A&P Exam 2 Flashcards
(273 cards)
1
Q
what are large arteries called?
A
elastic conducting arteries
2
Q
what are medium arteries called?
A
muscular distributing arteries
3
Q
what are small arteries called?
A
resistance arteries or arterioles
4
Q
what are small veins called? medium veins?
A
post capillary venues, and muscular venues
5
Q
what makes up the tunica intima
A
simple squamous epithelium cells, the basement membrane, and in arteries an internal elastic membrane
6
Q
what makes up the tunica media?
A
smooth muscle, collagen, elastic fibers, and external elastic membrane in arteries
7
Q
what is the tunica externa or adventita made of?
A
lost connective tissue and the vasa vasorum
8
Q
describe the elastic (conducting arteries, where are they located?
A
in the pulmonary trunk, aorta, carotids, subclavian arteries, common iliac arteries. they are pressure reservoirs
9
Q
describe muscular (distributing) arteries
A
they distribute blood to specific organs, have a thicker tunica media in proportion to their lumen
10
Q
describe arterioles
A
no elastic laminae, has little tunica externa, has a thicker tunica media compared to elastic arteries (proportionally), and have the greatest point of control over where the blood is distributed
11
Q
where is the pressure largest in the veins and arteries?
A
the largest veins and arteries
12
Q
which veins/arteries have the most elastic fibers?
A
the larger ones
13
Q
which veins/arteries have more smooth muscle?
A
venules and arterioles
14
Q
atherosclerosis
A
hardening of large conducting arteries due to a buildup of plaque in the vessels
15
Q
what allows for diffusion within capillaries?
A
simple squamous epithelium
16
Q
describe precapillary sphincters
A
they regulate flow into “true” capillaries, are made up of single smooth muscle cells, allow for the micromanagement of volume in capillary beds, and controls routing of blood through organs.
17
Q
what occurs when pre capillary sphincters relax? contract?
A
when they relax, they allow perfusion through the capillaries, when they contract, they block the blood from going through the capillary bed and bypass it.
18
Q
describe continuous capillaries
A
they’re the least permeable, most common, have tight junctions which hold endothelial cells together, and have intercellular clefts
19
Q
describe fenestrated capillaries
A
hold large amount of materials that need to be rapidly filtered, are in the kidneys and small intestines
20
Q
describe sinusoid capillaries
A
the most permeable capillary, don’t have a basement membrane, large molecules/entire cells move in an out of circulation, are in spleen, bone marrow, and liver
21
Q
what are some characteristics of veins and venules?
A
large lumen, low pressure, slow (steady) flow, blood reservoirs
22
Q
describe muscular venules
A
1-2 layers of smooth muscle in tunica media, have a thin tunica externa
23
Q
describe medium veins
A
have a thin tunica media, and thick tunica externa, tunica interns forms the venous valves (varicose veins form as a result of not forming these valves)
24
Q
what propels venous blood back to the heart?
A
skeletal muscle pump
25
large veins contain
smooth muscle in all 3 tunics, relatively thin tunica media with a moderate amount of smooth muscle, have tunica externa as the thickest later
26
what is the portal system?
there are 2 capillary beds before blood returns to the heart. can be found as the intestines go to the liver, in the kidneys, and between the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary
27
describe anastomosis
there are no capillary beds but rather 2 vessels converging, acting as a bypass route around a capillary bed, common around joints
28
describe atriovenous anastomosis (shunt)
artery flows directly into a vein, bypassing capillaries
29
describe venous anastomosis
most common, has a vein empty directly into another, and is the reason vein blockage is less serious than arterial
30
arterial anastomosis
2 arteries merge, is an alternate route of blood supply, coronary circulation and common around joints
31
aorta receives full force of blood exiting the heart during ventricular systole, what allows aorta to do this?
elastic fibers are extensive in the aorta which helps dampen the pressure generated by the heart
32
fluid that filters out of the capillaries is tightly regulated to prevent pathogens and toxic materials from damaging nervous tissue. what class of capillaries is found in the brain?
continuous capillaries
33
red bone marrow allows new blood cells to enter circulation, what type of capillaries are found?
sinusoid capillaries
34
define perfusion
the flow/given volume or mass of tissue in a given time
35
hemodynamics
principles of blood flow based on pressure and resistance. flow is proportional to the change in pressure(gradient) over resistance
36
what allows blood to be propelled through vessels?
the pressure gradient
37
pulse pressure
systolic- diastolic, pressure in arteries + heart contraction, reflects elasticity and recoil of arteries
38
mean arterial pressure
1/3PP +DP, average BP across entire cardiac cycle
39
what is it called when MAP is less than 60? greater than 160?
insufficient blood flow, and cerebral edema
40
capillary blood pressure is high enough for _____ but low enough to ____
efficient exchanges of substances, not damage blood vessels
41
is venous pressure high or low?
low
42
does venous pressure have a pressure gradient?
yes but it's small
43
what does the venous return of blood to the heart depend on
it's small pressure gradient, gravity from head to neck, skeletal muscle pump, and respiratory pump
44
describe the skeletal muscle pump
as the muscle contracts, the veins are squeezed which pushes the blood upward and the valves prevent back flow. the blood moves more quickly during exercise and blood pooling occurs when there is prolonged inactivity
45
describe the respiratory pump
when you inhale, the intrathoracic pressure (chest) decreases as the volume in the chest increases, the diaphragm contracts, abdomen pressure increases, and the blood moves up to the heart, the opposite happens during expiration
46
during exercise, what happens to the skeletal muscles, lungs, and heart
they dilate their vessels and increase flow
47
why does venous pooling occur?
the pressure isn't enough to force blood upwards, with prolonged standing, cardiac output can be low enough to cause dizziness
48
how can venous pooling be prevented?
tensing leg muscles, activating the skeletal muscle pump
49
where is the arterial BP measured?
the brachial artery
50
at what BP is hypertension at? what are the effects of it?
resting BP is greater than 140/90, can weaken arteries, cause aneurysms, promote atherosclerosis
51
what if there is no blood flow or resistance?
there is no pressure
52
the equation for blood pressure
CO (HR*SV) * TPR
53
what is TPR
resistance of blood in blood vessels
54
smaller radius equals
more resistance
55
longer vessels equal
more resistance
56
flow is fast in ___ and slower near ___
center, vessel wall
57
vessel length changes with ____ and ____
weight gain (angiogenesis- forming new BV) and weight loss (vessel regression)
58
viscosity is measured by
an increase in hematocrit
59
what are the steps of regulating blood pressure?
stimulus, receptors, sensory (impulses), integrating center, effent pathway, and effectors
60
when BP is high what sensory impulses are stimulated? inhibited? what about when BP is low?
when BP is high, cardioinhibitory center is stimulated and cardioaccelerator center and vasomotor center is inhibited. When it's low, they're flipped
61
what does the cardiac center do?
regulate heart rate, contractility, and cardiac output
62
what does vasomotor center regulate?
vasodilation and vasoconstriction which is stimulated when BP is high and low, respectively
63
what does the sympathetic pathway do?
## Footnote
check the accuracy
decrease heart rate, contractility, cardiac output, returning BP to normal range
64
what is the pathway that increases heart rate, contraction, and stroke volume?
cardioaccelatory > sympathetic > cardiac nerve
65
what is the pathway that decreases heart rate?
cardioinhibitory > parasympathetic > via vagus nerve
66
vasomotor center contracts what?
the smooth muscle in tunica media when determining whether to dilate or constrict the vessels
67
explain the complete process of an elevated BP to a reduced one
the arteries get stretched which alarm the baroreceptors to increase firing rate which stimulates the cardioinhibitory neurons and inhibits the vasomotor center. the cardioinhibitory neurons increase the vagal tone and reduce heart rate while the vasomotor center reduces sympathetic tone, the vasomotor tone (dilating vessels) and leading to a reduced BP
68
why does vasoconstriction lead to an increase in BP?
there's more resistance, which increases the blood volume, and increases the pressure
69
more blood flow means a ___ cardiac output which means ___, and a ____ in resistance, which means _____
increase, steeper pressure gradient, decrease, vasodilation, reducing the vessel length, and less blood viscosity
70
less blood flow means a ___ cardiac output which means ___, and a ____ in resistance, which means _____
decrease, smaller pressure gradients, increase, vasoconstriction, increasing vessel length, and more blood viscosity
71
blood flow is directly related to ___ but inversely related to ____
pressure gradient, resistance
72
atherosclerosis involves a ___ in resistance leading to a ____ in arterial pressure to _____
increase, increase, maintain adequate blood flow
73
why does BP increase as we age?
arteries get "hard" and absorb less systolic force
74
what are the 2 mechanisms of capillary exchange?
diffusion and transcytosis
75
describe diffusion
is the most common form of capillary exchange as molecules go through the plasma membrane or through passages like intercellular clefts and fenestrations
76
describe transcytosis
vesicle-mediated transport. moves materials across the membrane through pinocytosis or receptor-mediated and released by exocytosis
77
what are the 2 driving forces of capillary exchange?
hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure
78
what is hydrostatic pressure?
force by fluid against the surface
79
describe blood HP
force by blood on vessel wall, promotes filtration, and the pressure decreases as it moves from arterial to venous
80
interstitial fluid
force by ISF on the outside of vessel, is typically 0 mmHg
81
describe colloid pressure
the "pull" on water due to proteins
82
blood COP
draws fluid into blood due to proteins, promotes reabsorption and has constant pressure from arterial to venous
83
interstitial COP
draws fluid from ISF (few proteins), about 0-5mmHg
84
absorption is on the ___ end and filtration is on the ___ end
venous, arterial
85
what is the equation for net filtration pressure (NFP)
HP-COP
86
what are some variations to the typical capillary exchange system?
there's location variations like the alveoli of lungs deal with mostly reabsorption and situational variations like high activity increasing filtration
87
what happens to the fluid that isn't absorbed by capillaries?
it gets absorbed by the lymphatic system, filtered, and returned to the blood (venous circulation)
88
what is edema?
accumulation of excess fluid in a tissue, when filtration > reabsorption
89
what are the 3 primary causes of edema?
increase capillary filtration, decreased capillary reabsorption, obstructed lymphatic drainage
90
describe increased capillary filtration in relation to edema
kidney failure, high histamine, and poor venous return which results in heart failure and old age
91
what results from decreased capillary reabsorption
hypoproteinemia, dietary protein deficiency, and liver disease
92
how does edema affect the body?
there's tissue necrosis as there's reduced O2 being delivered and waste being removed, pulmonary edema which shortness of breath, cerebral edema with headaches, seizures, and coma, and circulatory shock
93
describe how blood protects the body
they play a role in inflammation, WBC destroy microorganisms and cancer cells, antibodies neutralize toxins, and help destroy pathogens, start blood clotting
93
blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to
proteins in the blood, it promotes reabsorption
94
what are the 3 functions of blood
transport, protection, and regulation and homeostasis
95
describe how blood regulates homeostasis
maintains body temp, body pH, and fluid balance
95
what is blood composed of?
55% plasma, 45% formed elements, and 1% Buffy coat
96
what do formed elements contain?
WBC, RBC, and platelets
97
what is plasma made up of (include percentages)
95% water, 7% proteins like albumins, globulins, fibrinogen, and regulatory proteins, and 1% of electrolytes, nutrients, respiratory gases, and waste
98
describe albumins
makes up 60% of the proteins in the plasma, are the smallest in size among the otherproteins, exert greatest COP on vessels, act as transport proteins for some lipids, hormones, and ions, and buffers blood pH
98
albumin contributes greatly to what
blood viscosity
98
what is the Buffy coat made up of?
platelets and leukocytes
99
globulins make up what percent of the proteins in plasma?
37%
100
what are globulins
proteins that transport some water-ion molecules, hormones, metals, and ions, and have smaller alpha-globulins and larger beta-globulins and gamma-globulins which include antibodies which combat pathogens
100
regulatory proteins include what
enzymes and hormones, are less than 1% of total proteins
101
describe fibrinogen and its function
makes up 4% of plasma, contributes to blood clotting
102
beta-globulin like transferrin transports what
iron
102
what's serum?
plasma that has no clotting proteins so fibrinogen wouldn't be included in its mixture
103
alpha-globulins like ceruloplasmin transports what
copper
104
alpha-globulin like heptoglobulin transports what
hemoglobin released by erythrocytes
105
what stimulates hematopoiesis
colony-stimulating factors (CSFs_
106
what are hemocytoblasts
stem cells
107
what does it mean to be pluripotent?
able to differentiate into many different types of cells
108
the lymphoid line forms what?
lymphocytes
108
what does the myeloid line form?
erythrocytes, leukocytes, megakaryocytes (for platelets)
109
what type of respiration do erythrocytes do?
anaerobic cellular respiration
109
erythrocytes lack what
a mitochondria, nucleus, and DNA
110
what give erythrocytes their identity
glycoproteins and glycolipids which determine blood types
111
what cytoskeletal proteins are included in erythrocytes?
spectrin and actin, giving it flexibility and resilience, not rigidity
112
what color does hemoglobin become when oxygenated? deoxygenated?
bright red, dark red
113
each hemoglobin consists of 4 polypeptide subunits, 2 ___, 2 ____ in adults and 2 ____ and 2____ in babies
alpha, beta, alpha, gamma
114
hemoglobin has a ___ ring, a structure that allows for an iron binding site in the middle
polyphyrin
115
why do men have more RBCs than women?
men have more testosterone but women also go through menstruation, allowing for more blood loss
116
how many RBCs are made per day?
1 million
117
how long do RBCs last?
120 days
118
why can't RBCs regenerate?
they don't have a nucleus which prevents proteins and other structures to be repaired and produced
119
what are the stages of erythropoiesis
HPPENRE
happy people pretend to entertain normal regular entities
homocytoblast/myeloid stem cell responds to multi-CSF -> progenitor cell -> proerythroblast (committed cell) -> erythroblast (ribosome and Hb synthesis) -> normoblast (Hb accumulation, no nucleus) -> reticulocyte (nucleus ejected, no more organelles) -> erythrocyte (ribosomes have degenerated)
120
how long does the entire process of making a RBC take?
3-5 days
121
where are RBCs made regularly? before a baby is born?
before the 5th month, they're made in the liver, after it's in the bone marrow
122
when is erythropoietin (EPO) made?
when there's a decrease in blood oxygen
123
what stimulates production of RBC
testosterone until levels are high
124
when is EPO produced more?
at high altitudes since there's less O2 and and you'll be inhaling more and more RBCs would compensate for this
125
where is most of the body's iron found?
in the RBCs
126
where else is iron mostly found?
in plasma, bound to transferrin, and in cells bound to ferritin and hemosiderin
127
what is vitamin B12 and folic acid used in the cell for?
DNA synthesis and cell division
128
why are vitamin C and copper needed?
they're cofactors for enzymes making Hb
128
what happens when RBCs are in the process of dying
they become fragile, degenerate their Hb, and disintegrate their spectrin
129
where do RBCs get stuck in? what digests them?
the sinusoids of spleen and liver macrophages
130
polycythemia
excessive RBCs
130
what does hemoglobin break down into
heme and globin groups
131
what does the heme group become
iron which gets stored or reused OR becomes biliverdin -> bilirubin -> blood -> liver -> bile -> gallbladder (and released during digestion) -> small intestine -> uribilinogen -> EITHER stereobilin -> feces OR urobilin -> urine
132
what does globin get broken down into?
amino acids
133
primary polycythemia
marrow cancer
134
secondary polycythemia
includes dehydration, emphysema (destruction of alveoli), high altitudes, and physical conditioning
135
dangers of polycythemia
increased blood volume, pressure, and viscosity
136
anemia
decreased oxygen-capacity of blood
137
what is considered anemia
insufficient RBC count and low Hb content of RBCs, and abnormal Hb
138
pernicious anemia
from iron deficiency, and an autoimmune intrinsic factor deficiency, deficient in B12
139
aplastic
defective red bone marrow leading to an insufficient RBC count
140
what does sickle-cell anemia fall into?
abnormal Hb
141
hemolytic
congenital, at birth has ani insufficient RBC count
142
hemorrhagic
acute or chronic insufficient RBC count
143
antigen
identity marker that allows differentiation between cells and non-cells
144
antibodies
bind to antigens, marking them for destruction
145
how long do platelets circulate the blood
8-10 days, then get broken down and recycled
146
what do the granular platelets contain?
thromboxane A2, serotonin, CA2+, platelet-derived growth factor (POGF)
147
what is the process of forming platelets
myeloid stem cell is activated by multi-CSF -> progenitor cell -> megakaryoblast -> megakaryocytic -> pro-platelets -> platelets
148
hemostasis
stoppage of bleeding
149
describe vascular spasm
the SQUEEZE part of hemostasis, blood vessel constricts to limit blood loss, reducing blood flow to reduce amount of blood loss, platelets and endothelial cells release thromboxane A2 to constrict further
150
platelet plug formation
the PLUG, collagen fibers attract platelets to adhere to it
151
coagulation phase/blood clotting
the CLOT, coagulation cascade converts inactive proteins to active, fibrin strand of blood clot
152
which is the volume reservoirs?
large veins, greater amount of blood than arteries
153
powerful vasoconstrictors are
angiotensin II and norepinephrine
153
which is the pressure reservoirs?
conducting arteries since they can expand
154
as you go away from the heart, what is seen less and more?
less elastic tissue and more smooth muscle
155
vascular spasms limits what
blood leakage
156
greater injury means
greater constriction
157
is platelet plug formation activated when there's no injury?
nope
158
how do endothelial cells prevent platelets from adhering to each other?
they secrete Nitric Oxide and prostacyclin (prostaglandin I2) (PGI2) (an eicosanoid)
159
where are there more proteins? ISF or inside capillaries?
inside capillaries
160
if BP is elevated, is net filtration pressure above or below normal?
above, high BP, high blood volume or water exerting more force on walls, forced to filter out more
161
less proteins in blood to pull water back into capillaries... (less pulling on water)
more fluid than usual flowing out
162
what is released from prolonged muscle spasms?
serotonin and thromboxane A2
163
what is released from stimulation of coagulation?
procoagulants
164
what is released to attract other platelets?
ADP and thromboxane A2
165
helper T cells do not
secrete fever-producing chemicals
165
what is most likely going to cause anemia
renal disease as EPO is the main stimulant to produce RBCs and is made in the kidneys, without EPO, there are no RBCs
166
helper T cells do
secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of B cells
secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of cytotoxic T cells
secrete cytokines that stimulate macrophage activity
secrete inflammatory chemicals
167
fibrin
structural basis of a clot, causes the plasma to be gel0-like to trap formed elements
168
what is clot retraction when eliminating a clot?
platelets, actin, and myosin pull on the fibrin, tightening strands and squeezing serum from the clot
169
plasmin
(fibrinolysin) is a clot dissolver, an enzyme that slowly degrades fibrin
170
bradykinin
vasodilator, reverses activity of thromboxane A2 and serotonin
171
what's the intrinsic (contact activation) pathway?
factors XII (platelets) -> XI -> IX -> VIII
172
what's the extrinsic (tissue factor) pathway initiated by?
damage to tissue, and outside the vessel
173
what's the extrinsic (tissue factor) pathway?
damaged tissues -> factor III + Factor VII + Ca2+
174
What is the common pathway
factor X -> Factor II + Ca2+, V, PF3 -> prothrombin activator + prothrombin (II) -> thrombin -> factor V back to prothrombin activator OR fibrinogen (I) -> fibrin + Factor XIII, Ca2+ -> fibrin polymer
175
what is the process of going from fibrinogen to fibrin
thrombin (and fibrinogen) make fibrin polymer but also contributes plasmin as well as plasminogen and tPA which combines with fibrin polymer to make fibrin fragments
176
what is a thromboemolytic disorder describing
a hyper coagulation problem that has undesirable clot formation leading to embolus, stroke and heart attack
177
how are thromboemolytic disorders inhibited?
Coumadin, heparin, aspirin
178
coumadin
warfarin, vitamin K inhibitor (one of the requirements for clotting)
179
heparin
natural anticoagulant released by mast cells of immune system
180
hemophilia (a and b)
inherited disorder where enzymes form procoagulants leading to uncontrolled bleeding
180
aspirin
inhibits thromboxane A2 formation
181
uncontrolled bleeding has a reduced synthesis of what
procoagulants
182
thrombocytopenia
platelet deficiency, secondary to chemotherapy and radiation
183
margination
adheres to capillary walls
183
neutrophil function
phagocytosis
183
diapedesis
squeezes through blood vessel wall
184
what enzyme destroys fibrin in a degrading blood clot?
plasmin
184
do leukocytes carry hemoglobin?
no
185
chemotaxis
attraction to chemicals at an infection site
185
eosinophil function
phagocytosis, defense against parasites
186
basophils
release histamine and heparin
187
which of the leukocytes are granulocytes? agranulocytes?
gran is neutrophil, eosinophils, and basophils, agran is lymphocytes and monocytes
188
lymphocytes function
antibody production, attack infected cells
189
monocyte function
phagocytosis
190
leukemia
abnormal development and proliferation of leukocytes, high WBC but cells are immature and non-functional, there's a decrease in erythrocyte and megakaryotic lines
191
leukocytosis
increase amount of leukocytes due a normal response to bacterial infection
191
what are the results of leukemia
anemia and bleeding
191
myeloid line develops what cells
granulocytes and monocytes
192
leukopenia
decrease in leukocytes due to radiation therapy, chemo, meds, etc.
193
lymphocytosis
increase in lymphocytes due to viral infections, chronic bacterial infections, and leukemias
194
eosinophilia
increase in eosinophils due to allergy or parasitic infection
194
neutrophilia
increase in neutrophils due to association with bacterial infection, stress, and tissue necrosis
195
neutropenia
decrease in neutrophils due to anemia symptoms, drug/radiation therapy
196
leukemia
increase in abnormal leukocytes due to cancer of hematopoeitic tissue
197
what is the fluid recovery function of the lymphatic system?
the excess fluid from capillary exchange goes to the blood to maintain blood volume
198
how much water and plasma protein enter the lymphatic system and are returned to the blood?
15% and half of plasma proteins
199
primary lymphoid structure includes
bone marrow and thymus
200
secondary lymphoid structure
spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils
201
lymph is similar to what
plasma but with less proteins and can contain cell debris, pathogens, or cancer cells
202
are lymphatic capillaries larger or smaller than blood capillaries
slightly larger
203
what are lymphatic capillaries called in the GI tract
lacteals
204
the primary lymphoid structure is involved in
forming and maturing lymphocytes with bone marrow have B and T lymphocyte production and B maturation while thymus has T lympho maturation
205
the secondary lymphoid structure
houses lymphocytes and other immune cells and is the site of immune response initiation
206
MALT
mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue
207
spleen stores what, also does what?
RBCs and platelets, filters and monitors blood, not lymph
208
tonsil function
immune surveillance of inhaled and ingested substances
209
when an enemy cell is present, ___ secretes perforins
Natural killer cell
210
basophils of blood help get defensive leukocytes to site quickly by releasing an anti-coagulant called ____ and a vasodilator _____
heparin, histamine
211
cytokines
small protein messengers that regulate immune activity, even signaling non-immune cells, such as inflammation, and destroys cells
212
cytokines control of the development and behavior of what
immune cells
213
first line of defense includes what
mechanical and chemical barriers
214
second line of defense
selected immune cells, antimicrobial proteins, inflammation, and fever
215
third line of defense
b and t lymphocytes
216
what role does the skin play in protecting the body?
the epidermis can exfoliate and remove potential pathogens, the dermis has hyaluronic acid and limits the spread of microbes, the oil glands is low in pH which interferes with microbial growth and sweat glands wash away microbes
216
adapted (acquired) immunity includes
t and b lymphocytes
216
innate immunity includes
skin and mucosal membranes and internal defenses like immune cells, chemicals, and physiological responses
217
how does the mucosal membrane help protect the body?
produce mucus and release antimicrobial substances, the cilia in the respiratory tract, saliva in GI, and acid in the stomach, the mucus traps the microbes, and connective tissue has hyaluronic acid which limits the spread of microbes
218
interleukin cytokine
regulates immune cells, comes from t-lymph, macrophages, endothelial cells--- IL-3
219
tumor necrosis factor TNF
destroys tumor cells, from t-lymphs, macrophages, mast cells, and dendrites (TNF-greek)
220
colony-stimulaitng factor (CSF)
stimulates leukopoiesis in bone marrow to increase synthesis of a colony of leukocytes, t=lymph, and monocytes
221
interferons IFN
messes with the replication of pathogens that enter the cell, from infected cells, NK, and t-lymph
222
NK cell
apoptosis-initiating cell that releases perforin and granzyme to form a transmembrane pore on an unhealthy or unwanted cell, and the granzymes cause the cell to die
223
basophils
release histamine (vasodilator which increase capiillary permeability), heparin (anticoagulant), and eicosanoids (increase inflammation)
224
eosinophils
parasite-destroying cell that degranulate, release enzymes, and trigger transmembrane pores in the parasite, phagocytize the antigen-antibody complexes
225
phagocytic cells include
neutrophils, macrophages, and dendritic cells
226
inferons
an infected cell will release IFN-alpha and beta to alert normal cells to start interfering with virus replication so they're protected while also sending the signal to an NK cell to release IFN-gamma to activate a macrophage and eat the infected cell while also releasing chemicals that call for the infected cell's own destruction
227
complement proteins increase _____ by activating cells
inflammation
228
complement proteins eliminate immune complexes by linking them to ___ and stripped by ____
erythrocyte and macrophage
229
complement proteins undergo opsonization--
protein becomes an opsin "red flag" by binding to pathogen to enhance its phagocytosis
230
cytolysis
forms a pore in the membrane to cause cytolysis by a rapid-inflow of water and ions into foreign cell (osmotic rupture)
231
what are the steps of inflammation
releasing inflammatory factors like mast cells and basophils, vasodilation, increasing capillary permeability, and recruit leukocytes to perform chemotaxis, delivery of plasma proteins to the cut
232
steps of a fever
infection and pyrogen secretion, hypothalamic thermostat reset, body temp rises, body temp oscillates around a new set point, infection ends and set point is normal, defervescence (body temp is normal)
233
cytotoxic t-lymphocyte
releases perforin and granzymes to an abnormal cell to stimulate cell death
234
characteristics of non-specific internal defenses
local effect, lacks memory
234
t-lymphocytes
cell-mediated immunity, fights antigens inside of cells, antigen-presenting cell is required
235
helper t-lymphocyte
releases cytokines
236
b-lymphocytes
anti-body mediated immunity, fights antigens outside of cells, no antigen-presenting cell required, proliferates and makes memory cells
237
precipitation
antigen-antibody complex binds to soluble antigens
238
agglutination
antigen-antibody complex binds to antigens already bound bacteria
239
neutralization
antigen-antibody complex binds and antigen loses their toxic properties
240
complement activation leads to
cell lysis
241
complement activation enhances
phagocytosis and inflammation
242
characteristics of adaptive immunity
has systemic effects, has specificity, and has memory
243
what alters antigen membranes making them more susceptible to phagocytosis
opsonization
244
what helps prevent the spread of antigens
inflammation
245
natural active immunity
direct exposure to infectious agent
246
active acquired immunity
stimulating one's own immune cells to produce their own antibodies to fight an antigen, production of memory cells due to initial contact with antigen
247
passive acquired immunity
ready-made antibodies to clear out the antigen, no production of memory cells and no stimulation of the immune system
248
artificial active immunity
immunizations/vaccines
249
natural passive immunity
maternal antibodies from breastmilk or placenta
250
artificial passive immunity
antibodies from other sources like serum with AB from another person or animal
