transport in the blood because oxygen has a _______ solubility coefficient in water. Unselected high Selected low

low

About 23% of the carbon dioxide in the blood is attached to the _______ portion of hemoglobin. Unselected heme Selected globin Unselected carboxyl Unselected anhydrase

globin

About 70% of the CO2 that diffuses into systemic capillaries Unselected directly dissolves in the plasma. Selected combines with water to form carbonic acid, which then dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions. Unselected binds to hemoglobin. Unselected forms carbonic anhydrase, which combines carbonic acid and water to solubilize the CO2.

combines with water to form carbonic acid, which then dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions.

If someone at sea level is given pure oxygen to breathe, it would cause the oxygen saturation of their hemoglobin Unselected to increase by more than double. Selected to increase by only a tiny amount. Unselected to decrease due to uncooperative binding.

to increase by only a tiny amount.

An actively contracting muscle will cause local temperature to rise and will produce acidic molecules. Warmth and lower pH cause the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve to shift ______ reflecting that hemoglobin releases ______ oxygen. Unselected left; more Unselected left; less Selected right; more Unselected right; less

right; more

Airway obstruction can lead to hypoventilation, which can cause Selected hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Unselected hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis. Unselected hypocapnia and hyperpnea. Unselected hypoxia and respiratory alkalosis. Unselected hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis.

hypoxia and respiratory acidosis.

When someone exercises vigorously, their breathing is described as demonstrating Correct AnswerUnselected hyperpnea, involving deeper but not faster breathing. Incorrect ResponseSelected hyperventilation, involving both deeper and faster breathing. Unselected bradypnea, involving deeper and slower breathing. Unselected hypopnea, involving shallower but faster breathing.

hyperpnea, involving deeper but not faster breathing.

Compared to carbon dioxide, oxygen has a relatively _____ solubility coefficient and so requires a _____ partial pressure gradient to help diffuse the gas into the blood. Selected low; large Unselected low; small Unselected high; large Unselected high; small

low; large

During systemic gas exchange, what happens to carbon dioxide after it enters a red blood cell? Selected It reacts with water to form carbonic acid. Unselected It reacts with bicarbonate to become carbonic acid. Unselected It reacts with carbonic acid to become bicarbonate. Unselected It attaches to the heme portion of hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin.

It reacts with water to form carbonic acid.

A&P Flashcards

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