A&P General Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
What term is used where a computer is used in thee design and drafting process?
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
Computer Aided Design and Drafting (CADD)
2
Q
Three classes of working drawings:
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
Detail
Assembly
Installation
3
Q
A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought together on the aircraft is called an _______.
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
Installation drawing
4
Q
The title block is usually located in which corner?
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
Lower right-hand corner
5
Q
A specific measured distance from the datum or some other point identified by the manufacture, to a point in or on the aircraft is called a _______.
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
Station number
6
Q
Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are used to locate _____, _____, and _____ on large drawings.
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
Parts
Sections
Views
7
Q
How many views are most common on an orthographic projection?
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
One, two, or three view drawings are the most common
8
Q
A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a ______ line.
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
Hidden line
9
Q
When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches +.005 -.002.
What is the minimum acceptable size?
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
4.385 inches
10
Q
Sketches are usually made easier by the use of ______.
a. artist paper
b. a variety of templates
c. plain white paper
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
b. a variety of templates
11
Q
For sketching purposes, what are the two basic shapes that almost all objects are composed of?
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
Circles
Rectangles
12
Q
Which statement is applicable when using a sketch for making a part?
a. The sketch must show all information to manufacture the part
b. The sketch need not show all necessary construction details
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
a. The sketch must show all information to manufacture the part
13
Q
What should be the first step of the procedure in sketching an aircraft wing skin repair?
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
Block in the views
14
Q
In what sizes is microfilm available?
2 - Aircraft Drawings
A
16-mm
35-mm
15
Q
The boiling point of a given liquid varies _____ with pressure.
3 - Physics
A
Directly with pressure
16
Q
Water in an elevated reservoir and an airplane raised of the ground sitting on jacks are an example of what classification of energy?
3 - Physics
A
Potential energy
17
Q
An engine that weighs 350 lbs is removed from an aircraft by a hoist. Engine is raised 3 ft and then moved forward 12 ft. A constant force of 70 lbs is required to move the loaded hoist. What is the total work input required to move the hoist?
3 - Physics
A
840 foot pounds
18
Q
How much work input is required to lower (not drop) a 120 pound weight from the top of a 3 foot table to the floor?
3 - Physics
A
360 foot pounds
19
Q
What is the force needed to push a 1600 lb airplane up t 6 inch tall ramp (resistance arm) and the length of the ramp is 24 inches (effort arm)
3 - Physics
A
400 pounds
20
Q
What stress is applied to an object when the force tries to cut or slice though?
3 - Physics
A
Shear
21
Q
What stress acting on an object is great enough that it can cause the object to change its shape or to become distorted?
3 - Physics
A
Strain
22
Q
What term describes the rate of motion in a particular direction?
3 - Physics
A
Velocity
23
Q
What term describes the rate of change of velocity?
3 - Physics
A
Acceleration
24
Q
What is Newton’s first law of motion?
3 - Physics
A
Objects at rest tend to remain at rest and objects in motion tend to remain in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, unless acted on by an external force
25
Temperature is a measure of _____ energy of the molecules of any substance.
3 - Physics
Kinetic energy
26
What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level?
3 - Physics
29.92 Hg
27
What Law states that all gases expand and contract in direction proportion to thee change in absolute temperature, provided the pressure is held constant?
3 - Physics
Charles' Law
28
Which Law is used to calculate piston movement in a hydraulic system?
3 - Physics
Pascal's Law
29
Which Principle involves a venture?
3 - Physics
Bernoulli's Principle
30
When air flows over the top of the wing, air speed _____ and static pressure _____.
3 - Physics
Air speed increases
| Static pressure decreases
31
The speed of sound in the atmosphere changes with a change in _____.
3 - Physics
Temperature
32
What is the phenomenon that occurs when a particular rpm stresses the propeller to where it will come apart?
3 - Physics
Resonance
33
What is the standard day atmospheric pressure (psi)?
3 - Physics
14.7 psi
34
What condition is the actual amount of water vapor in a mixture of air and water?
3 - Physics
Absolute humidity
35
What is the ratio of water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure?
3 - Physics
Relative humidity
36
The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at a constant pressure to become saturated is _____.
3 - Physics
Dewpoint
37
When are privately owned aircraft weighed?
4 - Weight and Balance
When originally certificated, or after major alterations that affect the weight and balance
38
What should be clearly indicated on the Type Certificate Data Sheet?
a. Weight of unusable fuel
b. Minimum allowable gross weight
c. Location of the datum
4 - Weight and Balance
c. Location of the datum
39
What type of measurement is used to designate the arm in weight and balance computation?
a. weight x distance
b. weight
c. distance
4 - Weight and Balance
c. distance
40
What determines whether the value of the moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign in aircraft weight and balance?
4 - Weight and Balance
The result of a weight being added or removed and its location relative to the datum.
41
In a balance computation of an aircraft from which an item located aft of the datum was removed, use:
a. (-) weight X (-) arm (+) moment
b. (-) weight X (+) arm (-) moment
c. (+) weight X (-) arm (-) moment
4 - Weight and Balance
b. (-) weight X (+) arm (-) moment
42
When dealing with weight and balance of an aircraft, the term "maximum weight" is interpreted to mean the maximum ________.
4 - Weight and Balance
Authorized weight of the aircraft and its contents
43
The amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding CG is ________.
4 - Weight and Balance
Residual fuel
44
The useful load of an aircraft is the difference between the _____ and the _____ .
4 - Weight and Balance
Difference between the maximum allowable gross weight and empty weight
45
The useful load of an aircraft consists of the _____, _____, _____, and _____.
4 - Weight and Balance
Crew
Usable fuel
Passengers
Baggage
46
When computing W&B, an airplane is considered to be in balance when _____.
a. all moment arms of the plane fall within CG range
b. the movement of thee passengers will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range
c. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG range
4 - Weight and Balance
c. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG range
47
Where are the weight and balance limitations for an aircraft listed?
4 - Weight and Balance
In the specifications for the particular aircraft
48
To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the CG, it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed _____.
a. with useful items installed
b. no more than minimum fuel in all tanks
c. in a level flight attitude
4 - Weight and Balance
c. in a level flight attitude
49
The empty weight of an aircraft is 5,862 pounds with a moment of 88,957. However, when the aircraft was weighed, 20 pounds of potable water were on board at +84, and 23 pounds of hydraulic fluid were in a tank located at +101. What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft?
4 - Weight and Balance
151.365
50
How is the minimum fuel calculated?
Engine's METO horse power divided by ______
4 - Weight and Balance
The engine's METO horse power / 2
51
Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are placed in an airplane so that their distance aft from the CG are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively. How far forward of the CG should a third box, weighing 20 pounds, be placed so that the CG will not be changed?
4 - Weight and Balance
2.5 feet
52
The CG range in single rotor helicopters is _____.
a. More restricted than for airplanes
b. Approximately the same as the CG range for airplanes
c. Much greater than for airplanes
4 - Weight and Balance
a. More restricted than for airplanes
53
Improper loading of a helicopter which results in exceeding either the force or aft CG limits is hazardous due to the
a. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control
b. reduction or loss of effective collective pitch control
c. coriolis Effect being translated to the fuselage
4 - Weight and Balance
a. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control
54
Do weight-shift control aircraft and powered parachutes fall under the same CFR that governs certified airplanes and helicopters?
4 - Weight and Balance
No, never
55
What is the most significant factor affecting the weight and balance of a trike?
a. Weight of the equipment
b. Weight of the pilot
c. Weight of the fuel
4 - Weight and Balance
b. Weight of the pilot
56
The Boeing 777 utilizes how many independent systems that provide information to the airplane's flight management computer?
4 - Weight and Balance
Two
57
What is identified as being at a location that is a specific percent of the mean aerodynamic chord (% MAC)?
a. CG
b. The location of the weight in reference to the datum
c. Equipment distance from the fulcrum
4 - Weight and Balance
CG - Center of Gravity
58
What property of metal describes its ability to resist deformation?
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
Strength
59
What property of metal can be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking, breaking, or leaving some other detrimental effect?
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
Malleability
60
What property of metal describes its ability to be permanently drawn, bent, or twisted into various shapes without breaking.
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
Ductility
61
What property of metal allows little bending or deformation without shattering.
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
Brittleness
62
What property of metal describes its ability of a metal to become liquid by the application of heat.
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
Fusibility
63
How would a cast-iron spark be identified?
a. Red as they leave the stone and turn into a straw color
b. Gives off long, straight shafts having a few white sprigs
c. Produces long shafts that are straw colored as they leave the stone and white at the end
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. Red as they leave the stone and turn into a straw color
64
What is the principle alloy of stainless steel?
a. chromium
b. molybdenum
c. nickel
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. chromium
65
Which of these materials is the most common applications for springs, castings, tie rods, and control cables?
a. 2024 aluminum alloy
b. stainless steel
c. zinc
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. stainless steel
66
Which principal alloying ingredient is more susceptible to corrosive action?
a. copper
b. magnesium
c. manganese
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. copper
67
In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates the:
a. major alloying element
b. number of major alloying elements used in the metal
c. percent of alloying metal added
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. major alloying element
68
What series alloy is copper the principal alloying element. Solution heat treatment, optimum properties equal to mild steel, poor corrosion resistance unclad.
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
2000 series alloy
69
Normalizing applies to heat treating
a. aluminum alloys only
b. iron-base metals only
c. both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. iron-base metals only
70
When a mechanical force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or bending, the metals become:
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
cold worked, strain or work hardened
71
Which form of an alloy, when the elements and compounds are absorbed, one into the other, and the constituents cannot be identified even under a microscope.
a. mechanical mixture
b. solid solution
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. solid solution
72
Which furnace uses a wire or ribbon for heating elements?
a. muffler
b. fuel fired
c. electric
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. electric
73
What is the period that rearrangement of the internal structure of the steel takes place?
a. soaking
b. heating
c. cooling
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. soaking
74
Steel is tempered after being hardened to:
a. increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses
b. increase its hardness and ductility
c. relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness
75
Which heat treating of steel is accomplished by heating the metal to just above the upper critical point, soaking at that temperature, and cooling very slowly in the furnace?
a. annealing
b. tempering
c. hardening
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. annealing
76
Which heat treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
a. normalizing
b. tempering
c. casehardening
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. casehardening
77
Which type of heat treating requires special alloys for best results? (#20)
a. carborizing
b. normalizing
c. nitriding
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. nitriding
78
Which two are steps in the solution heat-treatment process?
a. soaking at a temperature for a specified length of time
b. aging or precipitation hardening spontaneously at room temperature
c. heating to a predetermined temperature
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. soaking at a temperature for a specified length of time
| c. heating to a predetermined temperature
79
Which material can be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?
a. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form
b. Clad aluminum alloy
c. 6061-T9 stainless steel
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form
80
What temperature range is used for precipitation hardening ('F)?
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
250 'F to 375 'F
81
What is the procedure that heats the alloys to an elevates temperature, holds or soaks them at this temperature for a length of time depending upon the mass of the metal, and then cooling in still air?
a. Annealing
b. Heat-treating
c. Plating
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. Annealing
82
What tester uses a hardened spherical ball which is forced into the surface of the metal?
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
Brinell
83
What is the process of forming a product by hammering or pressing?
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
Forging
84
Structural parts, such as channels, angles, T-sections, and Z-sections, are formed by what process?
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
Extruding
85
Sheets, bars, and rods are principle forms of:
a. cold drawing
b. hot rolling
c. cold rolling
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. Cold rolling
86
What is used in aircraft canopies, windshields, and windows?
a. Laminated structures
b. Transparent plastic
c. Fiber reinforced material
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. Transparent plastic
87
What are the two major classes of transparent plastic materials used in aircraft canopies?
a. Transparent and reinforced
b. Monolithic and laminated
c. Thermoplastic and thermosetting
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. Thermoplastic and thermosetting
88
What two forms of transparent plastics are manufactured?
a. Thermoplastic and thermosetting
b. Transparent and reinforced
c. Monolithic and laminated
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. Monolithic and laminated
89
What are two advantages of using composite materials?
a. Great variety of materials, processes, and techniques
b. Fiber-to-fiber transfer of stress allowed by chemical bonding
c. Bonded construction eliminates joints and fasteners
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. Fiber-to-fiber transfer of stress allowed by chemical bonding
c. Bonded construction eliminates joints and fasteners
90
What must be done fi you can smell the resin vapors after placing the mask back on after a break?
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
Replace mask filters immediately
91
What is a thermosetting material used in the manufacture of radomes, antenna covers, and wingtips?
a. Laminated structures
b. Fiber reinforced material
c. Reinforced plastic
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. Reinforced plastic
92
Which type of rubber deteriorates the fastest?
a. Silicone
b. Synthetic
c. Natural
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. Natural
93
Which type of rubber possesses exceptional resistance to ozone, sunlight, heat, and aging?
a. Neoprene
b. Butyl
c. Buna-N
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. Neoprene
94
Which type of rubber is used for oil and gasoline hose, tank linings, gaskets, and seals?
a. Neoprene
b. Butyl
c. Buna-N
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. Buna-N
95
What must be used if an O-ring packing is to be subjected to pressure from both sides?
a. A second O-ring
b. One backup ring on either side of the O-ring
c. Lubricant on the O-ring
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. One backup ring on either side of the O-ring
96
What will happen to rubber sheeting when used as a gasket where it may come in contact with gasoline or oil?
a. The gasket will swell for a proper seal
b. Thee rubber will deteriorate very rapidly
c. The gasket will leak immediately
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. The rubber will deteriorate very rapidly
97
The purpose of a wiper is to:
a. Clear off the side of windows of an aircraft
b. Prevent dirt from entering the system and protect the piston shaft against scouring
c. Seal the exposed portions of piston shafts when the piston extends
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. Prevent dirt from entering the system and protect the piston shaft against scouring
98
Aircraft bolts are almost always manufactured with a:
a. Class 1 fit for the threads
b. Class 2 fit for the threads
c. Class 3 fit for the threads
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. Class 3 fit for the threads
99
Aircraft bolts with a raised dash or asterisk marked on the bolthead are:
a. Close tolerance bolts
b. Standard steel bolts
c. Made of aluminum alloy
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. Standard steel bolts
100
A bolt with either a raised or recessed triangle on the head is classified as an
a. NAS standard aircraft bolt
b. AN corrosion resistant bolt
c. NAS close tolerance bolt
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. NAS close tolerance bolt
101
What type of special-purpose bolt is used where external tension loads are to be applied?
a. Eyebolt
b. Lockbolt
c. J-bolt
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. Eyebolt
102
A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is:
a. Subject to rotation
b. Under shear loading
c. Under tension loading
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. Subject to rotation
103
What metal is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls?
a. chrome molybdenum alloy steel
b. Corrosion resistant steel
c. Magnesium titanium alloy steel
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. Corrosion resistant steel
104
What does the letters AD designate on a rivet head?
a. Aluminum alloy, 2024-T composition
b. Aluminum alloy, 1100 or 3003 composition
c. Aluminum alloy, 2117-T composition
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. Aluminum alloy, 2117-T composition
105
What type of rivet has a head with a hollow shank or sleeve and a stem that extends through the hollow shank?
a. Pull-thru blind rivets
b. Bulbed cherry-lock rivets
c. Self-plugging (mechanical lock) rivets
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. Pull-thru blind rivets
106
What type of rivet has a positive mechanical locking collar to resist vibrations that cause the friction lock rivets to loosen and possibly fall out?
a. Pull-thru blind rivets
b. Bulbed cherry-lock rivets
c. Self-plugging (mechanical lock) rivets
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. Self-plugging (mechanical lock) rivets
107
What does the (17) in this aprt number: NAS177-14-17 mean?
a. Maximum grip length in 16ths of an inch
b. Nominal diameter in 32nds of an inch
c. Flathead rivet
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
a. Maximum grip length in 16ths of an inch
108
How is the plain taper pin secured?
a. With a lock-nut
b. With a safety-wire
c. With a cotter pin
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
b. With safety-wire
109
What is the preferred method for safetying turnbuckles?
a. The single-wrap safety wire method
b. Installing a cotter pin
c. The double-wrap safety wire method
5 - Materials, Processes, and Hardware
c. The double-wrap safety wire method
110
Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts:
a. Cannot always be detected by surface indications
b. Commonly appears as threadlike filaments of corrosion products under a dense film of paint
c. May be detected by surface pitting, and white, powdery deposit formed on the surface of thee metal
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
a. Cannot always be detected by surface indications
111
Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur
a. When two mating surfaces, normally in motion with respect to one another, are subject to slight relative rest
b. Only when two dissimilar metals are in contact
c. When two mating surfaces, normally at rest with respect to one another, are subject to slight relative motion
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. When two mating surfaces, normally at rest with respect to one another, are subject to slight relative motion
112
Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum structures have the effect of producing _____.
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
Corrosion
113
Which two are a corrosion-preventative maintenance function?
a. Daily draining of the fuel cell sumps
b. Making maximum use of protective covers on parked aircraft
c. Daily washing of the aircraft
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
a. Daily draining of the fuel cell sumps
| b. Making maximum use of protective covers on parked aircraft
114
What should be used as a general guide to inspect areas for corrosion? (#5)
a. Scheduled maintenance checklists
b. Aircraft maintenance manual
c. Mechanics listing of corrosion prone areas
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
a. Scheduled maintenance checklists
115
What is added to seaplane and amphibian aircraft bilge areas to protect against corrosion?
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
Paint
The interior compartments are painted to protect bilge areas.
116
What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel surfaces?
a. Steel wire brushes
b. Fine grit aluminum oxide
c. Abrasive papers and compounds
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
b. fine grit aluminum oxide
117
A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is:
a. Improper heat treatment
b. Improper application of primer
c. Dissimilar metal contact
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
a. improper heat treatment
118
The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is called:
a. Brinelling
b. Exfoliation
c. Granulation
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
b. Exfoliation
119
Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts with a _____.
a. Silicon carbide brush
b. Stiff, nonmetallic brush
c. Carborundum abrasive
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
b. Stiff, nonmetallic brush
120
Which is an approved cleaner fro titanium surfaces?
a. Steel wool
b. Aluminum polish
c. Water
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
b. Aluminum polish
121
How are dissimilar metal joints not involving magnesium protected from corrosion?
a. Application of a layer of pressure-sensitive vinyl tape 0.003 inch thick
b. Application of two coats of zinc chromate primer to each surface
c. Application of two coats of zinc chromate primer in addition to normal primer requirements
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. Application of two coats of zinc chromate primer in addition to normal primer requirements
122
Which standard type of damage is "corrosion which has scarred or eaten away the surface protective coats and begun to etch the metal"?
a. Damage repairable by insertion
b. Damage repairable by patching
c. Negligible damage
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. Negligible damage
123
Which method of cleaning is preferred over the mechanical method?
a. Blast
b. Chemical
c. Electro-cleaning
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
b. Chemical
124
A nonelectrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint bonding qualities is called _____.
a. Anodizing
b. Dichromating
c. Alodizing
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. Alodizing
125
What is the most effective barrier between metal surfaces and corrosive media?
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
Paint
A good, intact paint finish.
126
What locations are best suited for performing an aircraft wash?
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
Outside in shaded areas.
127
Why is a plastic surface flushed with fresh water before it is cleaned with soap and water?
a. To prevent scratching
b. To prevent crazing
c. To prevent discoloration
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
a. To prevent scratching
128
What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when oil or grease comes in contact with a tire?
a. Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with aromatic naptha and then wipe dry with a clean cloth.
b. Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth.
c. Wash with a mild soap solution
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. Wash with a mild soap solution
129
Which type of flammable or combustible solvent should NOT be used for aircraft cleaning or refurbishing?
a. High flash point solvents
b. Low flash point solvents
c. Mixed liquids
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
b. Low flash point solvents
130
What is used for cleaning propeller and rotor blades?
a. A fine spray of kerosene
b. Wipe surface with clean engine oil
c. Fresh water and soap and approved cleaning solvents
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. Fresh water and soap and approved cleaning solvents
131
Select the solvent recommended for wipedown of cleaned surfaces just before painting:
a. Aromatic naptha
b. Dry-cleaning solvent
c. Aliphatic naptha
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. Aliphatic naptha
132
Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber:
a. Aliphatic naptha
b. Methyl ethyl ketone
c. Aromatic naptha
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
a. Aliphatic naptha
133
Which type of emulsion compounds are useful for removing heavy deposits, such as carbon, grease, oil, or tar?
a. Alcohol emulsions
b. Water emulsions
c. Solvent emulsions
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. Solvent emulsions
134
Which cleaning compound is useful for removing light to medium soils, operational films, oils, or greases?
a. MIL-C-22543A
b. Oil-soluble detergent
c. MIL-C-5410 Type I and II
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. MIL-C-5410 Type I and II
135
What are the three grades of aluminum wool?
a. Type 1; Type 2; Type 3
b. 200, 400, 800 grit
c. Coarse, medium, and fine
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
c. Coarse, medium, and fine
136
Fayed (Frayed?) surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of:
a. Corrosion by imbedded iron oxide
b. Entrapping corrosive materials
c. Forming passive oxides
6 - Cleaning and Corrosion Control
b. Entrapping corrosive materials
137
What type of tubing has replaced copper tubes in aircraft installations?
a. Steel tubes
b. Flexible rubber hose
c. Aluminum alloy or corrosion-resistant steel tubing
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. Aluminum alloy or corrosion-resistant tubing
138
Which tubings have the characteristics (high strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in high pressure (3,000psi) hydraulic systems for operation of landing gear and flaps?
a. Titanium 3AL-2
b. Aluminum alloy
c. Corrosion resistant steel annealed
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. Corrosion resistant steel annealed
139
What type of tubing has a higher tensile strength permitting the use of thinner walls?
a. Titanium
b. Steel
c. Aluminum alloy or corrosion-resistant steel
7 - Fluid and Fittings
b. Steel
140
Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and:
a. Outside diameter in 1/32 inch increments
b. Inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
c. Outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
7 - Fluid and Fittings
C. Outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
141
Which coupling nut should be selected for use with 1/2 inch aluminum oil lines which are to be assembled using flared tube ends and standard AN nuts, sleeves, and fittings?
a. AN-818-16
b. AN-818-8
c. AN-818-5
7 - Fluid and Fittings
b. AN-818-8
142
The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from 3/4 inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy tubing. What is the inside dimension of this tubing?
7 - Fluid and Fittings
0.606 inch
143
When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN fittings, the flare angle must be:
a. 37'-40'
b. 40'-45'
c. 35'-37'
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. 35'-37'
144
What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum tubing?
a. Ease of construction
b. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque
c. It is less resistant to the shearing effect of torque
7 - Fluid and Fittings
b. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque
145
A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is:
a. A high pressure line
b. Carrying a substance that cannot be made non-toxic
c. Carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. Carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel
146
What is the color of an AN steel flared tube fitting?
a. Blue
b. Red
c. Black
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. Black
147
Which fittings are installed with portable hydraulically powered tooling?
a. Swaged
b. Cryofit
c. Flareless
7 - Fluid and Fittings
a. Swaged
148
Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may be repaired by:
a. Cutting out the damaged area using a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends
b. Replacing the entire tubing using the same size and material as the original
c. Cutting out the damaged section and soldering in a replacement section of tubing
7 - Fluid and Fittings
a. Cutting out the damaged area using a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends
149
Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion and contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by:
a. Not subjecting the aircraft to sudden changes in temperature
b. Using short, straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of the aircraft
c. Providing bends in the tubing
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. Providing bends in the tubing
150
Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than:
a. 20 percent of the wall thickness
b. 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall thickness, whichever is less
c. 10 percent of wall thickness
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. 10 percent of wall thickness
151
A scratch or nick in aluminum alloy tubing can be repaired by burnishing provided the scratch or nick does not:
a. Appear in the heel of a bend in the tube
b. Exceed 10 percent of the tube diameter
c. Exceed 20 percent of the wall thickness of the tube
7 - Fluid and Fittings
a. Appear in the heel of a bend in the tube
152
A 3/8 inch aircraft high-pressure flexible hose as compared to a 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will:
a. Have about the same o.d.
b. Have equivalent flow characteristics
c. Usually have interchangeable applications
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. Usually have interchangeable applications
153
Which two hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids?
Butyl
Teflon
Buna-N
Neoprene
7 - Fluid and Fittings
Butyl
| Teflon
154
The term "cold flow" is generally associated with:
a. Welding and sheet metal
b. Vaporizing fuel
c. Flexible hose
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. Flexible hose
155
Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size according to the:
a. Inside diameter
b. Wall thickness
c. Outside diameter
7 - Fluid and Fittings
a. Inside diameter
156
Before the hose is installed on the aircraft, it is recommended that the hose be tested:
a. At least full system pressure
b. At least 2 times system pressure
c. At least 1.5 times system pressure
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. At least 1.5 times system pressure
157
Flexible lines must be installed with:
a. A slack of at least 10 to 12 percent of the length
b. Enough slack to allow maximum flexing during operation
c. A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length
158
The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a connection should be:
a. 51.5 inches
b. 54.5 inches
c. 52.5 inches
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. 52.5 inches
Flexible lines must be installed with a slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length.
159
A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because, when under pressure, it:
a. Contracts in length and expands in diameter
b. Expands in length and diameter
c. Expands in length and contracts in diameter
7 - Fluid and Fittings
A. Contracts in length and expands in diameter
160
How far apart must clamps be to support a hose?
a. 12 inches or less
b. 18 inches or less
c. 24 inches or less
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. 24 inches or less
161
Which of these statements are true?
1. Bonded clamps are used for support when installing metal tubing.
2. Unbonded clamps are used for support when installing wiring.
7 - Fluid and Fittings
Both statements are true
162
When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing:
a. Paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to prevent corrosion
b. Paint removal from tube is not recommended as it will inhibit corrosion
c. Remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location
7 - Fluid and Fittings
c. Remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location
163
What should be noted when opening inspection plates and cowlings?
a. Screw locations
b. Panel positions
c. Any oil or other evidence of fluid leakage
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
c. Any oil or other evidence of fluid leakage
164
What document(s) provide for the inspection of all civil aircraft at specific intervals?
a. Aircraft Type Specification Data Sheets
b. Code of Federal Regulations
c. Maintenance manuals
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. Code of Federal Regulations
165
Which situation would require a special inspection?
a. Take-off in inclement weather
b. A rough landing
c. A landing in inclement weather
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. A rough landing
166
What method of inspection is a borescope inspection?
a. Ultrasonic inspection
b. Visual inspection
c. Eddy current inspection
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. Visual inspection
167
Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used on which (3) of the following?
1. Porous plastics
2. Ferrous metals
3. Nonferrous metals
4. Smooth unpainted wood
5. Nonporous plastics
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
2, 3, 5
Ferrous metals
Nonferrous metals
Nonporous plastics
168
To detect a minute crack using a dye penetrant inspection usually requires:
a. A longer than normal penetrating time
b. The surface to be highly polished
c. That the developer be applied to a flat surface
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. A longer than normal penetrating time
169
In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the he developer:
a. Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to inspection
b. Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of a defect
c. Dries and a bright red indication will appear where there are surface defects
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
c. Dries and a bright red indication will appear where there are surface defects
170
If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part:
a. Was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied
b. Was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied
c. Does not have any appreciable damage
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. Was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied
171
What is thee most widely used method of electronic test involving the intersection of magnetic fields and circulatory currents?
a. Ultrasonic test
b. X-ray
c. Eddy current test
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
c. Eddy current test
172
What nondestructive testing method requires little or no part preparation; it is used to detect surface or near surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat treat conditions?
a. Ultrasonic inspection
b. Magnetic particle inspection
c. Eddy current inspection
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
c. Eddy current inspection
173
Which nondestructive testing method is suitable to locate defects in all types of materials and voids too small to be seen by x-ray?
a. Ultrasonic
b. Magnetic particle
c. Eddy current
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. Ultrasonic
174
What is the nondestructive testing method of detecting invisible cracks and other defects in ferromagnetic materials such as iron and steel?
a. Eddy current inspection
b. Magnetic particle inspection
c. Ultrasonic inspection
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. Magnetic particle inspection
175
Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method?
1. Magnesium alloys
2. Aluminum alloys
3. Iron alloys
4. Copper alloys
5. Zinc alloys
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
3
Iron alloys
176
The magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect:
a. Deep subsurface flaws
b. Distortion
c. Flaws on or near the surface
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
c. Flaws on or near the surface
177
What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection?
a. Wet and dry process materials
b. High retentivity and low permeability material
c. Iron and ferric oxides
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. Wet and dry process materials
178
T or F? In nondestructive testing, a discontinuity may be defined as an interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part.
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
TRUE
179
T or F? A discontinuity may or may not affect the usefulness of a part.
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
TRUE
180
In a magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines generally causes:
a. A large disruption in the magnetic field
b. No disruption in the magnetic field
c. A minimal disruption in the magnetic field
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. A large disruption in the magnetic field
181
When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to:
a. Reveal all possible defects
b. Evenly magnetize the entire part
c. Ensure uniform current flow
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. Reveal all possible defects
182
What method of magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks and other defects?
a. Induction
b. Continuous
c. Residual
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. Induction
183
Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect defects that are:
a. Perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part
b. Parallel to the long axis of the part
c. Perpendicular to the long axis of the part
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. Parallel to the long axis of the part
184
Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true?
a. It is used in practically all circular and longitudinal magnetizing procedures
b. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications
c. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily apparent
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications
185
What is the nondestructive testing method of detecting invisible cracks and other defects in ferromagnetic materials such as iron and steel using a fluorescent particle solution and black light?
a. Ultrasonic inspection
b. Magnaglo inspection
c. Eddy current inspection
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. Magnaglo inspection
186
The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection uses a ferromagnetic material that has:
a. High permeability and low retentivity
b. Low permeability and high retentivity
c. High permeability and high retentivity
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. High permeability and low retentivity
187
One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by:
a. Subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage AC
b. Slowly decreasing magnetizing force is applied first in one direction and then the other
c. Slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. Slowly decreasing magnetizing force is applied first in one direction and then the other
188
T or F? An aircraft may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength.
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
TRUE
189
T or F? An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct current that is I alternately reversed in direction and gradually reduced in strength.
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
TRUE
190
Which of these factors are considered essential knowledge for x-ray exposure?
1. Processing of the film
2. Material thickness and density
3. Exposure distance and angle
4. Film characteristics
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
Three
191
Which is not a category of radiography flaw?
a. A crack
b. A dimensional irregularity
c. A void
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. A crack
192
What method of inspection is used to indicate defects in composite materials?
a. Radiographic
b. Tap
c. Ultrasonic
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. Tap
193
A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What nondestructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?
a. Ring test
b. Ultrasonic test
c. Eddy current test
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. Ring test
194
Select a characteristic of a good weld.
a. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure fusion of the filler rod
b. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 inch above the base metal
c. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal and is uniform in width
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
c. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal and is uniform in width
195
On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what percentages of the base metal thickness?
a. 60 to 75 percent
b. 25 to 50 percent
c. 80 to 100 percent
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
b. 25 to 50 percent
196
Which condition indicates a part has been welded too rapidly?
a. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions
b. Cracking adjacent to the weld
c. Discoloration of the base metal
8 - Inspection Fundamentals
a. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions
197
9 - Hand Tools and Measuring Devices
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