A&P sem1 Flashcards
(174 cards)
1
Q
describe levels of organisation in the cells
A
- chemical e.g: h20
- cell
- tissue
- organ e.g: lungs
-system e.g: cardiovascular
organism e.g: human
2
Q
what are the 11 systems
A
**integumentary **- protection, sensation, thermoregulation
cardio vasucalar
**reproductive **- support developing foetus
digestive
skeletal
muscular
urinary - waste excretion, control blood
lymphatic - immune defence, pathogen
nervous - communication, control
endocrine - communication through hormones, glands
respiratory
3
Q
describe the 4 types of tissue
A
connective - store energy, fill internal spaces
**epithelial **- layers of cells
neural - ability to conduct electrical impulses
muscular - ability to contract
4
Q
Organ definition
A
DISCRETE COLLECTION OF TWO OR MORE TISSUES COOPERATIVELY PERFORMING A FUNCTION
5
Q
POSITIONING
towards feet
towards head
nearest trunk of body
furthest trunk of body
towards belly button
away from belly button
towards back
towards front
A
towards feet = SUPERIOR
towards head = INFERIOR
nearest trunk of body =
PROXIMAL
furthest trunk of body = DISTAL
towards belly button = MEDIAL
away from belly button = LATERAL
towards back POSTERIOR/DORSAL
towards front ANTERIOR/VENTRAL
6
Q
frontal plane
transverse plane
sagittal plane
A
frontal - cut front and back in half
transverse - cut legs off
sagittal - between eyes
7
Q
Cavities
Back of body
front of body
A
Back = dorsal , brain and spinal chord
Front = ventral,
Thoracic cavity : plural and pericardial cavity)
Abdominopelvic cavity: abdominal, pelvic, peritoneal cavities
8
Q
homeostasis
+
-
A
maintenance of constant internal environment
+ = exaggerates difference
- = returns to normal
9
Q
Anatomy of:
CNS
PNS
A
CNS = brain+spinal chord, transmit motor commands, sensory data
PNS = tissue outside CNS, deliver sensory info to CNS, motor commands to peripheral tissue
10
Q
homeostasis:
stimulus journey
A
stimulus
receptor
control centre
effector
response
11
Q
what are the 3 types of receptors?
A
special sensory = senses
visceral sensory = internal organs
somatic sensory = skeletal muscle, joints, skin surface
12
Q
NERVOUS SYSTEM
what division does:
- sensory info
- motor commands
go to?
A
sensory = AFFERENT
motor = EFFERENT
13
Q
NERVOUS SYSTEM
what’s the difference between somatic and autonomic nervous system
What are the 2 divisions autonomic system includes
A
Somatic, have to think about your next action
Autonomic, body responds automatically via PARASYMPATHETIC (rest and digest) / SYMPATHETIC (fight or flight)
14
Q
NERVOUS SYSTEM
what are the 4 structures of neurones?
where are they found?
A
anaxonic = brain. small, not common
bipolar = special sense organs
unipolar = cell body lies to one side, sensory neurones of pns
multi polar = cns, control skeletal muscle, 2 or more dendrites, single axon
15
Q
Spinal chord
What neurones are myelinated, grey or white matter?
A
Grey matter = unmyelinated neurones
White matter = myelinated afferent neurones, rapid signal delivery
16
Q
how many segments are there in the spinal chord?
A
31
17
Q
what does each segment of the spinal chord contain?
and what do these do in the segment?
A
pair of dorsal root ganglia = sensory info to spinal chord through sensory neurones and cell bodies
pair of ventral roots = axons and motor neurones
18
Q
where do dorsal roots and ventral roots bind?
A
in a single spinal nerve
19
Q
SPINAL CHORD
what is a dermatome?
A
specific section of skin controlled by spinal nerves
20
Q
describe the process of a reflex arc?
A
1)STIMULUS, activates receptor
2)SENSORY NEURONE activated through dorsal root
3) info processed by CNS
4)MOTOR NEURONE activated through ventral root
5)RESPONSE, by peripheral effector
21
Q
What is a Golgi tendon organ?
A
- muscle contracts, senses tension in tendon
- has inhibitive afferent neuron
- too much tension, GTO releases to protect
22
Q
BRAIN: CEREBRUM
what are the 4 areas and what are they responsible for?
A
FRONTAL LOBE - voluntary motor association area, speech
TEMPORAL LOBE - auditory association area
OCCIPITAL LOBE - visual association area
PARIETAL LOBE - somatic sensory association area
23
Q
BRAIN
Physical protection?
hint: 3
A
- cranium bones
- cranial meninges, 3 layers
- cerebrospinal fluid, surrounds all exposed areas of cos
24
Q
BRAIN
Biochemical isolation?
A
blood brain barrier, CNS isolated from general circulation
25
**CRANIAL NERVES**
On
On
On
They
Travelled
And
Found
Voldemourt
Guarding
Very
Ancient
Horcruxes
Olfactory (S)
Optic (S)
Occulomotor (M)
Trochlear (M)
Trigeminal (B)
Abducens (M)
Facial (B)
Vestibulocochlear (S)
Glossopharyngeal (B)
Vagus (B0
Accessory (M)
Hypoglossal (M)
26
**CRANIAL NERVES ROLE:**
Olfactory (S)
Optic (S)
Occulomotor (M)
Trochlear (M)
Sensor, Receptor - olfactory epithelium in nasal cavity
Sensor, Receptor - retina
Motor, Control eye movement
Motor, control eye movement
27
**CRANIAL NERVES ROLE 2:**
Trigeminal (B)
Abducens (M)
Facial (B)
Vestibulocochlear (S)
Sensor, eyes, nose, forehead, structures of the mouth.
Motor, control of the chewing muscles
Motor, control lateral movement of eye.
Sensor of taste
Motor, control of facial expressions, tear gland and salivary glands
Sensor, balance and hearing
28
**CRANIAL NERVES ROLE 3**
Glossopharyngeal (B)
Vagus (B)
Accessory (M)
Hypoglossal (M)
Sensor, taste
Motor, control of pharyngeal muscles for swallowing.
roles in abdomen and thorax, key in cv system
Motor, control neck and upper back.
Motor, control muscles in tongue
29
BRAIN
What are the 3 layers on the cranial meninges?
1.dura matter (outside)
2. arachnoid matter (middle)
3. pia matter (inner)
30
what is a cell membranes resting potential?
-70mV
31
What are the 4 types of channels in a cell membrane called?
- Leak channels (always open)
- Gated channels (open depending on circumstances)
- Voltage-gated
- Mechanically-gated (respond to pressure e.g: pressing on skin)
32
Describe:
Depolarization
Repolarization
Hyperpolarization
Depolar = more Na+ into cell so more +, closer to 0mV
Repolar = Na+ back out of cell, back to resting potential
Hyper = K+ channels open, more + leaves, so even lower than -70mV
33
Describe the chemical gradient on a cell membrane?
What element moves quickest?
What is attracted where?
Higher conc of K+ inside, and higher Na+ outside
K+ moves out faster than Na+ in
Outside + repels K+
Inside - attracts Na+
K+ still move so net loss of +
34
What is a graded/local potential?
- small stimuli exposes membrane to chemical
- Na+ channel opens = Depolarisation
- depolarisation causes local potential
- stimuli removed = repolarisation
Not always big enough to cause full action potential
35
What is continuous propagation?
Mexican wave behaviour
Membrane depolarised to +30mV by AP, Na+ then move away to second segment
Causes new AP there
First segment = refractory period
36
How is an action potential created?
- depolarisation of membrane to threshold -60mV
- Na+ gates open, Na+ in until +30mV
- Na+ gates close, K+ gates open
- brief hyperpolarisation then resting potential
37
What is saltatory propagation?
when AP jumps from node to node along myelinated axon
38
Differences between:
Graded Potential and Action Potential?
1GP: no threshold
1AP: must reach threshold
2GP: amount hyper/depolar depends on stimulus
2AP: all or none
3GP: hyperpolaristing or depolarising
3AP: always depolarising
4GP: no refractory period
4AP: refractory period
5GP: most effect on membrane potential occurs closest to stimulation site
5AP: same strength of propagation across whole membrane
39
What are the 2 types of neurotransmitters?
Excitatory =
- depolarisation postsynaptic membrane, encourages AP
Inhibitory =
- hyper polarisation of postsynaptic membrane, suppress AP
40
Describe how acetylcholine is realised from a cholinergic synapse?
- AP depolarises pre synaptic terminal
- Ca2+ enters, Act released by exocytosis in synaptic vesicles
- Ach diffuses, binds to postsynaptic receptors
- Na+ channels open = graded depolarisation
- depolarisation stops as Act broken down
41
NEUROTRANSMITTERS:
Name 5 important neurotransmitters
Acetylcholine
GABA
Dopamine
Serotonin
Norepinephrine/Noradrenaline
42
NEUROTRANSMITTERS:
Inhibitory or excitatory?
Released by?
What does it do?
GABA, DOPAMINE, SEROTONIN, NOREPINEPHRINE
GABA = inhib, not known
DOPAMINE = excit/inhib, precise muscle control, *dopaminergic synapse* in CNS
SEROTONIN = excit/inhib, sleep and wake cycle, *serotonergic synapse* In CNS
NORADRENALINE = excit, brain, adrenergic synapse
43
TISSUE
What are the different layers (2) and shapes (4) of EPITHELIAL tissue?
Layers:
1) simple
2) stratified
Shapes:
1) cuboidal
2) squamous
3) Columnar
4) transitional
44
TISSUE
What are the 2 components of neural tissue?
Neurones
Neuroglia = support e.g: phagocytosis, repair damaged tissue, nutrients, maintain structure
45
TISSUE
Summarise the 3 types of muscle tissues?
SKELETAL = striated, voluntary control
CARDIAC = striated, involuntary, intercalated disks (electrical)
SMOOTH = visceral organs e.g: lungs, liver, heart
46
EPITHELIAL TISSUE 1:
describe:
1. simple squamous
2. stratified squamous
3.simple cuboidal
4.stratified cuboidal
5.transitional
1. ALVEOLI diffusion, line blood vessels, flat
2. SKIN line skin, basement membrane has new stem cells, daughter cells pushed to surface = protection
3. GLAND secretion, tube/duct
4. SWEAT GLAND layers, protection, some cells destroyed in secretion
5. change shape, expand contract with bladder contents
47
EPITHELIAL TISSUE 2:
1. simple columnar
2. pseudostratified columnar
3. stratified columnar
1. absorption, microvilli on surface= big SA, height = protection
2. nuclei at different heights, cilia move mucus, respiratory tract
3. layers = protection, pharynx
48
TISSUE
Summarise 3 types of glandular secretion
MEROCRINE = merely vesicles discharged
APOCRINE = part of cytoplasm shared
HOLOCRINE = whole cell bursts
49
TISSUE
What are 3 main components of connective tissue?
- CELLS = fibroblasts, macrophage,apidocytes
- FIBRES = collagen, elastic, 3d branching
- GROUND SUBSTANCE= blood, cartilage, bone
50
TISSUE
What are the 3 types of cartilage?
HYALINE = chondrocyte, strong, flexible
ELASTIC = more elastic than collagen
FIBROCARTILAGE = intervertebral disk, strong, protect, little movement
51
TISSUE
What are the 3 types of dense connective tissue?
DENSE REGULAR = tendon, ligament, fibroblasts/collagen so stretchy
DENSE IRREGULAR = tough sheets around organs, collagen
ELASTIC = less common, parallel arrangement
52
TISSUE
What are the 2 types of loose connective tissue?
ADIPOSE = apidocytes. padding, energy, fill area, insulate
RECTICULAR = structure, e.g: around kidney, liver
53
TISSUE
what cells produces/maintains cartilage tissue?
chondrocyte
54
functions of the skeletal system?
- Support against gravity
- Leverage for muscle action
- Protection of soft internal organs
- Storage: Calcium, phosphorous, fat
- Blood cell production
55
TISSUE
What are the 4 types of tissue membranes?
1. MUCOUS MEMBRANE: mucous attract pathogens, cilia clear mucous, areolar under
2. SEROUS MEMBRANE: line body cavity, slippery, lube = transudate
3. SKIN: stratified squamous epithelium, dense irregular connective tissue so strong
4. SYNOVIAL: line, fluid and nutrition for joint
56
TISSUE
What are the 3 layers between skin and body?
hint: fascia
1.body
2. subserous fascia: areolar tissue
3. deep fascia: dense connective tissue
4.superficial fascia: areolar + adipose tissue
57
TISSUE
Describe the 3 different types of muscle TISSUE
SKELETAL: striated cells, attach to bones
CARDIAC: striated, intercalated disk allows electric around heart
SMOOTH: smooth, spindle shape cells, blood vessel wall
58
What does the skeletal system include?
hint: 5
- bones
- cartilage
- joint
- ligament
- other connective tissue
59
BONE
What are the 6 different types of bone?
1. flat: internal table, dipole, external table
2. long: longer than they are wide, levers
3. short: transfer forces for subtle movements
4. irregular: complex shape
5. sutral: between skull bones
6. sesamoid
60
BONE
What are the typical features of a LONG bone?
hint: 3
DIAPHYSIS: long shaft, surround medullary cavity
EPIPHYSES: forces transferred in different directions through TRABECULAR (ends)
ARTICULAR CARTILAGE: smooth cartilage, bone forms to joint
61
BONE
What are the 3 main components of bone tissue?
- GROUND SUBSTANCE: 2/3 , minerals, hydroxyapatite crystals, calcium salt, ions
- PROTEIN: 1/3, type 1 collagen fibres(most abundent)
- BONE CELLS: 2%
62
BONE
what are the 4 types of cells classified as 'bone cells'?
mesenchymal stem cells
osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts
63
BONE
what are the roles of:
1.osteoblasts
2.osteocytes
3.osteoclasts
1. build new bone (Builders)
2. maintain bone, communicates through canaliculi
3. acids and enzyme dissolve old bone (Crushers)
64
BONE
Structure of compact bone
( compare to trabecular bone)
OSTEON: column, strength
CENTRAL CANAL: blood supply through osteons
LAMELLAE: layers of matrix
LACUNAE: dimples, osteocytes sit
65
BONE
Structure of trabecular bone
(compare to compact bone )
NO OSTEONS
TRABECULAE: rods/bone arches, strength if diff direction
RED BONE MARROW: fill between trabeculae, nutrients
YELLOW BONE MARROW: fat store in medullary cavity
66
BONE
Compare compact and trabecular bone
- C =more dense than T
- C =osteons T =cross bridge network
- C = outer shaft long bone T = inside short/flat bone,
67
BONE
Compare periosteum and endosteum
PERIOSTEUM: outside bone, fibrous and cellular layer, nerves and lymphatic vessels
ENDOSTEUM: inside bone, just cellular layer
68
BONE
what is the name of bone formation?
what are the 3 types?
OSSIFICATION
Intramembraneous ossification
Endochondral ossification
Appositional bone growth
69
BONE
1. How are flat bones formed?
2. What is the process called?
1. - mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts
- ossification forms spicules of bones
- trabecular bone formed
- remodelled to compact bone
2. Intramembraneous ossification
70
BONE
1. What is the name of the process when cartilage turns to bone?
2. How does it happen?
1. Endochondral Ossification
2.- chondrocytes in cartilage get big and die
- osteoblast cover thin layer of bone shaft
- blood vessel and osteoblast penetrate, form primary ossification centre
- this gets bigger, 2ndary ossification centre form at epiphyses
- epiphyseal cartilage surround the 2 centres (growth plate)
71
BONE
What is appositional bone growth?
bones width increases
- bone deposited by osteoblasts
- bone reabsorbed by osteoclasts
72
BONE
Explain how bone remodelling occurs
Explain roles of osteoclasts, osteoblasts, osteocytes
- bone break down and reform
- osteoClasts resorp, osteoBlasts form
- osteoCytes detect force loading on bone
- PTH (hormone) makes bones break down, release Ca
- Calcitonin, makes bones form to store Ca
73
BONE
How does a fracture repair?
1. fracture haematoma (clot), hold fracture in place
2. external + internal callus form (extra security)
3. external callus replaced by bone
4. remodelled to normal bone
74
BONE
Name the:
- 3 sections of AXIAL skeleton
- 4 sections of APPENDICULAR skeleton
AXIAL:
- skull (and face bones)
- thoracic cage
- vertebral column
APPEDICULAR:
- pectoral girdle
- upper limbs
- pelvic girdle
- lower limbs
75
BONE
Name the 6 areas of the cranium and where they are located?
1. FRONTAL BONE = forehead
2. PARIETAL BONE = parting
3. TEMPORAL BONE= temples
4. OCCIPITAL = base
5. SPHENOID = side of face, connect cranial and facial
6. ETHMOID = septum
76
BONE
Name: (facial bones)
1. cheek bones
2. upper jaw (main bone)
3. bottom jaw
1. zygomatic bones
2. maxillary bones
3. mandible
77
BONE
How do facial bones support functions of the face?
- support cavities and sense organs
- attach muscles/structures for speech, facial expression, chewing
78
BONE
Name 4 different facial sinuses and where they are located?
- FRONTAL = middle above eyebrows
- ETHMOIDAL = top of nose
- SPHENOIDAL = nose bridge
- MAXILLARY = inner cheeks, side of nose
79
BONE
__________ is the feature that allows babies skulls to keep growing
Fontanels
80
BONE
How many bones are in the vertebral column?
26
81
BONE
Name the 5 sections of the vertebral column
How many bones are in each section?
Cervical 7
Thoracic 12
Lumbar 5
Sacrum 1
Coccygeal 1
82
BONE
Name the 5 different areas + their role of a vertebral region
1. BODY = weight bearing, invertebral discs separate
2. ARCH = pedicle + lamina, protects
3. SPINOUS PROCESS = muscle attach
4. TRANSVERSE PROCESS = muscle attach
5. ARTICULAR PROCESSES = facets, join vertebrae above + below
83
BONE
Describe the difference in shape, features and spinous process in :
- cervical
- thoracic
- lumbar
Areas of the vertebrae
1) Shape:
C = oval body
T= heart shape body
L = massive
2) Features
C = transverse foramina (bloody supply to brain)
T = facet for rib attachment
L = blade transverse process (stick out horizontal)
3) Spinous process
C =split
T = long facing down
L = normal
84
BONE
How many pairs of 'true' and 'false' ribs are there in the rib cage?
True = 7
False = 5
85
BONE
The ribs are a ______________ bone.
___________ articulates with the _____________ process of the vertebrae.
_________________ articulate with the sternum.
curved flat bone
tubercule , transverse
Costal cartilages
86
BONE
What are the functions and features of the pectoral girdle?
Clavicles + scapulae
- enables versatile movement
- articulation of the arm
87
BONE
Describe the bones in the upper limb
hint: how they articulate with each other
**HUMERUS:** head with scapula, distal condyles with forearm
**RADIUS:** head with humerus, distal end in wrist
**ULNA** trochlear notch with humerus, Olecranon = elbow
**HAND AND WRIST**
88
BONE
Describe the structure of the hand and wrist
hint:
How many bones in adult hand?
How many of each section?
- 27 bones
- 2 rows of CARPALS: (proximal with radius, distal with metacarpals)
- METACARPALS = support palm
- PHALANGES = 3 per finger proximal middle distal, 2 in thumb
89
BONE
What 3 bones fuse to form the coxal bone (pelvis)?
What is the name of the surface that articulates with the femur?
1. ilium = biggest
2. Ischium = supports weight
3. pubis = pubic region
ACETABULUM
90
BONE
Describe the differences in a male and female pelvis
Pelvic outlet
M = narrow
F = broad
Pubic angle
M = 90degrees or less
F = 100degrees or more
91
BONE
Describe the bones in the lower limb
hint: articulation and structure
**FEMUR** head, neck, greater trochanter, shaft, condyles
**TIBIA** medial+lateral condyles join to femur, distal end in ankle joint
**FIBULA** head articulate with tibia, shaft, distal = MALLEOULUS (ankle side)
92
BONE
Describe the bones in the ankle/foot
hint: name of heel, largest bone in ankle, big toe name
TALUS, ankle articulate with tibia fibia
CALCANEUS, heel
5 metatarsals
Hallux = big toe
93
BONE
What is the name of the curvature on the bottom of the foot?
NAVICULAR
94
JOINTS
what are the 3 functional categories of joints?
What movement do they allow?
SYNARTHROSIS : immovable
AMPHIARTHROSIS: slight movement
DIARTHROSIS: free movement
95
JOINTS
name 3 types of rotation?
left or right
medial
lateral
96
JOINTS
what are the 4 structural classifications of joints?
fibrous
synovial
cartilaginous
bony fussion
97
BONY JOINT
1.actual name:
2. movement allowed:
3. example:
1. synostosis
2. synarthrosis
3. between L+R frontal bone on head
98
FIBROUS JOINTS
1. how many?
2. names
3. movements
4. examples
1. 3 types
2. Suture, gomphosis, syndesmosis
SUTURE: synarthrosis, cranium, collagen join bones
GOMPHOSIS: synarthrosis, teeth+jaw, ligament
SYNDESMOSIS: amphiarthrosis, tibia+fibia ligament
99
CARTILAGINOUS JOINT
1. how many
2. names
3. movement
4. examples
1. 2
2. Synchondrosis, symphysis
SYNCHONDROSIS: synarthrosis, costal cartilage
SYMPHYSIS: amphiarthrosis, pubic symphysis
100
SYNOVIAL JOINT
1) 4 main structures?
2) 4 accessory structures and their functions?
1) articular cartilage, joint capsule, synovial membrane, synovial fluid
2) - Ligaments: support, strong, dense reg connect tissue
- Bursae: synovial fluid pocket, less friction
- Fat Pads: protection
- Menisci: cushion
101
Name 6 types of synovial joint?
condylar
ball and socket
gliding
hinge
saddle
pivot
102
JOINT
what are the 3 elements on an vertebrae articulation?
4. what is the name of the joint surface?
1. FIBROCARTILAGE PADS: symphysis
2. ANNULUS FIBROSIS: outer fibrous layer
3. NUCLEUS PULPOSUS: elastic core
4. articular facet
103
JOINT
what type of joint is the intervertebral articular joint?
diarthrotic gliding joint
104
JOINT
compare and contrast shoulder and hip joint
both ball and socket
shoulder = GLENOID LABRUM, fibrocartilage ring
but
hip = ACETABULAR LABRUM. deep + stronger cavity
105
JOINT
describe the elbow joint
type
articulations
hinge joint
ulna trochlear notch + humerus trochlea
humerus capitulum + radius head
106
JOINT
describe the knee joint
type
articulations
complex hinge joint
medial+lateral condyles
menisci articulations
ligaments maintain structure
107
JOINT
what ligaments in the knee prevent front+back movement?
what ligaments allow slight lateral movement?
anterior + posterior cruciate
tibial + fibula collateral
108
JOINT
3 common injuries at joints
SPRAIN: tear ligament
DISLOCATION: articulating surfaces displace
SUBLUXATION: partial dislocation
109
JOINT
name 3 common joint diseases
(types of arthritis)
OSTEOARTHRITIS: age, articular cartilage damaged
RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS: inflammation, autoimmune condition
GOUTY ARTHRITIS: crystals in joint, metabolic disorder
110
MUSCLE
what are 4 roles of the muscles in the body
- movement
- structure, posture
- thermoregulation
- storing/moving substances
111
MUSCLES
what is the name of a bundle of muscle fibres
fasciculus
112
MUSCLES
what are fasciculus surrounded by
perimysium
endomysium (layer of tissues)
113
MUSCLES
what is the excitable membrane around fibres called?
sarcolemma
114
MUSCLES
what is the intracellular fluid called in muscle fibres?
sarcoplasm
115
MUSCLES
what is the name of the fibrils in muscle fibres?
myofibrils
116
MUSCLES
what are myofibrils composed of?
sarcomeres
117
MUSCLES
what are sarcomeres composed of?
myofilaments
118
MUSCLES
what are the two main components in the sarcomere
actin + myosin
119
MUSCLES
describe actin
thin filament
tropomyosin covers binding sites
double helical strand
120
MUSCLES
describe myosin
thick filament
2 subunits:
S1: globular head
S2: flexibile region, tail
121
MUSCLES
SLIDING FILAMENT
what is the name of:
1. the molecular spring
2. 'scaffolding/glue'
1. titin
2. nebula, desmin
122
MUSCLES
sarcoplasmic reticulum
structure + role
interconnecting tubules
regulate Ca+ levels for contraction
123
MUSCLES
summarise the cross bridge cycle (8 stages)
1) AP arrives
2) Ca+ released from SR
3) Ca+ attach to troponin
4) tropomyosin move, expose binding site
5) ATP hydrolysis, myosin head move, cross bridge form
6) POWERSTROKE, pi from myosin head, head change angle
7) myosin head pick up new atp, prev bond with actin released
8) repeat until Ca+/ATP level drop
124
MUSCLES
what is the length tension relationship?
clue: 3 diff positions of bicep
1) FULL TENSE, filaments overlap, can't generate tension
2) RIGHT ANGLE ELBOW, some overlap, produce tension
3) FULL EXTENSION, little actin myosin overlap, little opportunity to develop tension
125
MUSCLES
FORCE VELOCITY RELATIONSHIP
is force greater/less than isometric when shortening or lengthening?
isometric greater than shortening, less time for myosin head to attach to binding site
isometric less than lengthening, force myosin head to detach
126
MUSCLES
TYPE 1, TYPE 2A, TYPE 2X
1. myosin heavy chain
2. cross sectional area
3. appearance
4. endurance capacity
5. max force
6. max shortening capacity
7. max power
1) 1 = MHC I. 2 = MHC IIA. 3 = MHC IIX
2) 1 = small 2 = medium. 3 = large
3) 1= red 2 = pink 3 = white
4) 1 = high. 2 = intermediate. 3 = low
5) 1 = low 2 = intermediate 3 = high
6) 1 = slow 2 = fast 3 = very fast
7) 1 = weak 2 = intermediate 3 = strong
127
MUSCLES
what is the name of the small gap between motor end plate and neurone?
synaptic cleft
128
MUSCLES
summarise a nerve impulse is stimulated and travels causing muscle contraction
hint: 9 points
1) AP arrives
2) axon terminal depolarised
3) Ca+ into axon terminal
4) ACH release into synaptic cleft
5) ACH react with Na+ channel on post synaptic membrane
6) Na+ channel ope, Na + in, depolarisation
7) muscle cell membrane charge increase, Ca+ channel open, ca+ in
8) Ca+ released from sarcoplasmic recticulum
9) AP stops, ACH re enters neuron as choline + acetic acid
129
MUSCLES
what's the difference between afferent and efferent neurones
AFFERENT: impulse from sensory receptors/sense organ to cns
EFFERENT: impulse from cns to limbs/organs
130
name the 6 GENERAL senses
1. touch
2. pressure
3. vibration
4. temperature
5. pain
6. proprioception (body position)
131
name the 5 SPECIAL senses
1. smell (olfaction)
2. taste (gustation)
3. vision
4. hearing
5. balance (equillibrium)
132
SENSES
what's the difference between sensation and perception
sensation: info that arrives in sensory receptors
perception: when it arrives at conscious awareness
133
SENSES
SMELL/OLFACTORY
1. what is it provided by?
2. where are _____ located?
3. what are _____ made of?
1. paired olfactory organs
2. upper nasal cavity ,either side of septum
3. olfactory epithelium, olfactory glands, receptor cells
134
SENSES
SMELL/OLFACTORY
describe the process that allows us to smell
(5 points)
1. air in nasal cavity --- olfactory organs
2. water sol chemicals dissolve in mucus
3. particles bind to ODORANT BINDING PROTEINS
4. receptor membrane permeability changed
5. AP, info --- cns
135
SENSES
SMELL/OLFACTORY
what is the pathway of the action potential --- brain
(4)
1. AP to axons in olfactory bulb
2. olfactory tract
3. olfactory cortex in cerebrum
4. hypothalamus , part of limbic system
136
SENSES
TASTE
1. what are the name of the receptors?
2. where are they located?
3. what are the 3 different sections of answer2?
1. taste buds
2. papillae
3. filiform (0tb) , fungiform (5tb) , circumvallate (100tb)
137
SENSES
TASTE
1. what is the name of the cells in the sensory receptors?
2. what's the name of the pore these cells are in?
1. gustatory cells
2. taste pore
138
SENSES
what are the 4 different taste sensations?
bonus point: the 2 extras
1. sweet
2. salty
3. sour
4. bitter
1. water
2. umami
139
SENSES
what are the 3 nerves the taste buds are monitored by?
1. facial nerve
2. glossopharyngeal nerve
3. vagus nerve
140
SENSES
TASTE
how does the taste sensation occur?
where do sensory fibres synapse?
where do postsynaptic neurone axons synapse?
1. chemicals detected by receptors
2. membrane potential changes
3. AP in sensory neuron
4. sensory fibres synapse @ medullaO nucleus
5. postsynaptic neurone axons synapse in thalamus
141
SENSES
VISION
1. what is the olfactory organ?
2. what muscles support it?
1. the eye
2. ocular muscles
142
SENSES
VISION
describe the pathway of light in the eye
describe the structure of: cornea, lens, retina
1. light refracted at cornea + lens
2. absorbed @ retina by photoreceptors
cornea - water based
lens - hard structure, layers
posterior cavity - surrounded by retina
photo receptors - rods + cones
143
VISION
1. what's the difference between rods + cones?
RODS = presence/absence of light, 100mill, periphery
CONES = colour info, 5mill, central Vision
144
VISION
_________ are in photoreceptors that contains ________ which can be broken into ______ and _______ which allows an _________ to be generated
Photopigments
rhodopsin
opsin
retinol
action potential
145
VISION
1. how many optic nerves are there in the eyes?
2. where do these nerves go to?
1. 2
2. diencephalon @ optic chiasm
1/2 nerve fibres cross, reach thalamus
visual cortex of cerebrum
146
HEARING
1. what are the 3 sections of the ear?
2. where are the receptors located? what are they?
1. inner ear, middle ear, outer ear
2. inner ear, hair cells/mechanoreceptors
147
HEARING, middle ear
1. what is the name of the membrane between in outer+middle ear?
2. what is the name of the 3 different auditory ossicles?
3. what's the name of the tube connecting it to the throat?
air filled cavity
1. separated from outer ear by TYMPANIC MEMBRANE
2. auditory ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes
3. auditory tube
148
HEARING , inner ear
1. where are the receptors?
2. what is the name of the 2 fluids found here?
1. membranous labyrinth, cochlea duct, ORGAN OF CORTI
2. endolymph + perilymph
149
HEARING, inner ear
1. what is the name of the 3 ducts in the cochlea?
1. vestibula duct
cochlear duct
tympanic duct
150
HEARING
describe the process of hearing
(6 points)
1. sound waves reach tympanic membrane
2. vibration by auditory ossicles
3. stapes vibrate against oval window
4. fluid moves hair cells against tectorial membrane
5. intensity of vibration info stimulate cns, cochlear branch of cranial nerve
6. axons -- medullaO, cochlear nucleus
151
HEARING inner ear
What are the only 2 areas that don't have dense bone?
Tympanic duct base (round window)
Vestibular duct base (oval window)
152
HEARING
where are the sensory receptors located that monitor cochlear hair cells?
spiral ganglion
153
EQUILLIBRIUM , inner ear
equilibrium sensation are provided by hair cells of the __________ ___________, ______ _______ ________ & __________
vestibular apparatus
semi circular canals
otoliths
154
EQUILLIBRIUM
1. in the inner ear, receptors respond to ________ ________
2. hair cells are located in __________
3. _____________ is the raised structure in ampulla
1. rotational movements
2. ampulla
3. crista
155
EQUILLIBRIUM
in the otoliths, what detects:
1. horizontal accelerations
2. vertical accelerations
1. utricle
2. saccule
156
EQULLIBRIUM
afferent fibres form ________ __________of _____________nerve
fibres synapse on neurones in _____________ _________
vesitublar branch, vestibulocochlear
vestibular nuclei
157
EQULLIBRIUM
what are 4 roles of the vestibular nuclei?
1. integrate sensory info from each side of head
2. relay info to cerebellum
3. relay info to cerebral cortex
4. send commands to motor nuclei in brain stem + spinal chord
158
what are the 2 components of the integumentary system?
1. cutaneous membrane
2. accessory structures
159
name 6 functions of the integumentary system
1. protection
2. excretion e.g: sweat
3, maintain body temp
4. produce melanin + keratin
5. synthesise vitD
6. sensation: touch pain pressure
160
INTEGUMENTARY
what are the 3 layers of the cutaneous membrane?
1. epidermis
2. dermis
3. hypodermis
161
INTEGUMENTARY
In the cutaneous structure, the epidermis has layers of ___________ ________________ . The _________ membrane is in contact with the ____________ layer of the dermis.
stratified epithelium
basement
epithelial
162
INTEGUMENTARY
Describe how the epidermis regenerates
(5 points)
1. STRATUM BASALE (bottom) basal keratinocytes divide and push daughter cells up
2. STRATUM SPINOSUM keratinocytes shrink + dehydrate
3. STRATUM GRANULOSUM cells start dying
4. STRATUM LUCIDUM flat clear cells (thick skin)
5. STARTUM CORNEUM dead skin, flake off
163
INTEGUMENTARY
____________ _____________ _____________ accelerates growth in the epidermis
EGF: epidermal growth factor
164
INTEGUMENTARY
Compare thick and thin skin
THICK
1. location
2. epidermal thickness
3. epidermal strata
4. epidermal ridges
5. hair follicles
6. sweat glands
7. sensory receptors
1) fingertips, palm, soles
2) 0.6-4.5mm
3) thick strata lucidum, spinous, corner
4) present
5) absent
6) more
7) more
165
INTEGUMENTARY
Compare thick and thin skin
THIN
1. location
2. epidermal thickness
3. epidermal strata
4. epidermal ridges
5. hair follicles
6. sweat glands
7. sensory receptors
1) everywhere else
2) 0.1-0.15mm
3) no strata lucidum, thinner spinosum + corneum
4) absent
5) present
6) less
7) less
166
INTEGUMENTARY
1) The dermis is made of _________ and __________ fibres.
2) The layer closest to epidermis is the __________ layer and is made of _________ ____________.
3) Below this is the ____________ layer and is ___________ .
4) The blood vessels are in the __________ + ____________ plexus.
1) collagen , elastin
2) papillary, areolar tissue
3) reticular , fibrous
4) papillary, cutaneous
167
INTEGUMENTARY
HYPODERMIS
1. what does it do so skin can move?
2. what type of tissue is it?
3. name the 2 types of tissue in it
4. what is the hypodermis aka?
1. change shape
2. loose connective
3. areolar + adipose
4. Subcutaneous layer
168
what are the 3 functions of hair?
1. protection
2. insulation
3. sensation
169
INTEGUMENTARY - Hair structure
The core is called the ______ and contains soft _________ . It is surrounded by the ___________ which has thick layers of hard ___________. The ________ is thin and tough and contains ______ keratin.
The visible section is the _______ .
In dermis, the _______ ______ muscle is attached which contracts when cold.
Medulla, keratin, cortex, keratin, cuticle, hard
shaft
arrector pili
170
INTEGUMENTARY - hair follicle
name the 4 layers, inside -- outside
The thicker bulb base is called the _________
1. internal root sheath
2. external root sheath
3. glassy membrane
4. connective tissue sheath
papilla
171
INTEGUMENTARY - hair growth cycle
1. ________ ______ in _______ ________ divide
2. __________ ______ pushed toward surface
3. increasingly _________
4. at end of cycle, follicles become _______ , connections between ______ ________ and ______ break down
1. basal cells, hair matrix
2. daughter cells
3. keratinised
4. inactive, hair matrix , root
172
INTEGUMENTARY - nail structure
from inside to outside
include cuticle name
1. phalanx (bone)
2. dermis
3. epidermis
4. lunula (nail)
5. eponychium (cuticle)
173
INTEGUMENTARY - sweat glands
Compare + contrast apocrine and merocrine sweat glands
APOCRINE =
- secrete into hair follicles, pubic
- body thick odour
MEROCRINE =
- less deep, dermis
- skin duct
- watery fluid
174
INTEGUMENTARY - skin injury repair
8 stages from bleeding wound to complete epidermis
1) wound bleeds
2) clot, fibrin network
3) stratum basal cells migrate
4) phagocytic cells engulf pathogens
5) macrophages + fibroblasts produce granulation tissue
6) fibroblasts produce mesh, scab
7) fibrin clot break
8) epidermis complete
