A&P1 Final Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in the: A. Epiphysis B. Periosteum C. Diaphysis D. Articular cartilage
A
C. Diaphysis
2
Q
Endosteum can be found: A. Lining of the medullary cavity B. Covering bones C. At articular surfaces D. Lining the epiphysis
A
A. Lining of the medullary cavity
3
Q
Muscle tendon fibers attach to bone by interlacing with: A. Compact bone B. Ligaments C. Periosteum D. Endosteum
A
C. Periosteum
4
Q
The organic matrix of bone consists of: A. Collagenous fibers B. Protein C. Polysaccharides D. All of the above
A
D. All of the above
5
Q
In bone formation the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteoclasts D. Chondrocytes
A
A. Osteoblasts
6
Q
The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: A. Osteocytes B. Osteoclasts C. Osteoblasts D. Osteomorphytes
A
B. Osteoclasts
7
Q
Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bone: A. Mineral storage B. Protection C. Hormonal production D. Hematopoiesis
A
C. Hormonal production
8
Q
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are:
A. Mitochondria and Golgi apparatus
B. Ribosomes and Golgi apparatus
C. Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes
D. Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus
A
D. Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus
9
Q
The osteon, or haversian system: A. Delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from the bone cells B. Produces yellow marrow C. Resists stress D. Erodes bone
A
A. Delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from the bone cells
10
Q
In Intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the:
A. Development of a core layer of spongy bone
B. Development of compact bone in long bones
C. Addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones
D. Lengthening of long bone
A
C. Addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones
11
Q
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: A. Osteoclasts B. Osteocytes C. Yellow bone marrow D. Red marrow
A
D. Red marrow
12
Q
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: A. In the diaphysis B. In the epiphysis C. In the medullary cavity D. At the epiphyseal cartilage
A
A. In the diaphysis
13
Q
The major purpose of the epiphyseal plate is: A. Mending of fractures B. Enlarging of epiphysis C. Providing strength in long bone D. Lengthening of long bones
A
D. Lengthening of long bones
14
Q
The first step in healing a fracture is: A. The formation of specialized callus B. The formation of a fracture hematoma C. Proper alignment of a fracture D. The formation of a collar of a normal bone covering the broken ends
A
B. The formation of a fracture hematoma
15
Q
Normally bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of\_\_\_\_\_ years: A. 20 and 25 B. 25 and 30 C. 30 and 35 D. 35 and 40
A
D. 35 and 40
16
Q
In bone growth the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteoclasts D. Chondrocytes
A
C. Osteoclasts
17
Q
What is the most abundant type of cartilage: A. Hyaline B. Elastic C. Fibrocartilage D. All of the above
A
A. Hyaline
18
Q
The form of the external ear is composed of: A. Fibrocartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Osseous tissue D. Hyaline cartilage
A
B. Elastic cartilage
19
Q
Which is not a part of the axial skeletal: A. Rib b. Vertebral column c. Mandible d. Clavicle
A
d. Clavicle
20
Q
. Which is not a part of the appendicular skeletal? A. Coxal bones B. Parietal Bone C. Radius D. Clavicle
A
B. Parietal Bone
21
Q
The axial skeleton consists of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bones. A. 60 B. 68 C. 74 D. 80
A
D. 80
22
Q
The appendicular skeleton consists of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bones. A. 102 B. 118 C. 126 D. 137
A
C. 126
23
Q
The term sinus, as it relates to bone markings, can be defined as a: A. Raised area or projection B. Cavity within a bone C. Tubelike opening or channel D. Groove or elongated depression
A
B. Cavity within a bone
24
Q
Which bone is a part of the axial skeleton: A. Rib B. Clavicle C. Radius D. Coxal Bone
A
A. Rib
25
```
Which bone is a part of the appendicular skeletal?
A. Scapula
B. Vertebra
C. Parietal
D. Mandible
```
A. Scapula
26
```
Which suture is between the occipital and parietal bone?
A. Squamous
B. Lambdoid
C. Sagittal
D. Coronal
```
B. Lambdoid
27
```
Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a sinus within which bone(s)?
A. Maxillae
B. Frontal
C. Sphenoid
D. Temporal
```
D. Temporal
28
```
Which skull bone articulates with the first vertebra?
A. Temporal
B. Occipital
C. Sphenoid
D. Ethmoid
```
B. Occipital
29
```
The upper parts of the nasal septum and the side walls of the nasal cavity are formed by which bone(s)?
A. Nasal
B. Sphenoid
C. Ethmoid
D. Maxillae
```
C. Ethmoid
30
Which of the following is a true statement?
A. The ethmoid is a flat bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid.
B. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies posterior to the sphenoid but anterior to the nasal bone.
C. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid but posterior to the nasal bone.
D. The ethmoid is a short bone that lies anterior to the nasal bone.
C. The ethmoid is an irregular bone that lies anterior to the sphenoid but posterior to the nasal bone.
31
```
Which of the following bones does not articulate with the maxillae?
A. Palatine
B. Mandible
C. Inferior concha
D. Zygomatic
```
B. Mandible
32
If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of:
A. Infectious materials passing from ear to brain.
B. Food passing from the mouth into the nose.
C. Difficulty chewing.
D. Infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain
D. Infectious materials passing from the nose to the brain
33
A fontanel can best be described as a(n):
A. Bone in the skull
B. Unossified area in the infant’s skull
C. articulation between two skull bones
D. Small opening
B. Unossified area in the infant’s skull
34
```
The skeletal framework of the neck consists of __________ vertebrae.
A. Lumbar
B. Thoracic
C. Sacral
D. Cervical
```
D. Cervical
35
```
The number of thoracic vertebrae is:
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
```
D. 12
36
```
The number of true pairs of ribs in the body is:
A. 7
B. 12
C. 5
D. 3
```
A. 7
37
The trochlea and capitulum can be described as:
A. Markings on the scapula
B. Parts of the proximal end of the ulna
C. Distal portions of the humerus
D. Metacarpal bones
C. Distal portions of the humerus
38
```
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of the any animal because of the freely moveable joint of the:
A. Elbow
B. Shoulder
C. Wrist
D. Thumb
```
D. Thumb
39
```
The ulna articulates proximally with the
A. Carpal bones
B. Humerus
C. Scapula
D. None of the above is correct
```
B. Humerus
40
```
Metacarpal bones from the framework of the;
A. Wrist
B. Hand
C. Ankle
D. Foot
```
B. Hand
41
```
The pisiform bone can be found in the:
A. Wrist
B. Ankle
C. Neck
D. Skull
```
A. Wrist
42
```
The structure above the pelvic inlet, which is bordered by muscle in the front and bone along the sides and back, is called the:
A. Pelvic Brim
B. False Pelvis
C. Pelvic Girdle
D. True Pelvis
```
B. False Pelvis
43
```
The anterior of the pelvic girdle is formed by the:
A. Sacrum
B. Ilium
C. Ischium
D. Pubis
```
D. Pubis
44
```
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the:
A. Pelvic outlet
B. Symphysis pubis
C. Pelvic brim
D. Ilium
```
A. Pelvic outlet
45
```
The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the:
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Coral
D. Femur
```
D. Femur
46
```
A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the:
A. Elbow
B. Knee
C. Head
D. Ankle
```
B. Knee
47
```
Which of the following is not a tarsal bone?
A. Cuneiform
B. Navicular
C. Scaphoid
D. Talus
```
C. Scaphoid
48
Which of the following is not true?
A. The pubic arch in the male is less than a 90-degree angle.
B. The pelvic cavity is narrower in the male than in the female.
C. The coccyx is less flexible in the male.
D. All of the above are true
D. All of the above are true
49
Going from proximal to distal, the bones of the upper extremity are:
A. Metacarpals, carpals, ulna, and humerus
B. Carpals, metacarpals, ulna and humerus
C. Humerus, Radius, Carpals, and Metacarpals.
C. Humerus, Radius, Carpals, and Metacarpals.
50
Which of the following is a true statement?
A. Joints can be classified into five major categories.
B. The functional classification of joint centers around the type of connective tissue that joins bones together.
C. The structural classification of joints centers around the type of connective tissue that joins the bones together.
D. The structural classification of joints involves the degree of movement the joint permits.
B. The functional classification of joint centers around the type of connective tissue that joins bones together.
51
```
Which of the following is not an example of a fibrous joint?
A. Symphyses
B. Sutures
C. Sydnesmoses
D. Gomphoses
```
A. Symphyses
52
```
What are the unique joints that occur between the root of a tooth and the alveolar process of the mandible or maxilla?
A. Symphyses
B. Syndesmoses
C. Gomphoses
D. Synchondroses
```
C. Gomphoses
53
```
What are the most movable joints in the body?
A. Symphyses
B. Synovial
C. Syndesmoses
D. Synchondroses
```
B. Synovial
54
```
In terms of structure, which type of articulation has a joint capsule?
A. Fibrous
B. Cartilaginous
C. Synovial
D. Amphiarthrotic
```
C. Synovial
55
```
In the terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint?
A. Synarthroses
B. Amphiarthroses
C. Diarthroses
D. All joints are move able
```
A. Synarthroses
56
```
A condyloid joint is an example of a _______joint?
A. Uniaxial
B. Biaxial
C. Multiaxial
D. Inmmovable
```
B. Biaxial
57
```
Which joint allows for the widest range of movement?
A. Gliding
B. Saddle
C. Ball-and-socket
D. Hinge
```
C. Ball-and-socket
58
```
The pads of fibrocartilage located between the articulating ends of bones in some diarthroses are called?
A. Ligaments
B. Mensci
C. Bursae
D. Synovial membranes
```
C. Bursae
59
```
Mensci are:
A. Cords of dense white fibrous tissue
B. Extensions of the periosteum
C. Hyaline cartilage cushions
D. Fibrocartilage pads
```
D. Fibrocartilage pads
60
An example of a hinge joint is/are:
A. Head of radius articulating with the ulna
B. Interphalangeal joints
C. First metacarpal articulating with the trapezium
D. Head of the numerous articulating with the scapula
B. Interphalangeal joints
61
```
The knee joint is an example of a _____ joint.
A. Hinge
B. Ball-and-socket
C. Saddle
D. Gliding
```
A. Hinge
62
An example of a pivot joint is/are:
A. Head of the radius articulating with the ulna
B. First metacarpal articulating with trapezium
C. Humorous articulating with the scapula
D. Interphalangial joint
A. Head of the radius articulating with the ulna
63
```
The distal end of the radius articulating with the carpal bones is an example of _____ joint:
A. Saddle
B. Gliding
C. Condyloid (ellipsoial)
D. Pivot
```
C. Condyloid (ellipsoial)
64
```
Which of the following is an example of a biaxial joint:
A. Pivot
B. Hinge
C. Ball-and-socket
D. Condyloid
```
D. Condyloid
65
```
A gliding joint is an example of a (an ) _____ joint:
A. Uniaxial
B. Biaxial
C. Multiaxial
D. Pivot
```
C. Multiaxial
66
```
Which joint allows for the most movement?
A. Gliding
B. Saddle
C. Ball-and-socket
D. Trochoid
```
C. Ball-and-socket
67
```
Skeletal muscles constitute approximately _____ of our body weight?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
```
C. 50%
68
```
The connective tissue sheath that envelopes bundles of muscle fibers is the:
A. Epimysium
B. Endomysium
C. Periosteum
D. Perimysium
```
D. Perimysium
69
```
The covering of individual muscle fibers is the
A. Epimysium
B. Endomysium
C. Periosteum
D. Perimysium
```
B. Endomysium
70
```
Groups of skeletal muscle fibers are bound together by a connective tissue envelope called the:
A. Endomysium
B. Perimysium
C. Epimysium
D. Apoeurosis
```
B. Perimysium
71
An aponeurosis could be described as:
A. Flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures
B. Sheath that surrounds tendons
C. Deep fascia that covers muscles
D. Junction between a neuron and a muscle
A. Flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures
72
```
Muscles that contract at the same time as the prime mover are called:
A. Synergist
B. Fixator
C. Antagonist
D. Both A and B
```
D. Both A and B
73
```
Which of the following is not a component of a lever system:
A. Fixator
B. Bone
C. Joint
D. Pull
```
A. Fixator
74
```
The type of lever arrangement in which the pull is exerted between the fulcrum and resistance or weight to be moved is a _____ class lever.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
```
C. Third
75
```
Muscles may be named according to:
A. Function
B. Direction of fibers
C. Points if attachments
D. All of the above
```
D. All of the above
76
```
The Sternocleidomastoid muscle I an example of a muscle named for it:
A. Function
B. Number of attachments
C. Size
D. Points of attachment
```
D. Points of attachment
77
```
A muscle that assists with mastication is the:
A. Orbicularis oris
B. Buccinator
C. Platysma
D. Masseter
```
D. Masseter
78
```
The muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing verticals wrinkles above the nose (frowning), is called the:
A. Epicranius
B. Corrugator supercili
C. Orbicularis oculi
D. Orbicularis oris
```
B. Corrugator supercili
79
```
Which of the following muscles has fibers on a transverse plane?
A. Rectus Abdominis
B. External oblique
C. Transverse abdominis
D. Internal intercostal
```
C. Transverse abdominis
80
```
Which of the following muscle(s) function(s) to protect the abdominal viscera?
A. External oblique
B. Internal oblique
C. Transversus abdominis
D. All of the above
```
D. All of the above
81
```
Which muscle(s) form(s) most of the pelvic floor?
A. Levator ani
B. Coccygeus
C. Ischiocavernous
D. Both A and B
```
D. Both A and B
82
Purposeful movement is determined by:
A. The relationship of muscles to joints
B. How muscles are attached to the skeleton
C. The manner in which muscles are grouped
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
83
```
Which fibrous connective tissue structures have a lining of synovial membrane?
A. Tendon sheaths
B. Aponeurosis
C. Fascicies
D. Both B and C
```
A. Tendon sheaths
84
```
Which of the following muscles do not move the upper arm:
A. Pectoralis major
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Deltoid
D. Trapezius
```
D. Trapezius
85
```
All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff muscles except the:
A. Deltoid
B. Infraspinatus
C. Supraspinatus
D. Teres minor
```
A. Deltoid
86
```
The teres major and teres minor muscles move the:
A. Forearm
B. Arm
C. Shoulder
D. Wrist
```
B. Arm
87
```
The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is the:
A. Extensor digitorum
B. Opponens pollicis
C. Palmaris longus
D. Flexor carpi radialis
```
B. Opponens pollicis
88
```
The muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the:
A. Deltoid
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Trapezius
D. Pectoralis major
```
C. Trapezius
89
```
The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the:
A. Deltoid
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Trapezius
D. Pectoralis minor
```
B. Latissimus dorsi
90
```
The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the:
A. Biceps brachii
B. Triceps brachii
C. Supination
D. Brachialis
```
B. Triceps brachii
91
```
The muscle that flexes the semipronated or semisupinated forearm is the:
A. Biceps brachii
B. Brachialis
C. Brachioradialis
D. Triceps brachii
```
C. Brachioradialis
92
```
Muscles that move the upper arm originate on the
A. Ulna and humerus
B. Clavicle and scapula
C. Humerus
D. Ulna and radius
```
B. Clavicle and scapula
93
In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Biceps brachii
C. Deltoid
B. Biceps brachii
94
```
The muscle(s) assisting in rotating the arm outward is(are) the:
A. Teres minor
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Supraspinatus
D. All of the above are correct
```
A. Teres minor
95
```
The action of the brachialis muscle is to _____ the forearm?
A. Flex
B. Extend
C. Pronate
D. Supinate
```
A. Flex
96
The flexor muscles that move the fingers are mostly located on the:
A. Anterior lateral surface of the forearm
B. Anterior medial surface of the forearm
C. Posterior surface of the forearm
D. Posterior surface of the hand
B. Anterior medial surface of the forearm
97
```
Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh?
A. Adductor longus
B. Gracilis
C. Iliopsoas
D. Sacrospinalis
```
D. Sacrospinalis
98
```
Which of the following is not a muscle of the quadriceps femoris group?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Biceps femoris
C. Vastus medialis
D. Vastus intermedius
```
B. Biceps femoris
99
```
When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the:
A. Upper arm
B. Posterior lower leg
C. Posterior thigh
D. Anterior though
```
C. Posterior thigh
100
```
Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot?
A. Sartorius
B. Peroneus longus
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Soleus
```
A. Sartorius
101
```
Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles?
A. Movement
B. Protection
C. Heat production
D. Posture
```
B. Protection
102
```
The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called the:
A. Sarcolemma
B. Myofibril
C. Sarcoplasm
D. Sarcomere
```
A. Sarcolemma
103
```
Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called?
A. Myofibrils
B. Myofilaments
C. Striae
D. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
```
A. Myofibrils
104
```
The smallest contractile unit of muscle is?
A. Fiber
B. Myofibril
C. Sarcomere
D. Myofilament
```
C. Sarcomere
105
```
_____ Muscle is also known as striated muscle?
A. Smooth
B. Skeletal
C. Involuntary
D. Visceral
```
B. Skeletal
106
```
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called?
A. Irritability
B. Contractility
C. Extensibility
D. Elasticity
```
A. Irritability
107
```
In the structure called a triad, the T tubule is sandwiched between?
A. Actin filaments
B. Myofibrils
C. Sarcolemma
D. Sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
```
D. Sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
108
The chief function of T tubules is to?
A. Provide nutrients to the muscle fiber
B. Allow for the fiber to contract
C. Allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell
D. Allow for the generation of new muscle fibers
C. Allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell
109
```
Which of the following proteins found in Myofilaments contains the cross-bridges?
A. Myosin
B. Actin
C. Tropomyosin
D. Troponin
```
A. Myosin
110
```
The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is?
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Troponin
D. Tropomyosin
```
B. Myosin
111
```
Thick filaments extend the length of the?
A. A Band
B. Z line
C. I band
D. None of the above are correct
```
A. A Band
112
```
The neurotransmitter(s) secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles is(are):
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Any of the above
```
C. Acetylcholine
113
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that?
A. Tropomyosin returns to its original position
B. Myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to actin
C. The sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sac
D. Acetylcholine is released
C. The sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sac
114
```
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to?
A. Carry Oxygen
B. Store Calcium
C. Replenish energy supply
D. Rotate the cross bridges
```
C. Replenish energy supply
115
Aerobic respiration:
A. Allows the body to avoid the use of oxygen for a short time
B. Results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule
C. Results in the formation of lactic acid
D. Produces a maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule
D. Produces a maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule
116
```
Skeletal muscles are innervated by:
A. Somatic motor neurons
B. Autonomic motor neurons
C. Both somatic and autonomic motor neurons
D. Internal stimulation
```
A. Somatic motor neurons
117
```
A motor unit is most correctly described as a ______ and a motor neuron?
A. Sarcomere
B. Myofibril
C. Muscle Fiber
D. Filament
```
C. Muscle Fiber
118
```
White fibers are also called _____ fibers:
A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Elongated
D. Intermediate
```
A. Fast
119
Most body movements are _____ contractions?
A. Isotonic
B. Isometric
C. Combination of isotonic and isometric
D. Single twitch
C. Combination of isotonic and isometric
120
```
Endurance training is also known as:
A. Isometric
B. Hypertrophy
C. Aerobic Training
D. Strength training
```
C. Aerobic Training
121
```
During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm?
A. Latent period
B. Contraction phase
C. Relaxation phase
D. None of the above
```
A. Latent period
122
Physiological muscle fatigue may be cause by:
A. A relative lack of ATP
B. High levels of lactic acid
C. Failure of the sodium-potassium pumps
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
123
All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except:
A. The muscle does not shorten
B. It can produce work by tightening to resist a force
C. Movement if produced
D. The tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle
C. Movement if produced
124
```
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a (n) ______contraction.
A. Tonic
B. Isotonic
C. Isometric
D. Tetanic
```
B. Isotonic
125
```
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction?
A. Isotonic
B. Flaccid
C. Treppe
D. Isometric
```
D. Isometric
126
Which of the following is/are classified as nerve fibers?
A. Axon
B. Dendrites
C. Both A and B
C. Both A and B
127
```
Which of the following conduct impulses toward the cell body?
A. Axons
B. Dendrites
C. Nissl bodies
D. None of the above
```
B. Dendrites
128
```
A neuron with one axon and several dendrites is a:
A. Multipolar
B. Unipolar
C. Bipolar
D. None of the above
```
A. Multipolar
129
```
Which type of neuron lies entirely within the CNS?
A. Afferent
B. Efferent
C. Interneuron
D. None of the above
```
C. Interneuron
130
Which sequence best represents the course of an impulse over a reflex arc?
A. Receptor, Synapse, Sensory Neuron, Motor Neuron Effector
B. Effector, Sensory Neuron, Synapse, Motor Neuron, Receptor
C. Receptor, Motor Neuron, Synapse, Sensory Neuron, Effector
D. Receptor, Sensory Neuron, Interneuron, Motor Neuron, Effector
D. Receptor, Sensory Neuron, Interneuron, Motor Neuron, Effector
131
```
A complete nerve, consisting of numerous fascicles and their blood supply, is held together by a fibrous coat called the:
A. Endoneurium
B. Perineurium
C. Epineurium
D. Fascicles
```
C. Epineurium
132
```
Small, distinct regions of gray matter within the CNS are usually called:
A. White matter
B. Nuclei
C. Ganglia
D. Fascicles
```
B. Nuclei
133
```
Nerves that contain mostly efferent fibers are called:
A. Sensory nerves
B. Motor Nerves
C. Mixed nerves
D. Schwann nerves
```
B. Motor Nerves
134
```
Gray matter in the CNS consists of:
A. Nerve fibers
B. Neuroglia
C. Axons
D. Cell bodies
```
D. Cell bodies
135
```
Most nerves in the human nervous system are:
A. Sensory nerves
B. Motor nerves
C. Mixed nerves
D. Reflex nerves
```
C. Mixed nerves
136
Evidence now indicates that neurons may be replaced. T/F
True
137
Regeneration of nerve fibers will occur if the cell body is intact and the fibers have a neurilemma. T/F
True
138
There are no differences between the CNS and the PNS concerning the repair of damaged fibers. T/F
False
139
A. Neurons B. Neuroglia
40. Axon
41. Supporting cells
42. Astrocytes
43. Sensory
44. Conduct impulses
45. Form the myelin sheath around the central nerve fibers
46. Phagocytosis
47. Efferent
48. Multiple sclerosis
49. Multipolar
40. A
41. B
42. B
43. A
44. A
45. B
46. B
47. A
48. B
49. A
