Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > A&P 2 Exam 1 > Flashcards

A&P 2 Exam 1 Flashcards

0
Q

A cell is _______ when it is positively charged inside, and is contracting.

A

Depolarized [- –> +]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

A cell is _______ when it is negatively charged inside, and is at rest.

A

Polarized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

______ occurs when a cell is going back to negative, and the cell is at rest.

A

Repolarization [+ –> -]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A cell is _______ when it is excessively negative, and the cell is inhibited.

A

Hyperpolarized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does depolarization mean?

A

Contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The sodium potassium pump pumps _____ out, and pumps _____ in.

A

Sodium; Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_______ results from inactivation of Ca2+ channels and opening of voltage-gated K+ channels.

A

Repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Within the extracellular fluid, the major cation is _____ and the major anion is _____.

A

Sodium; Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The major cation in the intracellular fluid is _____.

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A positive factor means what on the effect of the contraction?

A

It is increasing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A negative factor means what on the effect of the contraction?

A

It is decreasing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The vagus nerve (Parasympathetic) ______ heart rate.

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

______ cardiac nerves increase heart rate and force of contraction.

A

Sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

______ is due to both opening of Sodium (Na+) channels and closing of Potassium (K+) channels.

A

Depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Depolarization begins when the pacemaker potentials reaches ______, and the Ca2+ channels open.

A

Threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

______ is due to Ca2+ channels inactivating and K+ channels opening; this allows K+ efflux, which brings the membrane potential back to its most negative voltage.

A

Repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is known as the pacemaker?

A

Sinoatrial (SA) node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The ______ node impulses about 75 times per minute, and depolarizes faster than any other part of the myocardium.

A

1.) Sinoatrial (SA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The ______ node depolarizes 50 times per minute in absence of __ node input.

A

2.) Atrioventricular (AV); Sinoatrial (SA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The ______ is the only electrical connection between the atria and ventricles.

A

3.) Atrioventricular (AV) bundle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the two pathways in the interventricular septum that carry the impulses toward the apex of the heart?

A

4.) Right and left bundle branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Atrioventricular bundle and _____ depolarize only 30 times per minute in absence of Atrioventricular (AV) node input.

A

5.) Purkinje fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The _____ complete the pathway into the apex and ventricular walls, and depolarize the contractile cells of both ventricles.

A

Purkinje fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A defect in the intrinsic conduction system may result in irregular heart rhythms called what?

A

Arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A defect in the intrinsic conduction system may result in rapid, irregular contractions; useless for pumping blood called what?

A

Fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute is called what?

A

Cardiac Output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The cardiac output of ____ is between 5 and 6 liters.

A

Men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The cardiac output of ____ is between 4 and 5 liters.

A

Women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The blood cells that are responsible for the carrying of the the oxygen and nutrients are what?

A

Erythrocytes (RBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the formed components/elements of blood?

A

Leukocytes (WBCs); Erythrocytes (RBCs); and Thrombocytes (Platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the fluid components/elements of blood?

A

Plasma=90% water; 10% proteins=60% albumin, 36% globulins, 4% fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Of the 10% of protein that is in the plasma, 60% of it is what?

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If you are at an end-stage renal disease, what protein are you losing?

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What formed element of blood is responsible for blood clotting ability?

A

Thrombocytes (Platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are cell fragments called?

A

Thrombocytes (Platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What cell do the cell fragments come from?

A

Megacaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are Leukocytes responsible for?

A

Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the five classes of Leukocytes (WBCs) from greatest to least in number, even under healthy circumstances?

A

Neutrophils (50-70%), Lymphocytes (25-45%), Monocytes (3-8%), Eosinophils (2-4%), Basophils (0.5-1%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is different about Leukocytes?

A

They are the only complete cells with a nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An increase in WBCs that causes infection is called what?

A

Leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A decrease in WBCs that makes one susceptible to infection (low on protection) is called what?

A

Leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When responding to a bacterial infection, which class of Leukocytes is increased?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When responding to a viral infection, which class of Leukocytes is increased?

A

Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does an increase in atypical monocytes mean?

A

Suspect leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When responding to an allergen, which class of Leukocytes is increased?

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When responding to a parasitic worm infection, which class of Leukocytes is increased?

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What do the granules of Neutrophils contain?

A

Hydrolytic enzymes or defensins against bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is in the granules of Basophils?

A

Histamine, which acts as a vasodilator and attracts other WBCs to inflamed sites when responding to an allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the Erythrocyte disorder where there is an excess of RBCs that increase blood viscosity?

A

Polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which classes of Leukocytes are Granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, and Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

_______ are cytoplasmic granules that stain specifically with Wright’s stain. They are larger and shorter-lived than RBCs, and are also Phagocytic.

A

Granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which classes of Leukocytes are Agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes and Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

______ lack visible cytoplasmic granules and have spherical or kidney-shaped nuclei.

A

Agranulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the two types of Lymphocytes?

A
  • T cells: act against virus-infected cells and tumor cells

- B cells: give rise to plasma cells, which produce antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which is the largest of the five classes of Leukocytes?

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the Ph of blood?

A

About 7.4, meaning it is slightly basic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is one of the NEGATIVE inatrophic factors causing the heart to slow down or stop contracting where your blood turns acidic and may lead to cardiac arrest?

A

Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a CBC?

A

A complete blood count of Leukocytes (WBCs), Erythrocytes (RBCs), and Thrombocytes (Platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is it called when you have a deficient number of circulating platelets, causing an increased risk of hemorrhaging?

A

Thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does H & H stand for?

A

Hemoglobin & Hematocrit

60
Q

What is important about hemoglobin?

A

Oxygen is reversibly bound to the hemoglobin so that the RBCs can carry it to the tissue and release it

61
Q

What does hematocrit measure?

A

The Erythrocyte (RBC) percentage of a persons total amount of blood

62
Q

What is Erythropoiesis?

A

Red blood cell production where a hemocytoblast is transformed into a proerythroblast, which then develops into an early erythroblast

63
Q

What is Erythropoietin?

A

A hormone that is released from the kidneys to send a signal to the bone marrow to release Erythrocytes (RBCs)

64
Q

What is Leukopoietin?

A

A hormone that causes the release of Leukocytes (WBCs), due to an infection

65
Q

What is Thrombopoietin?

A

A hormone that regulates the formation of Thrombocytes (Platelets)

66
Q

A low hematocrit may lead to ______, meaning decreased amount of oxygen in tissues.

A

Hypoxia

67
Q

When hypoxia occurs, what does the body do to fix it?

A

Erythropoietin is released from the kidneys and sends a signal to the bone marrow to release RBCs to compensate for the oxygen that is lacking in the tissues.

68
Q

What are the three phases in development of erythropoieses?

A
  1. ) Ribosome synthesis
  2. ) Hemoglobin accumulation
  3. ) Ejection of the nucleus and formation of reticulocytes
69
Q

What is the average lifespan of Erythrocytes (RBCs) and what occurs at the end of their lifespan?

A

About 120 days; The RBCs become fragile and Hemoglobin begins to degenerate. Macrophages engulf dying RBCs in the spleen. Heme and glob in are separated, and the iron is salvaged for reuse, while the heme is secreted by the liver as waste, and the globin is metabolized into amino acids.

70
Q

How many blood types are there and what are they?

A

4; Type A, Type B, Type AB, and Type O

71
Q

If a person is Rh+, what do they have?

A

They have a glycoprotein that has been denoted with the letter D, which is dominant

72
Q

If a mother who is Rh- is pregnant with a child who is Rh+, what may occur?

A

The Rh- mother becomes sensitized when exposure to Rh+ blood causes her body to synthesize anti-Rh antibodies. The Anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the RBCs of an Rh+ baby, and may die

73
Q

During a Rh- woman’s first pregnancy where the Rh is incompatible, there is no _____ circulating in the mother because it is not an antibody that is made naturally.

A

Anti-D

74
Q

If a woman is pregnant with her first child and the Rh is incompatible, what will occur when there is a fetal maternal bleed during delivery?

A

She will make the Anti-D

75
Q

A Rh- woman who is pregnant with a second child after becoming sensitized by her first child who was Rh+ will be given _____, which is an antibody against the Anti-D.

A

RhoGAM

76
Q

What is RhoGAM?

A

An Anti-Anti-D used to neutralize the Anti-D so that it does not attack the D that the baby has.

77
Q

If a person is blood Type O, they will naturally make an Anti-___, and an Anti-___ because it is foreign.

A

A and B

78
Q

If a person is blood Type AB, what antigen do they naturally make?

A

Neither because they have both A and B

79
Q

Rh antigens do not produce a natural antibody unless what occurs?

A

A person has been exposed to it

80
Q

How is a persons blood type determined?

A

By the presence or absence of two agglutinogens (A and B) on the surface of the RBCs.

81
Q

Humans have __ varieties of naturally occurring RBC antigens.

A

30

82
Q

There are __ different Rh agglutinogens (Rh factors). Which are most common?

A

45; C, D, and E

83
Q

Why is it deadly to receive incompatible blood during a transfusion?

A

Your body works strenuously to fight off the incompatible blood, which may cause a person to bleed to death.

84
Q

Receiving an incompatible transfusion can lead to ______, which is widespread clotting that blocks intact blood vessels causing severe bleeding to occur through orifices because residual blood is unable to clot.

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

85
Q

What could happen if a persons blood is thicker or more viscous than it should be?

A

Clotting or Hypoxia (can’t get to the vessels or target organs)

86
Q

What is a traveling clot called?

A

Embolus (Emboli)

87
Q

What is a clot that develops and persists in an unbroken blood vessel?

A

Thrombus (Thrombi)

88
Q

What blood type is the universal donor, and why?

A

Type O- ; Because it does not contain antigens A, B, or D (O)

89
Q

What blood type is the universal recipient, and why?

A

Type AB+ ; Because it contains A, B, and D (O)

90
Q

What is the rarest blood type?

A

Type AB-

91
Q

What is the most common blood type?

A

O+

92
Q

What is the most common factor that is lacking for bleeding disorders?

A

Factor VIII (8)

93
Q

If a person has a deficiency of factor VIII (8), what do they have?

A

Hemophilia A

94
Q

What occurs due to a deficiency of factor IX (9)?

A

Hemophilia B

95
Q

What occurs due to a deficiency of factor XI (11)?

A

Hemophilia C

96
Q

What are the three steps for clotting at the site of blood vessel injury?

A
  1. ) Vascular spasm: smooth muscle contracts, causing vasoconstriction
  2. ) Platelet plug formation: injury to lining of vessel exposes collagen fibers; platelets adhere; Platelets release chemicals that make nearby platelets sticks; Platelet plug forms
  3. ) Coagulation: fibrin forms a mesh that traps red blood cells and platelets, forming the clot
97
Q

What are the three things needed for the phases of coagulation?

A

Must activate Prothrombin to convert into–>Thrombin to then catalyze the joining of–>Fibrinogen to then form a–>Fibrin mesh

  • Prothrombin –> Thrombin –> Fibrinogen –> Fibrin Mesh*
    1. ) Prothrombin activator is formed (intrinsic and extrinsic pathways)
    2. ) Prothrombin is converted into thrombin
    3. ) Thrombin catalyzes the joining of fibrinogen to form a fibrin mesh
98
Q

A bleeding disorder can occur due to what?

A

A lack of factors, or diluted factors

99
Q

Clots can be naturally dissolved by what process?

A

Fibrinolysis

100
Q

If a person is unable to lyse a clot, they are given _____.

A

Blood thinners, such as: Heparin, Cuminin, Warfarin, Aspirin, etc.

101
Q

Why does aspirin work as a blood thinner?

A

It contains acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)

102
Q

What happens if a clot travels to the brain?

A

An ischemic stroke

103
Q

What happens if there is a hemorrhage in the brain?

A

A hemorrhagic stroke

104
Q

What is the only treatment for someone who has an ischemic stroke?

A

Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA)

105
Q

What does the Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA) do?

A

Converts the plasminogen in the clot to plasmin to dissolve the clot and hopefully restore blood flow to the brain

106
Q

What specifically causes the “lub” sound associated with the closing of heart valves?

A

The first sound (“lub”) occurs as the Atrialventricular Valves (Tricuspid & Bicuspid/Mitral) close, and signifies the beginning of systole(contraction).

107
Q

What specifically causes the “dup” sound associated with the closing of heart valves?

A

The second sound (“dup”) occurs when the Semilunar Valves (Aortic & Pulmonary) close at the beginning of ventricular diastole.

108
Q

What are the two Atrialventricular Valves?

A

Tricuspid & Bicuspid/Mitral Valves

109
Q

What are the two Semilunar Valves?

A

Aortic & Pulmonary Valves

110
Q

What does the right side of the heart do?

A

Pulmonary Circulation

111
Q

What does the left side of the heart do?

A

Systemic Circulation

112
Q

Which side of the heart pumps with greater force?

A

The left side, but pumps the same volume of blood as the right side

113
Q

Which side of the heart has a thicker myocardial wall and is therefore thicker?

A

The left side

114
Q

_______ increases heart rate and contractility.

A

Epinephrin

115
Q

_______ causes the pacemaker to fire more rapidly (and at the same time increases contractility).

A

Norepinephrine

116
Q

What is the function of pulmonary circulation?

A

It carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart, to the lungs, and returns oxygenated (oxygen-rich) blood back to the heart. [Carries blood to and from the lungs] Deoxygenated away from the heart, to the lungs, returns oxygenated back to the heart

117
Q

What is the function of systemic circulation?

A

It carries oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body, and returns deoxygenated blood back to the heart. [Carries the blood to and from all body tissues] Carries Oxygenated from heart to body, returns deoxygenated back to heart

118
Q

Positive chronotropic factors ______ heart rate.

A

Increase

119
Q

Negative chronotropic factors ______ heart rate.

A

Decrease

120
Q

What is the condition where the cardiac output is so low that blood circulation is inadequate to meet tissue needs? Caused by: coronary atherosclerosis, persistent high blood pressure, multiple myocardial infarcts, and dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)

A

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

121
Q

What do the P Waves represent?

A

Depolarization of the SA Node; Atrial Depolarization/Contraction

122
Q

What do the QRS Waves represent?

A

Ventricular Depolarization/Contraction

123
Q

What do the T Waves represent?

A

Ventricular Repolarization

124
Q

A(n) ______ is a composite of all the action potentials generated by nodal and contractile cells at a given time. What are the three waves?

A

Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG);

P Waves, QRS Waves, T Waves

125
Q

Depolarization means that the heart is _____.

A

Contracting

126
Q

Repolarization means that the heart is in what state?

A

Going back to its resting state

127
Q

Being polarized means that the heart is ______.

A

At rest

128
Q

Hyperpolarized means that the heart has been _____.

A

Inhibited

129
Q

Increased extracellular potassium (K+) decreases contractility of the heart, resulting in ______.

A

Hyperpolarization

130
Q

POSITIVE inotropic agents that increase contractility include what?

A

Increased Ca2+ influx, thryoxine, glucagon, and epinephrine

131
Q

NEGATIVE inotropic agents that decrease contractility include what?

A

Acidosis, increased extracellular K+, and Calcium channel blockers

132
Q

_____ give cytoplasm a lilac color.

A

Neutrophils

133
Q

_____ are large, dark-purple, circular nuclei with a thin rim of blue cytoplasm.

A

Lymphocytes

134
Q

_____ are abundant pale-blue cytoplasm; dark purple-staining, U or kidney-shaped nuclei.

A

Monocytes

135
Q

_____ are red-staining, bilobed nuclei.

A

Eosinophils

136
Q

_____ are large, purplish-black granules contain histamine.

A

Basophils

137
Q

Below 7 means _____.

A

Acidic

138
Q

Above 7 means _____.

A

Basic

139
Q

______ increases RBCs, and can enhance performance by increased oxygen.

A

Testosterone

140
Q

Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid are necessary for what?

A

DNA synthesis for cell division

141
Q

_____ are measurable, _____ are not.

A

Signs; Symptoms

142
Q

If you are low on calcium, you are _____.

A

Hypocalcemic

143
Q

Atrial fibrillation is shown by many __ waves.

A

P

144
Q

Cardiac output= _____ x _____

A

Heart Rate x Stroke Volume

145
Q

_____ is the number of beats per minute.

A

Heart Rate

146
Q

_____ is the volume of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each beat.

A

Stroke Volume

147
Q

Systole=_____; Diastole=______

A

Contraction; Relaxation

148
Q

____ are valve defects.

A

Heart murmurs

From Flashcardlet (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions