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801-802

1
Q

Computer operating systems can be open source meaning the OS can be examined and modified by

A

anyone

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2
Q

A multitasking method that depends on the application itself to be responsible for using and then freeing access to the processor is known as

A

cooperative multitasking

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3
Q

Because the operating system is essential for running all the other programs, it is usually the first piece of software loaded during the

A

boot process

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4
Q

the ability of a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor at one time is known as what?

A

Multithreading

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5
Q

Can you mix 64 bit software with 32 bit hardware?

A

you cannot mix 64 bit software with 32 bit hardware

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6
Q

what is the minimum amount of memory recommended for window vista home premium?

A

1GB

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7
Q

what is the minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for installing a wind 7 32 bit version?

A

16GB

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8
Q

In window a primary mouse click is typically a single click which mouse button?

A

Left

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9
Q

the Taskbar contains two major items, the start menu and the

A

system tray

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10
Q

A ___ is a copy your system configuration at the given point in time.

A

restore point

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11
Q

Which control panel applet is used to configure screen savers, colors display option and monitor driver

A

display

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12
Q

what is the name of the desktop interface available in window vista?

A

Aero

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13
Q

the ability to support so many language is provided through the use of the stand ___ standard.

A

unicode

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14
Q

a group of computer that are tightly conneced or associated and share a common domain will have a single authority that manages a security for all the computer known as the

A

domain controller

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15
Q

in window 7, vista, and xp, every user automatically is a given a user _____ when they log on to to the workstation that contains information about their settings and preferences.

A

profile

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16
Q

True/Fasle: Remote assistance is enabled by default.

A

True . Remote assistance is enable by delfault

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17
Q

The ____ command indicates whethers the host can be reached and how long it took for the host to send a return packet.

A

ping

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18
Q

Which option is used with NETSTAT to display all connections and listening ports?

A

-a

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19
Q

What switch is used with IPCONFIG to obtain a new IP address from DHCP server?

A

/RENEW

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20
Q

The ____ utility can be used to scheduale a shutdown (complete or a restart ) locally or remotely.

A

shutdown.exe

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21
Q

With Window 7, there are 32 bit and 64 bit versions available for each of the editions your must know for the exam excepts ___.

A

Starter

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22
Q

What feature of window 7 and window vista is intended to prevent unintentional/unautorized changes to the computer by either prompting for permission to continue or requiring the/ administrator password before continuing

A

UAC ( User Account Control)

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23
Q

The ______ feature of window 7/ vista allows you to use drive encryption to protect files, including those needed for startup and logon.

A

BitLocker

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24
Q

In window 7 the _____ feature allows to use free space on a removable drive to speed up a system by caching content.

A

ReadyBoost

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25
Window 7 includes the ___ antispyware program.
Window Denfender
26
Window 7 has a quick way to access files you've been working on through their association with the application that has been using them. This feature is known as _____.
jump lists
27
A simplified way to set up a home network was added to window 7. It is known as _____.
Home Group
28
In window 7, ____ allows you to logically (as opposed to physically) group files and folder that are not in the same location and make them appear as if they are.
libraries
29
Microsoft windows ___ allows you to migrate user files settings related to the applications, desktop configuration, and accounts.
User State Migration Tool (USMT)
30
During the start up of window 7, what holds information about the OSs installed on the computer, such as the location of the OS files?
Boot Configuration Data (BCD)
31
What is the maximum number of CPUs supported by the Window vista home premium?
one
32
Which edition of vista support BitLocker and is not available through the retail channel?
Enterprise
33
In window vista, what is the name for mini programs that can be placed on the sidebar, allowing them to run quickly and personalized the PC?
Gadgets
34
In the window vista, the ____ provide a single interface or firewall settings, automatic updating, malware protection, and other security settings.
Window Security Center
35
True/ False : In window vista, you can turn off the UAC features.
True: While turning UAC off is not recommended, you can do so boy choosing Start>Control Panel> User Account and clicking Turn User Account Control ON or OFF.
36
To what versions of window vista can window xp professional be upgraded?
Window Vista Business and Window | Vista Ultimate
37
What file in the window serve as the hardware abstraction layers?
HAL.DLL
38
Window firewall has been a component of window ever since ____.
Window XP Service Pack 2
39
The default setting for Enforce Password history is 0. How high can this value go?
24
40
What Control Panel applet in window vista can be used to configure the device on which the operating system is installed to function as a true tablet?
Tablet PC setting applet
41
Setup Manager is not an unattended installation method in and of itself but is used to create ____ files.
answer
42
What type of operating system installation installs the most commonly used components of the software but not all of the components?
Typical
43
Older window server operating system have a feature called Remote Installation Service (RIS), which allows you to perform several network installations at one time. Beginning with window server 2003 SP@, RIS was replaced by _____.
Window Deployment Services (WDS)
44
__________ is the process of dividing part or all of a hard drive into sections, or partitions, for use by the computer.
Partitioning
45
On each hard drive, the ___________ co
Master Boot Record (MBR)
46
Window XP includes a utility known as the __________ that will transfer most of your files and individual application settings from an old computer to a new one.
File and Setting Transfer Wizard
47
With window xp, what files starts the loading of an OS on the computer?
NTLDR
48
With window xp, to access Safe Mode you must press what key when the OS menu is displayed during the boot process?
F8
49
True/ False: Window xp home edition does not have Remote Desktop, only Remote Desktop Connection.
True. Window xp home edition does not have Desktop , only Remote Desktop Connection. Therefore, window xp home computer can connect to other computer but not to be connect to from other computers.
50
What Control Panel applet is unique to window xp and can be used to add or remove network connection?
The Network Connection applet (Start> Control Panel> Network Connections.)
51
Ideally, your systems should have a minimum of ___ physical barriers.
three
52
________ is the term used for someone being so close to you when you enter a building that they are able to come in the right behind you without need to use a key, a cre , or any other security device.
Tailgating
53
_______ is a common physical access method that involves digging through Dumpster or recycle bins looking for information that is highly sensitive in nature (such as passwords written down after a change and before the user has the new one memorized.)
Dumpster diving
54
_____ devices such as hand scanner and retinal scanners use physical characteristic to identify the user.
Biometric
55
What is the name of films or glass add-ons that are placed over a monitor and prevent the data on the screen from being readable when viewed from the sides?
Privacy filters
56
A firewall operating as a _____ passes or blocks traffic to specific address based on the type of application
packet filter
57
The concept of ______ is a simple one: When assigning permissions, give user only the permission they need to do their work an no more.
least privilege
58
_____ is a process which an attacker attempts to acquire information about your network and system by social means, such as talking to people in the organization.
Social engineering
59
What is a type of malicious software that act on behalf of a third party (rather than self-replicating, like virus and worms, it us spread to machines by user who inadvertently ask for it)?
Spyware
60
_____ is a form of social engineering in which you simply ask someone for a piece of information that you are missing by making it look as if it is a legitimate request.
Phishing
61
If you're running into a software problem on a computer, the first step (after understanding what the problem is and getting any relevant error message written down) should always be to ____.
reboot
62
True/ False: When trying solution to fix a problem, make only one change to the computer at a time.
True
63
What is BSOD?
The blue screen of death (BSOD)- not a technical term, by the way - is another way of describing the blue-screen error condition that occur when Windows fails to boot properly or quit unexpectedly.
64
When troubleshooting in Safe Mode, you can uninstall a driver you think is causing the problem. Another option is to boot into the _______configuration.
last known good
65
What is the name of the files that is the Window OS kernel?
NTOSKRNL.EXE
66
A RAID array was not detected during the installation of window 7. What is a likely reason?
A likely possibility is that the correct drivers for the version of window being used is not located.
67
Device ____ are software programs that tell
driver
68
True/False: In window 7/vista, the User Account Control (UAC) feature has the sole purpose of keeping user from running programs that could pose a potential threats by escalating privileges to that of Administrator.
True
69
True/ False: When a files fails to open, it is often due to compatibility.
False. When a files fails to open, it is oftern due to corruption.
70
What command must you use to install Recovery Console?
WINNT32 /CMDCONS
71
If all computer on the network are in the same office, then the office is a _________.
local area network (LAN)
72
Computer dedicated to providing resource to other computer are called _________.
servers
73
A network where there are no dedicated servers is called ________ network.
peer-to-peer
74
A network topology where all computers are connected to a central devices such as a switch is called a _____________.
star
75
Ethernet uses ___________ to send information on the network.
CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection )
76
The layer of the OSI model that manages the 'look' of the data including encryption and compression is the ____ .
Presentation
77
The layers of the OSI model responsible for establishing and maintaining communications between computer is the ________ layers.
Session
78
The OSI layer responsible for error-checking is________.
Transport
79
The cable type with the longest range is _________.
fiber optic
80
As opposed to a WLAN, a bluetooh network is referred to as a _______.
wireless personal area network (WPAN)
81
The network connectivity device that can connect multiple network to each other is a ________.
router
82
The OSI model layer responsible for putting frames on the wire is called the ______ layerg
Physical
83
The seven layers of the OSI model from top down are _______.
Application, Presentation, Session,Transport, | Network, Data Link, Physical
84
The language of the communication spoken between computers on a network is called a _____.
protocol
85
TCP/IP is based on the ___ model.
United State Department of Defense (DoD)
86
TCP is a____ protocol that operate at the _____ layer of the OSI model.
connection-oriented , Transport
87
Which protocol in TCP/IP is responsible for resolving IP addresses to MAC address?
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
88
To communicate on a network, TCP/IP hosts must have a unique ____and valid _____..
IP address,subnet mask
89
Class A IP address will have a first octet of between____ and____.
1 and 126
90
FTP uses ports____and___, Telnet uses port____.
20,21,23
91
A _____ server provide IP configuration information to clients on the network.
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
92
Class B private IP addresses are in the ____ range.
172.162.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
93
Class C private IP address are in the _____range.
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
94
APIPA address are in the _____ range with a subnet mask of____.
169.254.0.0 to169.254.255.255, 255.255.0.0
95
The ____ protocol is used to send mail and operates on port_____.
SMTP, 25
96
The address fe80::/10 is an example of an IPv6 ____address.
link-local
97
The_____ protocol is used to retrieve mail and operates on port _____.
IMAP,143 :POP3 , 110
98
A 10BaseT network uses______ cabling and can transmit data at ___ (speed).
twisted-pair (or UTP), 10Mbps
99
What are the four common types of broadband?
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) cable, satellite, and fiber-optic
100
The wireless networking standard 802.11a operate at___ (frequency) and supports ____(speed).
5GHZ, 54Mbps
101
The wireless networking stand 802.11n operates at ___(frequency) and supports _____(speed).
2.5 and 5GHz, up 600
102
What is the most secure encryption protocol for 802.11?
WPA2
103
Wireless network used____to identify themselves.
SSIDs
104
Name two example of 4G technology.
WiMAX, LTE
105
Firewall filter packets based on a set of rules called___.
an ACL (access control list)
106
UTP cable has a maximum segment length of ___.
100 meters
107
The server that translates between private non-routable IP addresses and public IP address is ___.
Network Address Translation (NAT)
108
WPA2 employs what security method?
AES-CCMP
109
What types of laptops adapter combine functionality of PCIe USB 2.0?
Express card
110
How thick are PCMCIA Type I cards?
3.3 millimeters
111
If you want to plug your laptop into a power outlet in your car, what kind of power adapter do you need?
DC
112
Type III PC Cards are ___ thick, and the most common Type III device is a _____.
10.5 millimeters, hard drive
113
What kind of connector do MiniPCI Type III card use?
124-pin card edge
114
Where can you obtain laptop service manuals?
From the manufacturers website
115
What are the three components of and LCDs?
Inverter,screen,and blacklight
116
What is the part of the LCD that is responsible for providing enough lights?
Backlights
117
What is the component of a laptops video system that is responsible for the video signal?
Video card
118
MiniPCIe cards have ____ connectors.
52-pin card edge
119
What step of the EP print process uses a laser to discharge selected area of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum?
Writing
120
The last step in the EP print process is ___.
fusing
121
Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in the EP process laser printer.
+600VDC
122
Bubble-jet and laser printer are example of_____ because they received their printer jobs instruction one page at the time.
page printer
123
Multipart forms are used with this type of printer.
dot-matrix
124
With EP process laser printers, the laser discharges the charged photosensitive drum to ____ VDC.
-100
125
What is the function of the corona assembly?
The corona assembly gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper.
126
What is the first step of EP printing process?
cleaning
127
What are the six steps in the printing process in order?
Cleaning,charging,writing,developing,transfering,fusing
128
_____ are example of prints communication languages.
Printer Command Language (PCL), PostScript (PS) and Graphics Device Interface (GDI)
129
Which component inside the computer case pose the biggest risk of electrocution?
The power supply
130
Class ____ fire extinguishers are for flammable liquid fires.
B
131
Class ______ fire extinguishers are for fires involving flammable metals.
D
132
To discharge electricity from a monitor, use a ______.
high-voltage probe
133
What is the name of the safety sheet supplied with all chemicals?
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
134
What are the three common types of screws used in a computer?
Straight-slot , Phillips, and Torx
135
Computer components can be damaged with a shock of ______ volts.
100
136
To see an electrical discharge, the transfer must be of______ volts or more.
10,000
137
What devices uses a one megohm resistor to slowly bleed charge away?
An antistatic wrist strap
138
To whom must accidents at the workplace be immediately reported?
The employer
139
When lifting computer equipment, always lift with your ____.
legs
140
You should ______ batteries to properly dispose of them.
recycle
141
When talking about computer problem with a customer, you should avoid using __________ .
jargon, acronyms, and slang
142
What should you do if you are going to be late to a customer appointment?
Contact (call) the customer
143
When working on a customer, you should always ______ and______ expectations.
set, meet (or exceed)
144
Consistently light or faded characters on output from a dot-matrix printer likely indicates what?
The prints ribbon is old and need to be replaced.
145
Unevenly spaced characters in output from a dot-matrix or bubble-jet printer could indicate what?
A problem with the steppers motor.
146
A paper jam in a bubble-jet printer is usually cause by what two things?
Worn pickup rollers or the wrong type of paper.
147
Pin 1 on a laser printer's power connector should supply what voltage?
+5v
148
What are the three ways you can manually configure your laser printer's IP address?
Through the control panel on the printer, using Telnet, and using management software on your computer.
149
The process that a bubble--jet printer goes through after installing a new print cartridge is called ____.
print head alignment
150
Vertical white line on the output of a laser are caused by what?
Foreign matter(more than likely toner) caught on the transfer corona wire
151
What causes image smudging from a laser printer?
The fuser isn't heating the toner and fusing into the paper.
152
When window quits unexpectedly, you may get a _______.
Blue Screen of Death (BSoD)
153
The diagnostic routine built into the BIOS is called the ________.
power on self test (POST)
154
name the two most common types of devices used to keep computer cool.
Heat sink and cooling fans.
155
The line of print jobs is called the _____.
print queue
156
The service that formats jobs for the printer is called the ____.
printer spooler
157
If a laptop will not power up on a battery power, what should you should?
Plugging it in to an AC adapter
158
If the video on a laptop is not working, you should plug in what?
An external monitor
159
To communicate on a TCP/IP network, which two things do you need.
A unique IP address and a valid subnet mask
160
What is the command-line utility used to look at inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on your computer?
NETSTAT
161
Which RAID level provides no fault tolerance?
Raid 0
162
The functional components of a chipset are known as Northbridge.
Northbridge, Southbridge
163
ATX and ITX are example of what?
Motherboard form factors
164
_________ is essentially software implemented in the hardware.
Firmware
165
Name two advanced method used to keep computer component cool.
Possible answer include : liquid cooling, heat pipes, Peltier cooling devices, phase-change cooling, liquid nitrogen and helium and undervolting.
166
External cache is most commonly implemented using what type of memory?
Static Ram (SRAM)
167
Which module both have 240 pins but are distinguished by the location of their keying notch?
DDR2, DDR3
168
What are the two socket type that require little to no force during CPU installation?
Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) and Land Grid Array (LGA)
169
What should you apply between the CPU and heat sink to avoid overheating?
Thermal compound
170
What type of conventional CPU cooling method is relatively quiet and affords the greatest drops in temperature?
Water or liquid cooling
171
If the fan on the power supply is an exhaust-oriented fan, then the fan on the front fan should be ______ oriented, while the rear supplement fan should be _____ oriented.
intake, exhausted
172
How many devices can a 16-bit SCSI bus support?
16
173
How many pins might you find on the data interface of a given SCSI device?
25,50,68 , or 80
174
What was the ATA-5 technology that first required the 80-wire ribbon cable called?
UltraDMA/66 or UDMA/66
175
IDE and EIDE are now collectively referred to as ____ and have been superseded by ______.
PATA, SATA
176
Name three of the available memory-card formats.
SD, xD,MMC,CF,MS,SM etc.
177
Name one of the standard DC voltages supplied by a power supply.
+3.3VDC, +5VDC,-5VDC,+12VDC, or -12VDC
178
What is the name given to the IDE/EIDE family of drive interfaces to differentiate them from the newer SATA specification?
PATA
179
How much faster is the 1X transfer rate of a DVD drive when compared to that of a CD drive?
Nine times faster
180
Name three interface commonly used to attach external hard drives to a computer system.
USB, FireWire, and eSATA
181
What is the capacity of a standard Blu-ray disc?
25GB
182
RCA and TOSLINK connector are used with copper and fiber, respectively, for what input/output technology family?
Digital audio
183
Thunderbolt is a combination of which two interface?
DisplayPort and PCIe
184
What should you do for a mechanical mouse that cause the cursor to my erratically on the screen?
Clean it
185
The e in the eSATA stands for _____, but the E in the EIDE stands for _____.
external, enhanced
186
What input technology allows the touch of a finger on stylus to simultaneously move the cursor and make a selection?
Touchscreen
187
What multimedia technology daisy-chains devices back to a host and uses a messaging protocol to communicate musical information among devices?
MIDI
188
Which expansion bus type can share a sing IRQ among two or more hardware components?
PCI
189
A card with the expansion on it that installs into a motherboard is known as a card.
riser
190
_______ is the preferred I/O bus architecture for high-end graphics adapters, especially among gaming enthusiasts.
PCI Express (PCIe)
191
Which two types of expansion slot are closely related and highly limited and specialized as to what can be installed in them?
Audio Modern Riser (AMR) , Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
192
A ________ contrast ratio indicate that an LCD monitor reduces the power to the backlight to the display darker images.
dynamic
193
What is the digital version of YPbPr called
YCbCr
194
Three major types of LCD screen are dual scan, passive matrix, and ______.
active matrix
195
How many pins are on a standard (Type -A) HDMI connector?
19
196
How many more pins does a dual-link DVI-D connector have than a single-link DVI-D connector?
6
197
When you ______ a CRT monitor, you reduce the bulit-up magnetic field, improving the display quality.
degauss
198
The three main classification of a video display devices are CRT,LCD , and ____.
projector
199
The analog-only portion of a DVI-A connector has a flat ground blade surround by how many pins?
4
200
______ has a resolution of 1920 by 1200 pixels.
WUXGA
201
Adjusting the _____ rate eliminate flickering in a monitor.
refresh
202
Name three custom computer configurations.
Possible answer are graphic and CAD/CAM design workstations, audio/video editing workstations, virtualization workstations, gaming PCs, home theater PC, thin client, home serve PCs.
203
What special modification apply to the graphics and CAD/CAM workstations?
CPU enhancements, video enhancements, and maximized RAM
204
What special modifications apply to A/V editing workstations?
Video enhancements, specialize drive and specialized drives.
205
What special modification apply to virtualizations workstation?
CPU enhancements and maximized RAM
206
What special modification apply to gaming PCs?
CPU enhancement, video enhancements,special audio and enhanced cooling.
207
What special modifications apply to home theater PCs?
Video enhancements, specialized audio, special chassis, and TV tuner
208
What special modification apply to thin clients?
None, but they must be able to run basic applications and the local operating system.
209
What special modification apply to home server PCs?
Media streaming capabilities, file sharing services, printer sharing services,gigabit NIC, and RAID
210
With respect to A/V editing workstations, what does NLE stand for?
Nonlinear editing
211
Name the two most popular families of graphic APIs recommended for adapters used in A/V editing.
CUDA and OpenGL
212
What are the terms used to describe proprietary and non-proprietary program code?
Closed source/vendor specific and open source, respectivly
213
Which component in a mobile device can detect yaw?
A gyroscope
214
Mobile device that contain a magnetometer support apps that act as what kind of device?
A compass
215
Which TCP port are most commonly used for insecure and secure SMTP?
Port 25 and 465, respectively
216
What term refers to a mobile device adding geographical information to media such as photographs taken with the device?
Geotagging
217
Capacitive touchscreens do not require______ but resistive touchscreens do because their outer panel flex to make contact with their inner panels.
calibration
218
Name two methods that mobile device can use to detect its current location.
Possible answer are cellular network, WiFi network, GPS
219
What technology allows pairing of mobile devices and on occasion the ability to transfer files between them?
Bluetooth
220
When configuring an Internet email account on a mobile device, what are the standard pieces of information required?
Username and password, outbound mail server and port (often based on secure SMTP), and inbound mail server and port ( often based on secure POP3 or secure IMAP4)
221
What feature available on almost all mobile devices can ensure that, after a configurable amount of time, a security challenge must be met in order to access the device?
Passcode Lock
222
Which computer component contain all the circuitry necessary for other components or devices to communicate with one another?
Motherboard
223
Which packaging is used for DDR SDRAM memory?
184-pin DIMM DDR SDRAM is manufactured on a 184-pin DIMM. DIMMs with 168 pins were used for SDR SDRAM. The SIMM is the predecessor to the DIMM, on which SDRAM was never deployed. RIMM is the Rambus proprietary competitor for the DIMM that carries DRDRAM instead of SDRAM.
224
What memory chips would you find on a stick of PC3-16000?
DDR3-2000, Remember the 8:1 rule. Modules greater than but not including SDR SDRAM are named with a number eight times larger than the number used to name the chips on the module. The initials PC  are used to describe the module, the initials DDR  are used for the chips, and a single-digit number after PC and DDR is used to represent the level of DDR. The lack of a single-digit number represents DDR as long as the number that is present is greater than 133 (such as PC1600). Otherwise, you’re dealing with SDR (such as PC133). This means that PC3-16000 modules are DDR3 modules and are populated with chips named DDR3 and a number that is one-eighth of the module’s numeric code: 2000.
225
Which motherboard design style features smaller size and low power consumption?
ITX, The ITX motherboard family consists of smaller boards that fit in standard or miniature cases and use less power than their larger counterparts.
226
Which of the following socket types is required for the Intel Core i7-9xx desktop series?
LGA 1366 The lower-end Core i7 desktop (nonmobile) processors call for the LGA 1156 socket, but the 9xx series requires the LGA 1366 socket.
227
Which of the following is a socket technology that is designed to ease insertion of modern CPUs?
ZIF ZIF sockets are designed with a locking mechanism that, when released, alleviates the resistance of the socket to receiving the pins of the chip being inserted. Make sure you know your socket types so that the appearance of a specific model, such as Socket 479, in a question like this does not distract you from the correct answer. Only LGA would be another acceptable answer to this question because with a lack of pin receptacles, there is no insertion resistance. However, no other pin-layout format, such as SPGA, addresses issues with inserting chips. LPGA might have evoked an image of LGA, leading you to that answer, but that term means nothing outside of the golfing community.
228
Which of the following is not  controlled by the Northbridge?
The Northbridge is in control of the local-bus components that share the clock of the frontside bus. SATA and all other drive interfaces do not share this clock and are controlled by the Southbridge.
229
Which of the following is used to store data and programs for repeated use? Information can be added and deleted at will, and it does not  lose its data when power is removed.
Hard drive A hard drive stores data on a magnetic medium, which does not lose its information after the power is removed and can be repeatedly written to and erased.
230
Which socket type is required for an AMD Phenom II that uses DDR3 RAM?
AM3 This processor requires an AM3 socket. The only other version of Phenom II was for the AM2+ and is not compatible with DDR3 RAM.
231
You press the front power button on a computer and the system boots. Later, you press it briefly and the system hibernates. When you press it again, the system resumes. You press and hold the button and the system shuts down. What is this feature called?
Soft power Soft power is the feature whereby the front power button acts as a relay to initiate various system power changes, depending on the duration that the button is held.
232
Which of the following are the numbers of pins that can be found on DIMM modules used in desktop motherboards? (Choose three.)
168,184,240 DIMMs used in desktop-motherboard applications have one of three possible pin counts. SDR SDRAM is implemented on 168-pin modules. DDR SDRAM and 16-bit RIMMs are implemented on 184-pin modules. DDR2 and DDR3 are implemented on 240-pin modules with different keying. Dual-channel RIMM modules have 232 pins. Modules with 200 and 204 pins are used in the SODIMM line, and there are no modules with 180 pins.
233
To avoid software-based virtualization, which two components need to support hardware-based virtualization?
CPU,BIOS Both the CPU and BIOS have to be designed to support virtualization in hardware.
234
You find out that a disgruntled ex-employee’s computer has a boot password that must be entered before the operating system is ever loaded. There is also a password preventing your access to the BIOS utility. Which of the following motherboard components can most likely be used to return the computer to a state that will allow you to boot the system without knowing the password?
Jumper Most motherboards have a jumper or similar momentary closure mechanism that will allow you to clear the CMOS memory of any user settings and cause the BIOS to use factory defaults, including no user or supervisor passwords.
235
Your Core i5 fan has a four-pin connector, but your motherboard only has a single three-pin header with the CPU_FAN label. Which of the following will be the easiest solution to get the necessary cooling for your CPU?
Plug the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. The easiest solution that works to cool your CPU is to connect the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. The missing pin allows you to control the speed of the fan. Without it, the fan will run at top speed, which is fine, albeit a little noisier. The heat sink alone should not be relied upon for proper cooling of modern CPUs.
236
What is the combined total speed of a PCIe 2.0 x16 slot?
16GBps The PCIe 1.1 specification provided 250MBps of throughput per lane per direction. With the 2.x versions of PCIe, this rate was doubled to 500MBps. As a result, each v2.0 lane is capable of a combined 1GBps. A x16 slot consists of 16 lanes, for a total bidirectional throughput of 16GBps.
237
Which of the following allows you to perform the most complete restart of the computer without removing power?
Reset Button The reset button causes the computer to return to nearly the same point it is in when you power it on, but without the need for power cycling. Using Restart in the Start menu does not reboot as deeply as the reset button. Hibernation is a power state that completely removes power after saving the contents of RAM to the hard drive; pressing the power button is required to resume the session in the same manner as starting the computer after a complete shutdown. The power button cannot be used as a method of restarting the system.
238
Which of the following is most helpful when flashing the BIOS on a desktop computer system?
Uninterruptible power supply None of the options are required, but a UPS is by far the most helpful among the answers in that loss of power during this procedure can range from annoying to devastating.
239
Which of the following have Intel and AMD integrated into their Atom and Fusion processor lines that hasn’t been integrated before?
A GPU These CPUs integrate the graphics processing unit. The Core i7 before them integrated the memory controller, eliminating the FSB. Math coprocessors have been integrated since the 80486DX.
240
You have just purchased a motherboard that has an LGA775 socket for an Intel Pentium 4 processor. What type of memory modules will you most likely need for this motherboard?
DIMM Pentium 4 processors are always mated with memory mounted on DIMMs.
241
What type of expansion slot is preferred today for high-performance graphics adapters?
PCIe Although technically all slots listed could be used for video adapters, PCIe excels when compared to the other options and offers technologies such as SLI, which only make PCIe’s advantage more noticeable.
242
What is the physical component where data is stored in a HDD?
platter A conventional HDD contains discs called platters, on which data is stored magnetically through read/write heads by way of a magnetic coating.
243
Which of the following is not one of the the three major components of a hard disk drive system?
A) Drive interface B) controller C) Hard disk D)Host Adapter Driver interface A conventional hard disk drive system consists of the hard disk and its often-integrated controller as well as a host adapter to gain access to the rest of the computer system. The drive interface is a common component of the controller and host adapter.
244
What is the largest NTFS volume size supported by Window Xp?
256 TB A fixed number of clusters is supported by each operating system, leading to a corresponding maximum volume size. If the maximum NTFS cluster size of 64KB is used, Windows XP can support a single-volume size of 256TB. When a cluster size of one sector, or 512 bytes (~HFKB), is used, the maximum volume size reduces to 2TB.
245
Whic technology is based on flash memory and is intended to eventually replace conventional hard disk that have moving disc and other mechanisms?
Solid-state drive Solid-state disks (SSDs) are capable of replacing conventional HDDs, contingent upon cheaper components and higher capacities.
246
What is the formal capacity of high- density 3 1/2" floppy diskettes?
1.44MB High-density 3 1/2" floppy diskettes have a formatted capacity of 1.44MB. Double-density 5 1/4" floppies can be formatted to a capacity of 360KB, while double-density floppies support 720KB. The extended-density 3 1/2" floppy diskettes can be formatted to 2.88MB.
247
Which optical disc format support a data capacity of 25GB?
Single-sided, single-layer Blue ray disc Blu-ray discs have a single-sided, single-layer capacity of 25GB. The best the other options achieve is no more than roughly 17GB.
248
Wich of the following best describes the concept of hot-swappable devices?
Power does not need to be turned off before the devices is inserted or removed. Hot-swappable devices can be removed while the power to the system is still on. Warm-swappable devices need to be stopped in the operating system before being removed. The term has nothing to do with the heat level of the device.
249
Of the following voltage pairings, which one accurately represents the input and output, respectively, of power supplies and AC adapters?
AC in, DC out Power supplies and AC adapters use standard wall outlets for an input of AC voltage, which they convert to the DC voltages required by the components they supply power to.
250
What are the five ouput voltages that have been commonly produced by the PC power supplies over the years?
A PC’s power supply produces +3.3VDC, +5VDC, –5VDC, +12VDC, and –12VDC from a 110VAC input.
251
Molex connectors are used with PATA hard drives, while Berg connectors are used with floppy drives.
Molex power connectors have been used with larger internal devices since the original PCs hit the market. When the 3 1/2" floppy diskette drives were launched, they used the newer Berg connectors. Europe requires the voltage selector switch be set at the higher setting. SATA drives most often use a specific power connector that is not compatible with the Molex connector used by PATA drives. AT-based motherboards call for P8 and P9 connectors; ATX motherboards have a newer 20- or 24-pin single power connector.
252
Which of the following is not a consideration when installing an internal storage device? a) You should match the form factor of the drive or adapt it to an available drive bay or slot. b) You should secure the drive with at least two screws on one side and preferably two on each side. c) Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity. d) You need to be sure that the routing of the drive’s ribbon cable, if applicable, does not obstruct the engineered flow of air across internal components.
c)Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity. Today’s hard drives, regardless of their rpm, have standard internal power connections. Each of the other options are valid concerns when installing an internal drive.
253
What kind of media is most commonly used when large amounts of data need to be archived on a regular basis? a) Tape B)optical disc c) External hard drive d)floppy
a)Tape Although inefficient as an interactive medium, sequential tape-based storage continues to be developed in increasing capacities. Tape remains the best choice for frequently backing up large amounts of data for redundancy and archival purposes.
254
Which of the following statements regarding floppy drive installation is true? a) Like a hard drive, the floppy drive requires no external access. b) Like DVD-ROM drives, floppy drives have a 5 1/4" form factor and must be installed in the larger drive bays. c) Because it is antiquated technology, floppy disk drives can no longer be purchased new. d) Although some drives might not clearly key the receptacle for the Berg power connector, you must insert the connector correctly or the drive can be damaged.
d)Although some drives might not clearly key the receptacle for the Berg power connector, you must insert the connector correctly or the drive can be damaged. Inserting the Berg connector upside down will damage the drive the first time the motor is activated. Floppy drives require front access for floppy disk insertion. Their form factor is only 3.5", and you can still buy them new. (See the sidebar “Do You Smell Something?” in this chapter.)
255
Which of the following platter spin rates is not commonly associated with conventional magnetic hard disk drives? a) 5400 rpm b) 7200 rpm c) 10.200 rpm d) 15,000 rpm
c) 10,200 rpm The other common spin rates are 10,000 rpm and 12,000 rpm.
256
Which of the following is not a consideration when upgrading power supplies? a) You might find that you do not have a matching motherboard connector on your new power supply. b) You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply. c) You might find that your power rating is not adequate on the new power supply. d) You might find that you do not have enough of the appropriate connectors coming from the power supply for the devices you have installed.
b) You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply. Personal computers do not have permanently installed power supplies. Like other electrical and electronic components, power supplies can and do fail on a regular basis. Permanently mounting a power supply to a chassis would be a disservice to the consumer. You should consider the cumulative power needs of your installed components, and you might have to obtain adapters and splitters if you do not have enough or you have the wrong types of connectors coming from the power supply.
257
What does the red stripe on a ribbon cable indicate? a) Pin 16 b) Pin 1 c) The manufacturer’s trademark d) parity
b) Pin 1 The red stripe on the cable indicates pin 1.
258
What do UltraDMA/66 and higher require? a) Cable Select configuration b) An 80-wire cable c) operating system support d) That the BIOS be set for UltraDMA instead of DMA
b) 80-wire cable UltraDMA/66 requires a special ribbon cable with extra wires to cut down on cross-talk. It does not require Cable Select to be in use, and it does not require specific operating system support because it operates at a lower level than the OS. There is no special setting in the BIOS for UltraDMA drives.
259
On the primary IDE channel, if a single hard disk is attached, its jumper should be set to ________. a) slave b) Single if available, other wise Master c) Master d) boot
b)Single if available, otherwise Master If there is a Single setting, it should be used. Otherwise, use Master. Slave is never appropriate for a single drive. There is no such jumper setting as Boot.
260
Which of the following is a concept that applies only to conventional magnetic hard disk drives and not newer solid-state drives? a)
d)7200 rpm Each concept applies to both HDDs and SSDs except for platter spin rates. Revolutions per minute (rpm) measurements refer to drives with moving parts. SSDs have none.
261
When replacing a power supply, which of the following tends to vary among power supplies and must be chosen properly to support all connected devices? a) Wattage b) Voltage c) Amperage d) Resistance
a) Wattage Power supplies are rated in watts. When you purchase a power supply, you should make sure the devices inside the computer do not require more wattage than the chosen power supply can offer. The voltage is fairly standard among power supplies and has nothing to do with the devices connected to the power supply. Amperage and resistance are not selling points for power supplies.
262
 You want to plug a keyboard into the back of a computer. You know that you need to plug the keyboard cable into a PS/2 port. Which style of port is the PS/2? a) RJ-11 b) DE9 c) DIN 5 d) Mini-DIN 6
d)mini-DIN 6 A PS/2 port is also known as a mini-DIN 6 connector.
263
What is the maximum speed of USB 2.0 in Mbps? a) 1.5 b) 12 c) 60 d) 480
d) 480 The USB 2.0 spec provides for a maximum speed of 480 megabits per second (Mbps—not megabytes per second, or MBps).
264
Which of the following standards are specified by IEEE 1284? (Choose two.) a) SPP b) RS-232 c) EPP d) ECP e) FireWire f) USB
c,d EPP, ECP Bidirectional parallel ports can both transmit and receive data. EPP and ECP are IEEE 1284 standards that were designed to transfer data at higher speeds in both directions so that devices could return status information to the system. The standard parallel port only transmits data out of the computer. It cannot receive data. FireWire is specified by IEEE 1394. IEEE 1284 does not specify serial protocols, such as RS-232 and USB.
265
What peripheral port type was originally developed by Apple and is currently regarded as the optimal interface for digital video transfers? a) dvd b) USB 2.0 c) IEEE 1394 d) IEEE 1284
c) IEEE 1394 The IEEE 1394 standard provides for greater data transfer speeds, increased power, and the ability to send memory addresses as well as data through a serial port. USB 3.0 proves to threaten more competition in these areas, but USB 2.0 could not compare to the overall performance of IEEE 1394.
266
What peripheral port type is expandable using a hub, operates at 1.5MBps, and is used to connect various devices (from printers to cameras) to PCs? a) DVD 1.0 b) USB 1.1 c) IEEE 1394 d) IEEE1284
b) USB 1.1 USB hubs are used to connect multiple peripherals to one computer through a single port. They support data transfer rates as high as 12Mbps, or 1.5MBps (for USB 1.1, which is the option listed here).
267
Which peripheral port type was designed to transfer data at higher speeds over a D-sub interface? a) DVD b) USB c) IEEE 1394 d) IEEE 1284
d) IEEE 1284 The IEEE 1284 standard specifies that the ECP parallel port use a DMA channel and the buffer be able to transfer data at higher speeds to printers.
268
The surround sound mode known as 5.1 employs how many speakers when only one is used for each channel? a) 1 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
c)6 The description 5.1 refers to six channels of audio. The 5 in the name refers collectively to the single center channel, the right and left front channels, and the right and left rear channels. The 1 in the name refers to the single LFE channel connected to the subwoofer.
269
Which of the following display interfaces is equivalent to DisplayPort with PCIe added in? a) Thunderboldt b) WHUXGA c) IEEE 1394c d) HDMI
a) Thunderbolt Intel and Apple collaborated on Thunderbolt to add PCIe to VESA’s DisplayPort and to make the resulting interface smaller and less expensive to connect.
270
Which of the following interfaces allows audio to be sent out over the same cabling infrastructure as video? a) VGA b) DVI c) HDMI d) Compsite
c) HDMI HDMI is a digital interface and cabling specification that allows digital audio to be carried over the same cable as video.
271
How do you connect a DVI-A interface on a peripheral to a DVI-D interface on the computer? a) With a DVI-I cable b) With a cable that is terminated on one end with a DVI-A connector and on the other end with a DVI-D connector c) You wouldn’t interconnect those two interfaces d) With a standard DVI cable
c) You wouldn’t interconnect those two interfaces Such a connection should not be made. DVI-I cables act like universal cables; they can connect two DVI-A interfaces or two DVI-D interfaces with adapters. Natively, they are used to connect two DVI-I interfaces, both of which are configured as either analog or digital. They are unable to convert the analog signal to a digital one, however. Analog and digital DVI interfaces are too disparate to interconnect.
272
What kind of device uses unique physical traits of the user to authenticate their access to a secure system or location? a) Barcode reader b) Bitometric device c) Keyboard d) touchscreen
b) Biometric device Biometric input devices scan a physical trait of the user, such as voice, fingerprint, and retina, for authentication purposes when the user attempts to access computer systems and other property.
273
Why might you use a KVM switch? a) You have multiple Ethernet devices that need to communicate with one another. b) You need to be able to switch the voltage supplied to a particular device. c) You have a printer that is not attached to the network but you want multiple computers to be able to print to it. d) You have more than one server and don’t want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each.
d)You have more than one server and don’t want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each. KVM switches are ideal when you have multiple computers situated near one another and do not want to commit the extra desk space to each computer having its own keyboard, mouse, and monitor.
274
Which type of input device employs roughly the same connector as the original AT keyboard? a) Barcode reader b) PS/2 keyboard c) MIDI d) Touchscreen
c)MIDI MIDI devices use a 5-pin DIN connector similar to the one used with the original AT keyboard.
275
What can you use to convert video to a format that can be uploaded to the Internet, among other things? a) a barcode reader b) A video capture card c) a TV turner card d) A MIDI device
b) A video capture card A video capture card is used to convert raw video input to a format that can be shared electronically. Although many TV tuner cards provide this functionality, it is their video-capture component that gives them this capability. Any adapter that is strictly a TV tuner cannot capture video.
276
Which of the following is not an example of a standard peripheral input-device connector? a) 1/8" jack b) Mini- DIN c) D- Subminiature d) USB
a) 1/8" jack Multimedia input devices, not standard input devices, use 1/8" jacks. Standard input devices include human interface devices, such as keyboards and mice. The other three options can be used for such devices.
277
Which category of adapters includes NICs? a) Multimedia b) I/O c) communication d) video
c)communication | Network interface cards are considered to be a form of communications adapter.
278
What category of adapter would you need to install to equip a system with one or more USB ports? a) Multimedia b) I/O c) Communication d) video
b) I/O Interfaces, such as USB ports, are considered input/output ports. If you have to add USB capability to a computer, an I/O adapter with USB ports on it would meet the need.
279
What type of adapter has an RJ-11 jack built in? a) modem b) video c) sound d) NIC
a) modem Modems have RJ-11 jacks for interface to the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). The modular jacks that Ethernet NICs have are known as RJ-45 jacks.
280
What type of pointing device features a ball and buttons on the top and a flat, steady surface on the bottom? a) mouse b) touchpad c) trackball d) trackpad
c) track ball A trackball is a sort of stationary mouse that has the ball for movement detection on the top of the device along with the keys. The ball is actuated by the thumb or fingers, not by moving the device along a flat surface or mouse pad. Trackballs are ideal where desk space is limited. There is no such thing as a trackpad.
281
VGA-based video technologies use what type of signal between the adapter and monitor? a) Digital b) Analog c) Compressed d) Composite
b) analog VGA signals are analog, uncompressed, component signals that carry all the video information for all three components of the original RGB signal.
282
 Which of the following would be the best choice as a personal display technology if a user wants to save desk space and not have to deal with interference from nearby speakers? a) CRT b) HDMI c) LCD d) Projector
c)LCD LCDs do not have electron guns that are aimed by magnets as CRTs do. This difference makes LCDs more compatible with nearby speaker magnets. Additionally, the cathode ray tube for which CRT monitors are named is a rather bulky component, requiring more desk space to accommodate the CRT’s cabinet. Projectors are not common personal display devices; they are used more in group environments. HDMI is a standard for connecting display devices, not a type of display device.
283
An associate is trying to explain why a particular model of CRT monitor displays images in such high quality but is unable to recall a specific term. The associate mentions that each phosphor is on average only 0.25mm away from the nearest phosphor of the same color. What is the associate trying to describe? a) Resolution b) Dot pitch c) Refresh rate d) The number of dots per inch
b) Dot pitch The associate is trying to think of the term dot pitch . Essentially, dot pitch is the height of a dot-phosphor trio added to the distance between the next dot trio in the same direction. It works out to be the distance from any point on one dot to the same point on the next dot of the same color. The smaller this number, the better the display quality. The number of dots per inch is a similar concept but inversely proportional and not measured in fractions of a millimeter. Resolution is a software concept; dot phosphors are hardware related. The refresh rate has nothing to do with how close the
284
Which of the following is true regarding a monitor’s refresh rate? a) The concept of refresh rate has no meaning with regard to LCDs. b) LCDs are preferred to CRTs because they can display a larger range of resolutions. c) LCDs tend not to be as clear as CRTs. d) LCDs require more power than CRTs.
d)As you lower the resolution, the maximum refresh rate allowed tends to increase. The maximum allowable refresh rate does tend to be affected by the resolution you choose in the operating system. The refresh rate is most often expressed in cycles per second (Hz), not millions of cycles per second (MHz). You must usually select the refresh rate you want from the display settings dialog boxes, not through the monitor’s built-in menu system, although the monitor’s system can often tell you which refresh rate you’re using. Finally, both the monitor and adapter must agree on the refresh rate you select. If either device does not support a particular refresh rate, such a rate cannot be used.
285
If you are unable to display a given resolution on a monitor, which of the following might explain why? a) The graphics adapter does not have enough memory installed. b) The video display unit does not have enough memory installed. c) You are using a CRT with a single fixed resolution. d) You have the refresh rate set too high.
a) The graphic adapter does not have enough memory installed. The amount of memory installed on a graphics adapter is directly related to how many pixels can be displayed at one time and how many colors the pixels can be set to. Monitors don’t have memory installed in them. LCDs, not CRTs, have a single, fixed resolution called the native resolution. By default, you might be limited to a particular refresh rate because the resolution is too high, but the refresh rate is automatically adjusted down, if necessary, when you select a resolution.
286
Which video technology has a resolution of 1280 x 1024? a) SVGA b) SXGA c) WSXGA d) UXGA
b)SXGA | SXGA has a resolution of 1280 x 1024. Consult Table 4.1 for the resolutions that characterize other technologies.
287
What does a Q  in video resolution names, such as QXGA, refer to? a) Both the horizontal and vertical components of the resolution have been quadrupled. b) The resolution is cut to one-fourth. c) The technology is faster. d) Both the horizontal and vertical components of the resolution have been doubled.
d)Both the horizontal and vertical components of the resolution have been doubled. Although the Q  stands for quad , the pixel count for each axis is only doubled, resulting in four times as many total pixels.
288
What is contrast ratio? a) Contrast ratio is a selling point for LCDs. Higher contrast ratios mean darker blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent pixels is known as contrast, not contrast ratio. b) A term that was used with CRTs but has no meaning with LCDs c) The ratio of luminance between two adjacent pixels d) Something that can be corrected through degaussing
a)The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be displayed Contrast ratio is a selling point for LCDs. Higher contrast ratios mean darker blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent pixels is known as contrast, not contrast ratio.
289
Which of the following display types physically creates the image displayed in a manner most similar to OLED displays? a) CRT b) LED c) LCD d) Plasma
d) plasma Both OLED and plasma displays use electrodes to excite the material in a sealed chamber to produce light. Each in its own way uses that light to create red, green, or blue light within individual subpixels. Plasma is more akin to CRT in that they both use chemical phosphors to create the red, green, and blue hues. In contrast to the way CRTs and PDPs produce color, OLEDs natively produce these colors of light without the use of filters or phosphors.
290
When approaching an older LCD panel from the side, you don’t realize there is actually an image displayed on it until you are almost in front of it. Which two options might explain why you could not detect the image from the side? (Choose two.) a) Older LCDs were equipped with a motion sensor. b) Multiple monitors are in use, and the LCD is the secondary monitor, resulting in its poor oblique visibility. c) The user has a privacy filter in place. d) The monitor employs active-matrix pixel addressing. e) It is a passive-matrix LCD panel.
c) The user has a privacy filter in place. e) It is a passive-matrix LCD panel. Older LCD panels might have employed a passive-matrix addressing for their pixels, resulting in a poorer viewing angle than that created by active-matrix LCD panels. Additionally, privacy filters intentionally limit the angle of screen visibility by changing the light’s polarization when viewed from the side. Antiglare filters might unintentionally do the same thing.
291
On which properties tab do you select the refresh rate to use between the graphics adapter and monitor in Windows Vista? a) Adapter b) Monitor c) Advanced d) Display Settings
b Monitor Although it’s true that you must start with the Display Settings dialog box, which ironically shows a single tab labeled Monitor, and that you subsequently click the Advanced Settings button, it’s on the Monitor properties tab thereafter that you select the refresh rate. The Adapter tab in those same properties pages has no selection for refresh rate.
292
After a presentation using a video projector, when in a hurry to pack everything up and head to the airport, which of the following should you avoid doing immediately? a) Unplugging the projector’s power cable b) Unplugging the projector’s video cable from your laptop c) Powering down the projector d) Turning off your laptop
a)Unplugging the projector’s power cable Unplugging the power to the projector before the projector’s fan has had the opportunity to cool the unit and stop running on its own can lead to expensive repairs on the projector or to the cost of replacing the projector outright.
293
What might cause your display to appear in a resolution of 640 x 480 a) You have your resolution set to SVGA. b) You added memory to your graphics adapter but have not informed the BIOS of the new memory. c) You have your resolution set to XGA. d) You have booted XP into Safe Mode.
d)You have booted XP into Safe Mode. Safe Mode in XP disables as many nonessential drivers and services as possible. One of the nonessential drivers it disables is the driver for the graphics adapter. Windows uses its standard VGA driver to control the graphics adapter while you are in Safe Mode. Another reason for defaulting back to standard VGA is that you might have a corrupt or incorrect driver for your adapter.
294
Which of the following results can occur with improper display settings? a) The computer spontaneously reboots. b) The graphics adapter automatically chooses to use the highest supported resolution. c) You might have to scroll to see parts of the Desktop. d) The mouse cursor changes or permanently disappears.
c)You might have to scroll to see parts of the Desktop. If your monitor allows you to change the resolution, it might not actually allow you to change the resolution. As confusing as that sounds, your monitor might maintain its optimal hardware resolution, such as an LCD’s native resolution, and force you to scroll to see any pixels created by the chosen software resolution that it cannot fit on the hardware screen at that particular moment.
295
What is the single, fixed resolution of an LCD called? a) Native resolution b) Default resolution c) Refresh rate d) Burned-in resolution
a)Native resolution An LCD’s native resolution is the single, fixed resolution that provides optimal clarity.
296
Which of the following is it possible to do with multimonitor settings? a) Connect multiple monitors to your computer only by using a graphics adapter with two video interfaces. b) Cause two different Desktops to merge onto the same monitor. c) Connect two laptops together so they display the same Desktop. d) Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors.
d) Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors. The multimonitor feature allows two monitors to display exactly the same thing (clone) or to extend your Desktop onto the second monitor. There is no need to use one adapter to achieve this result. In fact, the two adapters don’t even have to use the same expansion-bus architecture. The two cards must, however, use the same graphics-adapter driver.
297
Which of the following types of LCD has the best performance characteristics? a) Active matrix b) Passive matrix c) Dual matrix d) Dual scan
a)Active matrix Active matrix technology is superior to passive matrix. Dual scan is merely an enhanced form of passive matrix but is not on par with active matrix. Dual matrix isn’t an LCD type.
298
Which of the following resolutions is an example of a 16:10 aspect ratio? a) 1280 x 1024 b) 1920 x 1200 c) 800 x 600 d) 2048 x 1536
b)1920 x 1200 Dividing 16 by 10 produces a value of 1.6. Dividing the first number of a 16:10 resolution by the second number always results in 1.6. Resolutions with a 4:3 aspect ratio produce the value 1.333, while 5:4 resolutions such as 1280 x 1024 produce the value 1.25.
299
Where can you find the best degaussing tool for modern CRT monitors? a) At a computer specialty shop b) At a consumer electronics store c) Built into the monitor d) As a freeware download
c)Built into the monitor The built-in degaussing tool of the latest CRT monitors is designed to work with the monitor in which it is found. External degaussing tools, while effective, can be a little hard on the delicate inner workings of the CRT. Software alone cannot degauss a CRT monitor.
300
What is the unit of measure used by manufacturers of projectors to indicate the brightness of their product? a) Lux b) Lumens c) Watts d) Candelas
b) Lumens A lumen is a unit of measure for the total amount of visible light that the projector gives off, based solely on what the human eye can perceive.
301
Which of the following is not  a requirement for a graphic design workstation? a) Fast hard b) Maximum RAM c) Powerful CPU d) High-end video
a) Fast hard drive Graphics design and CAD/CAM design workstations do not require a fast hard drive because the artist works with static images that do not stream from the drive. However, RAM in which to hold the highly detailed, sometimes 3D artwork before saving, a powerful processor for implementing complex algorithms on a small amount of information during rendering, and high-end video for assisting in the rendering and display of the images are necessary.
302
Which of the following is required when constructing an A/V editing workstation? a) Gigabit NIC b) Power processor c) Maximum RAM d) Fast hard drive
d) Fast hard drive A/V editing workstations require specialized audio and video cards and large and fast hard drives and benefit from dual monitors. A fast NIC, extra RAM, and a faster than normal processor do not support the requirements of A/V editors.
303
Why do virtualization workstations require as many CPU cores as possible? a) Each virtual machine has one or more cores installed directly in it. b) Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data. c) Fault tolerance dictates that if one CPU core fails, there should be one or more in line to take its place. d) Because each guest operating system runs in its own space, multiple cores are required to store the collective data.
b)Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data. Virtual machines do not imply virtual processing. The data storage, processing cycles, and RAM usage are all real. The separate hard drive and chassis for each operating system are virtual. The other answers all have at least one fundamental problem with their logic. CPU cores are not installed in virtual machines but in CPU packages within physical machines. CPU cores do not take over for each other. There is no fault tolerance among them. Storing data is the job of RAM, which should also be maximized for virtualization workstations.
304
Why is high-end cooling a requirement for gaming PCs? a) Gaming PCs tend to overclock their CPUs and run multiple high-performance GPUs. b) Gaming controllers have components for tactile realism that generate copious amounts of heat. c) Digital sound cards generate more heat than analog sound cards. d) Placing that many hard drives in such a small space generates too much heat.
a)Gaming PCs tend to overclock their CPUs and run multiple high-performance GPUs. The processors found in a gaming PC are many, and the CPU is often overclocked. Such a configuration generates too much heat for conventional cooling to dissipate before the system is damaged. These machines don’t have unusual hard-drive requirements. The cooling has no effect on external controllers, and sound cards don’t generate much heat, but analog would certainly generate more than digital.
305
Which of the following is not  a common requirement of a home theater PC? a) Surround sound b) HDMI c) Mirco-ATX case d) TV turner
c)Micro-ATX case Home theater PCs are based on the mini-ITX motherboard and have their own form factor, HTPC, a more compact form factor than chassis made for micro-ATX boards.
306
Which type of system simply needs to run standard versions of Windows and desktop applications? a) Thin Client b) Thick Client c) Home Server PC d) Virtualization workstation
b) Thick Client Thick clients are standard desktop PCs. They stand in contrast to systems with specialized requirements, such as the remaining options.
307
Which of the following descriptions most closely matches that of a thin client? a) A high-resolution monitor, keyboard, and mouse b) A computer with a low-profile case c) A laptop d) A dumb terminal with a NIC
d) A dumb terminal with a NIC Although not all thin clients are devoid of local processing capability, some are. High-resolution graphics are not a requirement of thin clients, but even such systems require a system unit with a NIC.
308
Why should you equip a home server PC with a gigabit NIC? a) All systems, including the server, should communicate at the same speed. b) The server should not be allowed to communicate at the higher speeds of the rest of the network or it will be overused. c) The server should not be allowed to communicate at the higher speeds of the rest of the network or it will be overused.' d) The operating system home servers run is not compatible with Fast Ethernet.
c)The server should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck. Optimally, the server should communicate across a link that is the aggregate of all client links, but at the least, the server’s link should be a faster one to alleviate the potential bottleneck when all clients try to access the server simultaneously.
309
Which of the following reasons justifies having a powerful processor in a CAD/CAM workstation? a) Only powerful processors can stream graphical information efficiently. b) Manufacturing equipment is generally faster than design equipment, which needs faster processors to keep up. c) Graphics adapters used in CAD/CAM do not have their own processors, so the CPU performs this job as well. d) The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be processor intensive.
d)The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be processor intensive. Quite simply, the rendering of 2D and 3D graphics makes use of complex algorithms that need all the processing power they can get to remain usable. These stations deal with static images, not streaming video. Manufacturing equipment is generally slower than computers used for the design phase. These workstations call for high-end video, which includes graphics adapters with GPUs often more powerful than the system’s CPU.
310
Why do A/V editing workstations benefit from more than one monitor? a) Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped. b) While one graphics adapter works on one rendering project, the other can simply display a normal desktop. c) Once the editing is complete, the second monitor is used to present the results to others on the team. d) Additional monitors are used for remote collaboration among other editors.
a)Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped. Editors of this type of media have numerous controls and timelines to keep track of. These constructs often lie along the bottom of the application and run horizontally. Subsequent monitors allow the editor to spread out without shrinking the view excessively.
311
Which of the following is required by a virtualization workstation? a) Multiple host operating systems b) Maximum RAM allowed c) File sharing services d) Multiple NICs
b)Maximum RAM allowed Maximum RAM and CPU cores are the primary requirements for such systems. Although there are multiple guest operating systems, generally there is but one host to those guests. File sharing may be a service the administrator decides to offer, and multiple NICs might prove advantageous with virtual machines that are popular among the clients, but these workstations do not require either.
312
All of the following are recommended for gaming PCs except  ___________________ . a) High-end cooling b) A RAID array c) High-end video d) Better sound card
b)A RAID array Gaming PCs are not known for requiring fault tolerance or data persistence. RAID arrays, therefore, are generally not included. The other components are a benefit for gaming PCs, however.
313
Which of the following system types does not  require a CPU enhancement of any sort? a) A/V editing workstation b) Gaming PC c) Graphic design workstation d) Virtualization workstation
a) A/V editing workstation A/V editing workstations require video enhancements and a hard drive capable of storing a large quantity of data and accessing it quickly. The other system types require faster or more plentiful processors.
314
Which of the following is the recommended video output technology for home theater PCs? a) DVI b) WUXGA c) HDMI d) YCbCr
c) HDMI Because of its exceptional capabilities of digital video and audio output as well as its potential for support of future standards, HDMI is the home-theater video output technology of choice. Neither DVI nor component (YCbCr and YPbPr) can make the same claims. WUXGA is a resolution of 1920x1200 and not a video output technology.
315
Which of the following is a common feature of a standard thick client? a) Has enhanced video capabilities b) Has a high-performance hard drive c) Has as much RAM installed as is possible d) Can run a full version of Windows
d)Can run a full version of Windows These standard systems do not have any special requirements, just that they can run Windows and desktop applications.
316
In a thin client configuration, if the operating system is not resident on the client, where is it normally found? a) On a DVD inserted at bootup b) On a USB flash drive c) On the server for session-by-session client use d) Embedded in a flash module on the motherboard
c)On the server for session-by-session client use Clients request services of servers. Thin clients can request software services from their servers, whether in the form of running the software and passing the results to the client or passing the code of the software to the client to be executed by its processor and kept only in RAM.
317
Which of the following is not  a common requirement in a home server PC? a) File and print sharing b) File and print sharing c) Gigabit NIC d) Media streaming
b) Maximum RAM Additional RAM in the home server PC offers no advantage for the performance of the server past a certain point. The tasks the server is asked to perform do not require high performance.
318
All of the following systems benefit from increased RAM except  ___________________ . (Choose two.) a) Home theater PC b) Virtualization workstation c) Graphic design workstation d) Gaming PC
a) Home theater PC d) Gaming PC Virtualization and graphic design workstations benefit from as much RAM as can be installed. Home theater PCs and gaming PCs do not require a large amount of temporary storage of instructions and data. They are more about the rapid movement of graphical data toward an output device.
319
Which of the following uses would not  require a custom configuration for a PC? a) A computer running Windows 7 Ultimate with 1TB of data and 250GB of applications installed b) A computer running WHS 2011 c) A design computer used to drive a lathe that makes automotive rims d) A computer to replace a BD player and DVR
a)A computer running Windows 7 Ultimate with 1TB of data and 250GB of applications installed The Windows 7 computer can be built as a normal system with a 2TB or 3TB drive. WHS 2011 needs a home server PC. The rims are crafted by a type of CAD/CAM workstation capable of CNC. A home theater PC is an ideal choice to take the place of both the BD player and DVR.
320
Which of the following system types does not  benefit from video enhancements? a) CAD/CAM design workstation b) Home server PC c) A/V editing workstation d) Home theater PC
c)Home server PC The clients of the home server PC that use the server for streaming video content might benefit from enhanced video, but the server will not.
321
____________________ is immune to electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference. a) Twisted-pair cabling b) CSMA/CD c) Broadband coaxial cabling d) Fiber-optic cabling
d)Fiber-optic cabling Companies that want to ensure the safety and integrity of their data should use fiber-optic cable because it cannot be affected by electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference. Even though some copper cables have shielding, they are not immune to EMI or RFI. This eliminates twisted-pair and coaxial. CSMA/CD is an access method, not a cable type.
322
Which IEEE 802 standard defines a bus topology using coaxial baseband cable and is able to transmit at 10Mbps? a) 802.1 b) 802.2 c) 802.3 d) 802.5
c) 802.3 The IEEE 802.3 standard originally specified the use of a bus topology with coaxial baseband cable and can transmit data up to 10Mbps.
323
Which OSI layer signals “all clear” by making sure the data segments are error free? a) Application layer b) Session layer c) Transport layer d) Network layer
c) Transport layer It is the responsibility of the Transport layer to signal an “all clear” by making sure the data segments are error free. It also controls the data flow and troubleshoots any problems with transmitting or receiving data frames.
324
___________________ is the type of media access method used by NICs that listen to or sense the cable to check for traffic and send only when they hear that no one else is transmitting. a) Token passing b) CSMA/CD c) CSMA/CA d) Demand priority
b)CSMA/CD Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) specifies that the NIC pause before transmitting a packet to ensure that the line is not being used. If no activity is detected, then it transmits the packet. If activity is detected, it waits until it is clear. In the case of two NICs transmitting at the same time (a collision), both NICs pause to detect and then retransmit the data.
325
What model is used to provide a common way to describe network protocols? a) OSI b) ISO c) IEEE d) CSMA/CD
a) OSI The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is used to describe how network protocols should function. The OSI model was designed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
326
A physical star topology consists of several workstations that branch off a central device called a ____________________ . a) NIC b) Bridge c) Router d) HUB
d) HUB At the center of a star topology is a hub or a switch. A NIC is a network card, which each computer must have to be on the network. Bridges and routers are higher-level connectivity devices that connect network segments or networks together.
327
Of all network cabling options, ___________________ offers the longest possible segment length. a) Unshielded twisted-pair b) Coaxial c) Fiber-optic d) Shielded twisted-pair
c) Fiber optic Fiber-optic cable can span distances of several kilometers because it has much lower attenuation, crosstalk, and interference in comparison to copper cables.
328
What devices transfer packets across multiple networks and use tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination? a) Router b) Bridges c) Hubs d) Switches
a) routers Routers are designed to route (transfer) packets across networks. They are able to do this routing, and determine the best path to take, based on internal routing tables they maintain.
329
In which network design do users access resources from other workstations rather than from a central location? a) Client-server b) Star c) Ring d) Peer-to-peer
d) peer-to-peer A peer-to-peer network has no servers, so all of the resources are shared from the various workstations on which they reside. This is the opposite of a client-server network, in which the majority of resources are located on servers that are dedicated to responding to client requests.
330
Which of the following wireless communication standards is often described in terms of a wireless personal area network? a) Bluetooth b) Infrared c) Cellular d) Ethernet
a) bluetooth Bluetooth networks are often called wireless personal area networks (WPANs).
331
Which of the following statements are not  associated with a star network? (Choose all that apply.) a) A single cable break can cause complete network disruption. b) All devices connect to a central device. c) It uses a single backbone computer to connect all network devices. d) It uses a dual-ring configuration.
a) A single cable break can cause complete network disruption. c) All devices connect to a central device. d) It uses a dual-ring configuration. In a star network, all systems are connected using a central device such as a hub or a switch. The network is not disrupted for other users when more systems are added or removed. The star network design is used with today’s UTP-based networks. In a star network, all systems are connected using a central device such as a hub or a switch. The network is not disrupted for other users when more systems are added or removed. The star network design is used with today’s UTP-based networks.
332
If you are going to run a network cable in the space above the drop ceiling in your office, which type of cable should you use? a) Plenum b) PVC c) Coaxial d) Fiber-optic
a)Plenum For areas where a cable must be fire retardant, such as in a drop ceiling, you must run plenum-grade cable. Plenum refers to the coating on the sleeve of the cable, not the media (copper or fiber) within the cable itself. PVC is the other type of coating typically found on network cables, but it produces poisonous gas when burned.
333
Which of the following connector types is an MFF connector? a) BNC b) ST c) SC d) LC
d) LC The local connector (LC) is a mini form factor (MFF) fiber-optic connector developed by Lucent Technologies. If it helps, think of LC as “Little Connector.”
334
The local connector (LC) is a mini form factor (MFF) fiber-optic connector developed by Lucent Technologies. If it helps, think of LC as “Little Connector.” a) Toner probe b) Cable tester c) Multimeter d) Lookback plug
a) toner probe A toner probe will allow you to check the physical path of a cable through something like a wall. Cable testers will test to see if the cable works. Multimeters can test voltage and see if a cable is operational as well. Loopback plugs are used to test network adapters.
335
A toner probe will allow you to check the physical path of a cable through something like a wall. Cable testers will test to see if the cable works. Multimeters can test voltage and see if a cable is operational as well. Loopback plugs are used to test network adapters. a) 6 b) 7 c) 21 d) 42
c)21 In a mesh network, the number of connections is determined by the formula n(n-1)/2. With seven computers, that means 21 connections.
336
Which tool is used by technicians to connect an RJ-45 connector to the end of a cable? a) Punch-down tool b) Crimper c) Cable tester d) Looopback plug
b) Crimper A crimper can attach connectors to the end of a network cable. A punch-down tool will attach a cable to a wiring frame such as a 110 block. Cable testers will see if the cable works properly after you’ve created it. A loopback plug is for testing network cards.
337
What type of device will block unwanted traffic from your network using a set of rules called an ACL? a) Router b) Firewall c) Internet appliance d) NAS
b) Firewall The job of a firewall is to block unwanted traffic. Firewalls do this by using a list of rules called an access control list (ACL). Routers connect networks to each other. Internet appliances give the user Internet access. A network attached storage (NAS) device is like a dedicated file server.
338
What type of coaxial cable is recommended for digital television cable signals? a) RG-6 b) RG-8 c) RG-58 d) RG-59
a) RG-6 The two RG standards used for cable television are RG-6 and RG-59. Of the two, RG-6 is better and can handle digital signals. RG-59 is for analog signals only. RG-8 is thicknet coax, and RG-58 is thinnet coax.
339
Which of the following devices work at Layer 2 of the OSI model? (Choose two.) a) HUB b) Router c) Bridge d) Switch
c) Bridge d) Switch Bridges and switches are Layer 2 devices. Hubs work at Layer 1, and routers work at Layer 3. Note that some switches are called multilayer switches and will work at Layer 3 as well.
340
Transmitting at 10Gbps, how far can signals on an MMF cable travel? a) 100 meters b) 550 metes c) 1kilometer d) 40 kilometers
b) 550 meters Multimode fiber (MMF) can transmit up to 550 meters, depending on the Ethernet specification. Other standards using MMF can transmit only up to 300 meters. If you need to transmit up to 40 kilometers, you will need to use single-mode fiber (SMF).
341
 You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want client computers to automatically obtain IP configuration information. Which type of server do you need for this? a) DNS b) DHCP c) Domain controller d) IP configuration server
b)DHCP A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration information to hosts when they join the network. A Domain Name System (DNS) server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A domain controller may provide login authentication, but it does not provide IP configuration information. There is no IP configuration server.
342
You have a computer with the IP address 171.226.18.1. What class is this address? a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Not a valid IP address
b) Class B Class A addresses have a first octet between 1 and 126, Class B between 128 and 191, and class C between 192 and 223. With a first octet of 171, this is a Class B address.
343
Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 80? a) HTTP b) HTTPS c) Telnet d) POP3
a) HTTP HTTP uses port 80. HTTPS uses 443, Telnet 23, and POP3 110.
344
What is the maximum number of IPv6 addresses that can be assigned to one IPv6 interface? a) One ( unicast) b) Two ( unicast and anycast) c) Three (unicast,anycast,and (multicast) d) None of the above
d) none of the above An IPv6 interface is not limited in the number of addresses it can be assigned, although there could be limitations based upon practicality.
345
Which of the following are valid examples of IPv6 addresses? (Choose three.) a) 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab b) ::ffff:c0a8:173 c) 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab d) 2001::1ab4::5468
a) 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab b) ::ffff:c0a8:173 c) 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab An IPv6 address contains 128 bits, written in eight 16-bit fields represented by four hexadecimal digits. Option A contains all eight fields expressed in full. Option B is an IPv4 address expressed in IPv6 form. Option C is the same address as option A but written in accepted shorthand. Option D is not valid because the double colons (::) can be used only once within an address.
346
Which of the following IP addresses would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet? a) 10.25.11.33 b) 18.33.66.254 c) 155.11863.11 d) 192.186.12.2
a) 10.25.11.33 DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses. On the Internet, a DNS server needs to have a public IP address. The address 10.25.11.33 is in a private address space, so that address would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet.
347
The workstations on your network are configured to use a DHCP server. One of the workstations can’t communicate with other computers. Its IP address is 169.254.1.18. What could be the problem? a) The subnet mask is wrong. b) It has a private IP address. c) The default gateway is wrong. d) It can’t reach the DHCP server.
d)It can’t reach the DHCP server. The address assigned to the computer is an APIPA address. Microsoft client computers (and others) will configure themselves with an address in this range if they are unable to reach a DHCP server.
348
Which of the following protocols is responsible for sending email? a) IMAP4 b) POP3 c) SMTP d) SNMP
c) SMTP Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is responsible for sending email. IMAP4 and POP3 both receive email. SNMP is a network management protocol.
349
What port does the RDP protocol work on? a) 53 b) 143 c) 389 d) 3389
d) 3389 Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) works on port 3389. DNS works on port 53, IMAP4 works on 143, and LDAP works on 389.
350
Which two TCP/IP protocols work at the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model? (Choose two.) a) IP b) ARP c) TCP d) UDP
c) TCP d) UDP The two protocols that work at the Host-to-Host layer are TCP and UDP. IP and ARP both work at the Internet layer.
351
What are two advantages that TCP has over UDP? (Choose two.) a) Acknowledged delivery b) Faster delivery c) Lower overhead d) Virtual circuits
a) Acknowledge delivery d) Virtual circuits TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that establishes virtual circuits and acknowledges delivery of packets. Because of these features, it has higher overhead than UDP and is a little slower.
352
Your friend is concerned about the security of making an online purchase. What should you tell him to look for in the address bar of the web browser? a) HTTP b) HTTPS c) SSH d) SFTP
b) HTTPS The HTTP protocol is inherently unsecure, but the HTTPS protocol is secure. (SSH and SFTP are secure as well, but they are not protocols used to connect to websites.)
353
You are manually configuring a TCP/IP host. Another administrator gives you the router’s IP address. What is the TCP/IP term for this? a) Default gateway b) Subnet mask c) DNS server d) DHCP Server
a) default gateway The router is your doorway out into other networks and is known in TCP/IP terms as the default gateway. Without this configuration option, you will not be able to get to external networks.
354
Your network is running IPv4. Which of the configuration options are mandatory for your host to communicate on the network? (Choose two.) a) IP address b) Subnet mast c) Default gateway d) DNS server address
a) IP address b) Subnet mask The only mandatory IPv4 configuration items are an IP address and a subnet mask. If you are not connecting to another network, you do not need a default gateway. DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses but they are not mandatory.
355
Which of the following protocols is used for secure delivery of email? a) SMTP b) SNMP c) POP3 d) IMAP4
d) IMAP4 IMAP4 and POP3 are the two protocols that are used for email delivery. Of the two, only IMAP4 provides security features. SMTP sends email. SNMP is a network management protocol.
356
Which protocol was developed to be a secure alternative to Telnet? a) SMB b) SSH c) SNMP d) SFTP
b) SSH The Secure Shell (SSH) was developed as a secure alternative to Telnet. SMB is Server Message Block, which is a network file system. SNMP is for network management. SFTP is designed for secure file downloads. It’s a secure analogy to FTP, not a replacement for Telnet.
357
Which of the following protocols uses TCP port 23? a) Telnet b) SSH c) FTP d) DNS
a) Telnet Telnet uses port 23. SSH uses port 22. FTP uses ports 21 and 20. DNS uses port 53.
358
Which of the following is an IPv6 broadcast address? a) ::1 b) FE80:: c) FF00:: d) ::FFFF e) None of the above
e) None of the above IPv6 does not have broadcasts. IPv6 does have multicasts, which are a bit like targeted broadcasts. FF00:: is the first part of a multicast address.
359
You are setting up a small network that will not connect to the Internet. You want computers to be able to locate each other by using hostnames. What service will do this? a) DNS b) DHCP c) FTP d) APIPA
a) DNS DNS is typically known as a name resolver on the Internet, but it will work on private networks as well. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures clients with IP address information. FTP is for file downloads. APIPA is a process used to automatically assign clients a private IP address when they can’t reach the DHCP server.
360
Which of the following protocols is responsible for resolving IP addresses to hardware addresses? a) DNS b) DHCP c) ARP d) RARP
c) ARP The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves IP addresses to hardware (MAC) addresses. RARP does the reverse—it resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures TCP/IP clients.
361
 Which of the following wireless IEEE standards operate on the 2.4GHz radio frequency and are directly compatible with each other? (Choose two.) a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11d d) 802.11g
b) 802.11 b d) 802.11 g Both 802.11b and 802.11g operate in the 2.4GHz range and use similar transmission standards. Many devices on the market are listed as 802.11b/g, meaning they will work with either system. Alternatively, 802.11a operates in the 5GHz range. Finally, 802.11d is not a commonly implemented standard.
362
What is the primary function of the SSID? a) Secure communication between a web server and browser b) Secure communication between a server and remote host c) A type of password used to help secure a wireless connection d) A type of password used to secure an Ethernet 802.3 connection
c) A type of password used to help secure a wireless connection A service-set identifier (SSID) is the unique name given to the wireless network. All hardware that is to participate on the network must be configured to use the same SSID. Essentially, it is the network name. When you are using Windows to connect to a wireless network, all available wireless networks will be listed by their SSID.
363
Which two of the following are standards for cellular communications? a) GSM b) SIG c) CDMA d) CCFL
a) GSM c) CDMA The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) and Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) are cellular standards. A SIG is a special interest group, and cold cathode fluorescent lamp (CCFL) is a backlight on a laptop.
364
What is the most secure wireless encryption standard for 802.11 networks? a) WEP b) WPA c) WPA2 d) SAFER+
c) WPA2 WEP was the original encryption standard developed for WiFi networks, but it is easily hacked. WPA is an upgrade, but WPA2 is more secure and incorporates the entire 802.11i standard. SAFER+ is used to encrypt Bluetooth communications.
365
What level of QoS is designated for interactive voice and video? a) 1 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
c) 5 QoS level 5 is designated for interactive voice and video, with less than 100ms delay. Level 1 is for background applications and is low priority. Level 4 is known as controlled load, which is lower priority than interactive voice and video. Level 6 only has 10ms latency but is reserved for control traffic.
366
You have just installed a wireless router on your home network. Which of the following should you do to make it highly secure? (Choose two.) a) Change the default administrator name and password. b) Change the SSID. c) Enable WEP. d) Configure it to channel 11.
a) Change the default administrator name and password. b) Change the SSID You should always change the default administrator name and password as well as the default SSID when installing a new wireless router. Enabling encryption is also a good idea, but WPA and WPA2 are better options than WEP. The channel has nothing to do with security.
367
You are setting up a small office network for a client. Which Internet service would you recommend to provide the best speed? a) DSL b) Dial-up c) Satellite d) BRI ISDN e) PRI ISDN
a) DSL Of the options listed, DSL provides the fastest speed. DSL can easily provide 12Mbps downloads. Dial-up is limited to 56Kbps, and ISDN BRI (128Kbps) and PRI (about 1.5Mbps) don’t even come close. Satellite is also much slower than DSL.
368
Which service allows users with private IP addresses to access the Internet using a public IP address? a) DHCP b) DNS c) DMZ d) NAT
d) NAT Network Address Translation (NAT) allows users to have a private IP address and still access the Internet with a public IP address. NAT is installed on a router and translates the private IP address into a public one for the user to access the Internet. DHCP assigns IP configuration information to clients. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A DMZ is an area on a network between an external router and an internal router.
369
You are installing a single 802.11g wireless network. The office space is large enough that you need three WAPs. What channels should you configure the WAPs on to avoid communication issues? a) 2,5, and 7 b) 1,8,and 14 c) 1,6,and 11 d) 3,6,and 9
c) 1,6, and 11 There are 14 communication channels in the 2.4GHz range, but only the first 11 are configurable. The three non-overlapping channels are 1, 6, and 11.
370
You are setting up a wireless network. Which wireless standards would give the users over 40Mbps throughput? (Choose three.) a) 802.11a b) 802.11g d) 802.11n
a) 802.11a c) 802.11g d) 802.11n Three current standards, 802.11a (54Mbps), 802.11g (54Mbps), and 802.11n (450Mbps) give users the required throughput.
371
Which of the following are 4G standards? (Choose two.) a) LTE b) GSM c) CDMA d) WiMAX
a) LTE d) WiMAX LTE and WiMAX are 4G standards. GSM and CDMA are cell phone communication standards. (CDMA 2000 is the same as LTE, and it’s 4G, but CDMA by itself is not 4G.)
372
Which of the following wireless communication methods has an operational range of 1 meter with a viewing angle of 30 degrees? a) Bluetooth b) Infrared c) WiMAX d) Satellite
b) Infrared Infrared is limited to about 1 meter, with a viewing angle of about 30 degrees. Most Bluetooth devices can transmit up to 10 meters. WiMAX has a maximum range of about 5 miles. Satellite signals can travel from the surface of the Earth to a small metal can orbiting the planet.
373
Which of the following are advantages to using dial-up Internet service? (Choose two.) a) High speed b) Broad availability c) Low Cost d) High Security
b) Broad availability c) low cost Dial-up Internet is archaic by today’s standards, but it is widely available (anywhere there is phone service) and it’s generally lower in cost than other Internet access methods. It’s definitely not high speed, and its security is really no different than that of broadband Internet access methods.
374
Which of the following security standards was the first to introduce a dynamic 128-bit per-packet security key? a) WEP b) TKIP c) AES d) CCMP
b) TKIP WEP could use a 64-bit or 128-bit security key, but it was a static key. TKIP introduced a dynamic per-packet key. AES and CCMP came after TKIP.
375
You are running an 802.11g wireless router in mixed mode. You have three 802.11g wireless NICs using the router. A new user connects using an 802.11b wireless NIC. What will happen? a) The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11Mbps while the users with 802.11g will access the network at 54Mbps. b) The user with 802.11b will not be able to communicate on the network. c) The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11Mbps. The users with 802.11g will access the network at 54Mbps unless they are communicating with the 802.11b device, which will be at 11Mbps. d) All users will access the network at 11Mbps.
d)All users will access the network at 11Mbps. The good news is that 802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b. The bad news is if you run in a mixed environment, all devices that communicate with the WAP (or router) will be forced to slow down to accommodate the older technology.
376
When enabled, which feature of a wireless router allows only specified computers to access the network? a) Port forwarding b) WPS c) SSID d) MAC filtering
d) MAC filtering MAC filtering is a security option that can specify that only computers with specific MAC (hardware) addresses can access the network. Port forwarding is a feature of firewalls. WPS is an easy setup mechanism for wireless networks. SSID is the wireless network name.
377
A firewall operates by using a set of rules known as what? a) SLA b) ACL c) Default deny d) DMZ
b) ACL The set of rules for access on a firewall is called an access control list (ACL). An SLA is an agreement on service level for QoS. Default deny is a good policy for firewalls because it doesn’t let any traffic through. A DMZ is a subnet located between an external network router and an internal router.
378
You have set up a wireless router on your network and configured it to use AES. What configuration option do you need to choose on the client computers? a) WEP b) WPA c) WPA2 d) TKIP
c) WPA2 If your router is using AES, the clients will need to use WPA2. TKIP is a protocol utilized by WPA. WEP is the weakest of the encryption options.
379
Besides 802.11 standards, which wireless communication method works in the 2.4GHz range? a) Bluetooth b) Infrared c) Satallite d) Cellular
a) Bluetooth Bluetooth also operates in the 2.4GHz range.
380
Which of the following broadband technologies provides two dedicated, digital data channels that can be combined for greater throughput? a) DSL b) Cable c) Satellite d) BRI ISDN e) PRI ISDN
d) BRI ISDN Basic rate interface ISDN (BRI ISDN) provides two separate 64Kbps B channels for data transmissions. These channels can be combined to increase throughput. A PRI ISDN uses 23 B channels. DSL, cable, and satellite do not offer multiple dedicated digital channels.
381
Where can you obtain the service manual for a laptop computer? a) By pressing F1 while in Windows b) By pressing F2 while the system is booting up c) With the laptop, as a paper copy d) From the manufacturer’s website
d) From the manufacturer’s website Laptop service manuals can be obtained from the manufacturer’s website. It’s very rare that paper service manuals are shipped with the laptop. Pressing F1 while in Windows will open Windows Help, and pressing F2 on many laptops during the system boot will take you into the BIOS.
382
Which of the following is not  a benefit of laptop design? a) Portability b) Increased performance c) Desktop replacement d) Higher - quality construction
b) Increase performance By and large, compromises always must be made when comparing laptops to desktops. Although laptops can be used as desktop replacements, their performance is almost always lower than comparably priced desktops.
383
Which of the following are components of an LCD? (Choose two.) a) Inverter b) Screen c) CRT d) Backdrop
a) Inverter b) Screen The components of an LCD screen are the inverter, screen, and backlight. The video card is also a key component of the LCD system. A CRT is a different technology than LCD.
384
Which laptop input device was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of laptops? a) Touchpad b) Mouse c) Point stick d) Trackball
c) point stick The Touchpoint point stick was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of laptops.
385
Which laptop accessory allows you to power your laptop from a car or airplane? a) AC adaper b) DC adapter c) Battery converter d) Automotive Wizard
b) DC Adapter A DC adapter converts the DC output from a car or airplane accessory power plug into the DC voltages required by your laptop.
386
A DC adapter converts the DC output from a car or airplane accessory power plug into the DC voltages required by your laptop. a) 72 b) 144 c) 172 d) 198
c) 172 MicroDIMMs can have 144 or 172 pins.
387
__________ is the fastest and most modern interface used as an expansion method for external peripherals, such as mice, web cams, scanners, and printers, and is popular on laptops and desktops alike. a) Parallel b) PS/2 c) USB d) ATA
c) USB __________ is the fastest and most modern interface used as an expansion method for external peripherals, such as mice, web cams, scanners, and printers, and is popular on laptops and desktops alike.
388
What type of connector does the Mini PCI IIIA standard use? a) 100-pin card edge b) 100-pin stacking c) 124-pin card edge d) 124-pin stacking
c) 124-pin card edge Mini PCI IIIA uses a 124-pin card edge connector, as does Mini PCI IIIB. Mini PCI standards IA, IB, IIA, and IIB use 100-pin stacking connectors.
389
Which laptop component is often upgraded with an external PCMCIA device? a) Video card b) Motherboard c) Network card d) Keyboard
c) network card Network cards are available in PCMCIA forms. If your network card fails or you need an upgrade, you can easily install an external PCMCIA NIC.
390
Which type of PC Card is used most often for expansion devices like NICs, sound cards, and so on? a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type !V
b) Type II A Type II PC Card is the type used most often for expansion devices like NICs, sound cards, SCSI controllers, modems, and so on.
391
Which of the following expansion buses uses serial communications and is capable of operating in USB and PCIe modes? a) Express Card b) Card Bus c) Mini PCI d) Fire Wire
a) Express card The ExpressCard bus brings USB 2.0 and PCIe to the small-form-factor computing industry. CardBus supports USB 1.1 and PCI only. Mini PCI is  PCI, not PCIe.
392
What should you do first to remove external devices from your laptop? a) Just remove the device. b) Unplug the power to the device, then remove the devices c) Click the Safe Remove Hardware icon. d) Click the Remove Hardware Now icon.
c) c) Click the Safe Remove Hardware icon. Before removing external hardware, you should click the Safely Remove Hardware icon.
393
PC Cards rely on which type of software to operate? (Choose two.) a) Cardmember Services b) Card Servvices c) Modem Services d) Socket Services
b) Card Service d) Socket Service The PC Card architecture has two components. The first is the Socket Services software, and the second is the Card Services software.
394
What component allows you to keep desktop devices such as keyboard, monitor, and mouse permanently connected so they can be used by an attached laptop? a) Docking station b) Keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch c) Print server d) USB hub
a) Docking station A docking station made specifically for its associated brand and model of laptop can host desktop components permanently, regardless of whether the laptop is attached to the docking station. When the laptop’s portability is not required, but instead use of the desktop components is the priority, attaching the laptop to the docking station makes such components available to the laptop without separately attaching each component.
395
The process by which the processor slows down to conserve power is officially called _________. a) Underclocking b) Cooling c) Disengaging d) Throttling
d) Throttling The processor can reduce how fast it’s working, which is called throttling, to help conserve battery life.
396
When replacing your laptop’s AC adapter, which of the following purchases is acceptable to obtain the same or better results? a)An AC adapter with a higher voltage rating than the original b) An AC adapter with a higher wattage rating than the original c)A DC adapter with the same voltage rating as the original d)An AC adapter with a lower voltage and wattage rating than the original
b) An AC adapter with a higher wattage rating than the original Think of wattage as a “bucket” of power that the attached device can draw on. A bigger bucket simply holds more power but does not force the power on the device. Less wattage is not advised, however. Voltage can be thought of as the pressure behind the power to the device. Anything but the proper voltage is dangerous for the device. When you replace a laptop’s AC adapter, you should match the voltage ratings of the original adapter. This also means you should use an adapter with a fixed voltage if that matches the characteristics of the original; otherwise, obtain one that automatically switches voltages at the levels needed.
397
What should you do for a Li-ion battery that appears to charge fully but does not last as long as the battery’s meter indicates it will last? a) Replace the battery. b) Exercise the battery. c) Calibrate the battery. d) Short the terminals to discharge the battery.
c) Calibrate the battery. Battery calibration for Li-ion batteries allows the powered device to drain the battery’s power before recharging. Battery exercising is the initial charging and discharging of nickel-based batteries so that they will function as expected. You should never short a battery’s terminals, and replacement is a last resort when any battery has reached the end of its life.
398
How do laptop hard drives differ from desktop hard drives? a) Laptop hard drives use completely different standards from those used by desktop hard drives for communication with the host. b) Laptop hard drives are solid state; desktop hard drives have spinning platters. c) Laptop hard drives require a separate power connection; desktop hard drives are powered through the drive interface. d) The most common form factor of a laptop hard drive is about an inch smaller than that of a desktop hard drive.
d) The most common form factor of a laptop hard drive is about an inch smaller than that of a desktop hard drive. Laptop hard drives commonly have a 2 1/2( form factor. The most common form factor for desktop hard drives is 3 1/2(. Laptop hard drives use the same drive technologies as their desktop counterparts, such as serial and parallel ATA. As with desktop hard drives, laptop hard drives are available in both solid-state and conventional varieties. Unlike desktop hard drives, laptop hard drives do not have separate power connectors.
399
What type of connector does a Mini PCI type IIA card have? a) 52-pin card edge b) 100-pin stacking c) 100-pin card edge d) 124-pin card edge
b) 100-pin stacking Mini PCI cards have either a 100-pin stacking connector or a 124-pin card edge connector. Type II cards have a 100-pin stacking connector. Mini PCIe cards have 52-pin card edge connectors.
400
Which of the following memory types has the smallest form factor? a) RIMM b) DIMM c) MicroDIMM d) SODIMM
c) MicroDIMM The SODIMM and MicroDIMM are the common laptop small-form factor memory standards. Of the two, MicroDIMM is smaller.
401
 Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in an EP process laser printer? a) +600VDC b) –600VDC c) +6000VDC d) -6000VDC
a) +600VDC Because the toner on the drum has a slight negative charge (–100VDC), it requires a positive charge to transfer it to the paper; +600VDC is the voltage used in an EP process laser printer.
402
Which types of printers are referred to as page printers because they receive their print job instructions one page at a time? (Choose two.) a) Daisy wheel b) Dot matrix c) Bubble-jet d) Laser e) Thermal
c) Bubble-jet d) Laser A page printer is a type of computer printer that prints a page at a time. Common types of page printers are the laser printer and the inkjet (or bubble-jet) printer.
403
Which of the following is not  an advantage of a Universal Serial Bus (USB) printer interface? a) It has a higher transfer rate than a serial connection. b) It has a higher transfer rate than a parallel connection. c) It automatically recognizes new devices. d) It allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.
It allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations. The rate of transfer and the ability to automatically recognize new devices are two of the major advantages that make USB the current most popular type of printer interface. However, it is the network printer interface that allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.
404
Which type of printers can be used with multipart forms? a) Bubble-jet printers b) Laser printer c) Thermal printer d) Dot-matrix printers
d) Dot-matrix printers Dot-matrix printers are impact printers and therefore can be used with multipart forms. Daisy wheel printers can be used with multipart forms as well.
405
Which step in the EP print process uses a laser to discharge selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum? a) Writing b) Transferring c) Developing d) Cleaning
a) Writing | The writing step uses a laser to discharge selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum.
406
Which of the following are page-description languages? (Choose two.) a) Page Description Language (PDL) b) PostScript c) PageScript d) Printer Control Language (PCL)
b) PostScript d) Printer Control Language (PCL) Of those listed, only PostScript and PCL are page-description languages. There is no PDL or PageScript.
407
What voltage does the corona wire or corona roller hold? a) +600VDC b) -600VDC c) 0VDC d) –100VDC
a) +600VDC For the toner (which has a charge of –600VDC) to be transferred from the print drum (which has a charge of –600VDC) to the paper, there must be a positive, or opposite, charge of greater difference to break the –600VDC charge from the drum.
408
Which device in a bubble-jet printer contains the print head? a) Toner cartridge b) Ink cartridge c) Daisy wheel d) Paper Tray
b) Ink cartridge In a bubble-jet printer, the ink cartridge is the actual print head. This is where the ink is expelled to form letters or graphics. Toner cartridges are used by laser printers to store toner. A daisy wheel is the device that impacts the letters on the paper in a daisy-wheel printer. Paper trays are the storage bins in laser printers and bubble-jet printers that allow the pickup rollers to feed the paper into the printer.
409
What is the correct order of the steps in the EP print process? a) Developing, writing, transferring, fusing, charging, cleaning b) Charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning c) Transferring, writing, developing, charging, cleaning, fusing d) Cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing
d) Cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing The correct sequence in the EP print process is cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, and fusing.
410
Any printer that uses the electrophotographic process contains how many standard assemblies? a) Five b) Six c) Four d) Nine
d) Nine There are nine standard assemblies in an electrophotographic process printer. Early laser printers using the electrographic process contained nine standard assemblies. Newer laser printers do not require an ozone filter and contain only eight standard assemblies.
411
What is typically included in the EP laser printer toner cartridge? (Choose three.) a) Toner b) Print drum c) Laser d) Cleaning blade
a) Toner b) Print drum d) Cleaning blade In an electrophotographic (EP) laser printer toner cartridge, the toner, print drum, and cleaning blade are all contained in the toner cartridge. The laser is usually contained within the printer, not within the toner cartridge.
412
What happens during the developing stage of laser printing? a) An electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner particles. b) Heat is applied to the paper to melt the toner. c) The laser creates an image of the page on the drum. d) An electrostatic charge is applied to the paper to attract toner particles.
a) An electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner particles. After a laser has created an image of the page, the developing roller uses a magnet and electrostatic charges to attract toner to itself and then transfers the toner to the areas on the drum that have been exposed to the laser. The toner is melted during the fusing stage. The laser creates an image of the page on the drum in the writing stage. An electrostatic charge is applied to the paper to attract toner in the transferring stage, which happens immediately after the developing stage.
413
Which of the following are possible interfaces for printers? (Choose three.) a) Parallel b) PS/2 c) Serial d) network
a) Parallel c) Serial d) network Printers can communicate via parallel, serial, USB, infrared, wireless, and network connections.
414
You have just installed a new printer. After it is installed, it prints only garbled text. Which of the following is likely the problem? a) Wrong IP address b) Worn print head c) Incorrect print drivers d) Unsupported printer
c) Incorrect print drivers If a printer is using out-of-date or incorrect printer drivers, the printer may produce pages of garbled text. The solution is to ensure that the most recent printer drivers are downloaded from the manufacturer’s website.
415
Which printer contains a wheel that looks like a flower with raised letters and symbols on each petal? a) Bubble-jet printers b) Daisy-wheel printer c) Dot-matrix printer d) Laser printer
b) Daisy-wheel printer The daisy-wheel printer gets its name because it contains a wheel with raised letters and symbols on each “petal.”
416
What part of a laser printer supplies the voltages for the charging and transfer corona assemblies? a) High-voltage power supply (HVPS) b) DC power supply (DCPS) c) Controller circuitry d) Transfer corona
a) High-voltage power supply (HVPS) The high-voltage power supply is the part of the laser printer that supplies the voltages for the charging and transfer corona assemblies.
417
Which printer part gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper? a) Laser-scanning assembly b) Fusing assembly c) Corona assenbly d) Drum
c) Corona assembly The transfer corona assembly gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper. For some printers, this is a transfer corona wire, and for others, it is a transfer corona roller.
418
Which step in the laser printer printing process occurs immediately after the writing phase? a) Charging b) Fusing c) Transferring d) Developing
d) developing Developing happens after writing. The correct order is cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, and fusing.
419
Which assembly permanently presses the toner into the paper? a) Transfer corona b) Fuser c) Printer controller circuitry d) Paper transport assembly
b) Fuser The fuser assembly presses and melts the toner into the paper. The transfer corona transfers the toner from the drum to the paper. The printer controller circuitry converts signals from the PC into signals for the various printer assemblies. The paper transport assembly controls the movement of the paper through the printer.
420
Which of the following most accurately describes how to obtain a firmware upgrade for your laser printer? a) Download the firmware upgrade for free from the manufacturer’s website. b) Pay to download the firmware upgrade from the manufacturer’s website. c) Have a certified laser printer technician come to your site and install a new firmware chip. d) Contact the manufacturer of the printer, and they will send you the firmware upgrade on a CD.
a) Download the firmware upgrade for free from the manufacturer’s website. Firmware upgrades for laser printers are downloaded for free from the manufacturer’s website. A technician does not need to install a new chip because firmware is upgraded via software. It’s unlikely that the manufacturer will send you the upgrade on a CD; it will refer you to its website to download it.
421
 A computer is experiencing random reboots and phantom problems that disappear after reboot. What should you do? a) Replace the motherboard. b) Boot clean. c) Replace the power supply. d) Open the cover, clean the inside of the computer, and reseat all cards and chips.
d)Open the cover, clean the inside of the computer, and reseat all cards and chips. When a computer is experiencing random reboots and phantom problems that disappear after reboot, you should open the cover, clean everything (if it’s dirty), and reseat all cards and chips. Some components could have gunk on them that carries an electrical charge or could have experienced “chip creep,” where they slowly work themselves out of their sockets.
422
Which of the following is used to properly discharge voltage from an unplugged computer monitor? a) Antistatic wrist strap b) Screwdriver c) High-voltage probe d) Open the cover, clean the inside of the computer, and reseat all cards and chips.
c)High-voltage probe A high-voltage probe is designed to release the electricity from high-voltage components, which are found in the back of CRT computer monitors. Wearing an antistatic wrist strap when working on a computer monitor can cause the stored-up electric current to be released through your body, which could result in serious injury or death!
423
Which of the following must contain information about a chemical solvent’s emergency cleanup procedures? a) OSHA b) MSDS c) Product Label d) CRT
b) MSDS The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) contains information about chemical properties, including what to do if an accident occurs.
424
You are purchasing, for home use, an inkjet printer cartridge that you know has an MSDS. How do you obtain the MSDS for this product? a) The store is required to give you one at the time of purchase. b) It’s contained in the packaging of the printer cartridge. c) You are not legally allowed to have an MSDS for this product. d) Visit the website of the printer cartridge manufacturer.
d) Visit the website of the printer cartridge manufacturer. Companies are not legally required to provide MSDSs to consumers. However, most will if you ask. The best place to look is the manufacturer’s website.
425
In the interest of a safe work environment, which of the following should you report? (Choose two.) a) An accident b) A near-accident c) Dirt on the floor inside a building d) Rain forecasted for a work day
a) An accident b) Accidents and near-accidents should always be reported. Dirt isn’t usually a safety issue. Rain could be, but hopefully that doesn’t affect the inside of your building.
426
What is the approximate minimum level of static charge for humans to feel a shock?' a) 300 volts b) 3000 volts c) 30,000 volts d) 300,000 volts
b) 3000 volts Most people can feel an electric shock at about 3,000 volts. However, computer equipment can be damaged with as little as 100 volts.
427
Which of the following measures can be implemented to reduce the risk of ESD? (Choose two.) a) Antistatic wrist strap b) Antistatic bag c) Antistatic hair net d) Shuffling your feet
a) Antistatic wrist strap b) Antistatic bag Antistatic wrist straps, bags (for parts), and floor mats can all help reduce the risk of ESD. There are no antistatic hair nets (but if you have long hair, it’s best to tie it back so it doesn’t contact the computer parts). Shuffling your feet on the floor will actually increase the risk of ESD.
428
Which of the following are OSHA requirements for a safe work environment that must be followed by employers? (Choose two.) a) Attend yearly OSHA safe work environment seminars. b) Provide properly maintained tools and equipment. c) Have an OSHA employee stationed within 5 miles of the facility. d) Display an OSHA poster in a prominent location.
b) Provide properly maintained tools and equipment. d) Display an OSHA poster in a prominent location. Private sector employers are required by OSHA to maintain a safe work environment. This includes maintaining tools and equipment, keeping records of accidents, and displaying a safety information poster.
429
What is the proper way to dispose of a broken CRT monitor? a) Take it to a computer recycling center. b) Discharge it with a high-volt probe and throw it away. c) Remove the glass screen and throw it away. d) Cut off the power cord and throw the monitor away.
a) Take it to a computer recycling center. Monitors should be recycled after the end of their useful life. They contain many harmful elements, including lead, that can cause environmental problems.
430
When moving computer equipment, which of the following are good procedures to follow? (Choose two.) a) Lift by bending over at the waist. b) Carry monitors with the glass face away from your body. c) Use a cart for heavy objects. d) Ensure that there are no safety hazards in your path.
c) Use a cart for heavy objects. d) Ensure that there are no safety hazards in your path. You should always lift with your legs, not your back. This means bending at the knees and not the waist. Monitors should be carried with the glass face toward your body. Using carts for heavy objects is a good idea, as is ensuring that your path is free of safety hazards, such as trip hazards.
431
You have four AA alkaline batteries that you just removed from a remote-control device. What is the recommended way to dispose of these batteries? a) Throw them in the trash. b) Incinerate them. c) Take them to a recycling center. d) Flush them down the toilet.
c) Take them to a recycling center. Alkaline batteries should always be recycled. Throwing them in the trash means they’ll end up in a landfill where they can contaminate the environment. Burning batteries is always a bad idea because they will explode.
432
You have discovered prohibited material on a user’s laptop computer. What two things should you do first? (Choose two.) a) Destroy the prohibited material. b) Confiscate and preserve the prohibited material. c) Confront the user about the material. d) Report the prohibited material through the proper channels.
b) d) If you encounter prohibited material, you should confiscate and preserve the material and report it through the correct channels. Confronting the issue directly with the user before you have established a proper case could cause problems.
433
While working on a user’s system, you discover a sticky note attached to the bottom of the keyboard that has their username and password written on it. The user is not around, and you need to verify that the network connection is working. What should you do? a) Log in, verify access, and log out. b) Log in and stay logged in when you are finished. c) Page the user. d) Log in and change the user’s password.
c) Page the user You should page the user and let them know they need to verify access. You also should tell them that you saw the sticky note and highly recommend that they change their password and not write it down. Logging in to the system using the information you found would be violating the privacy of that user and should not be done. Further, logging in with someone else’s information makes you a potential scapegoat for any data that is corrupted or missing until the user changes the password.
434
You promised a customer that you would be out to service their problem before the end of the day but have been tied up at another site. As it now becomes apparent that you will not be able to make it, what should you do? a) Arrive first thing in the morning. b) Wait until after hours and then leave a message that you were there. c) Call the customer and inform them of the situation. d) Send an e-mail letting them know you will be late.
c)Call the customer and inform them of the situation. While calling and sending e-mail are both solutions to this situation, calling the customer provides an immediate means of communication that you know will get there. Inform the customer of the situation and offer to be out the first opportunity you can, which will hopefully be first thing in the morning
435
A customer is trying to explain a problem with their system. Unfortunately, the customer has such a thick accent that you are unable to understand what the problem is. What should you do? a) Just start working on the system and looking for obvious errors. b) Call your supervisor. c) Ask that another technician be sent in your place. d) Apologize and find another user or manager who can help you translate.
d) Apologize and find another user or manager who can help you translate. While there is no perfect solution to problems of this type, the best solution is to find someone else who can mediate and help you understand the problem.
436
You have been trying to troubleshoot a user’s system all day when it suddenly becomes clear that the data is irretrievably lost. Upon informing the customer of this, he becomes so angry that he shoves you against a wall. What should you do? a) Shove the user back, only a little harder than he shoved you. b) Shove the user back, only a little easier than he shoved you. c) Try to calm the user down, and leave the site if you cannot. d) Yell for everyone in the area to come quickly.
c) Try to calm the user down, and leave the site if you cannot. Physical abuse violates respect and should be avoided at all costs. You should try to calm the user down. If you cannot do this, you should leave the site immediately and not return until it is safe to do so. You may also want to report the incident to your management so that they’re aware of the situation.
437
A customer tells you that the last technician who was there spent three hours on the phone making personal calls. What should you do with this information? a) Nothing b) Inform your manager. c) Talk to the technician personally. d) Ask the customer to prove it.
b)Inform your manager. The customer is expressing a concern that she was not shown respect by a technician from your company. You should apologize and make your manager aware of the situation or concern. Unless you are a supervisor, which is not implied in the question, you should not personally talk to the technician about the issue.
438
You arrive at the site of a failed server to find the vice president nervously pacing and worrying about lost data. What should you do? a) Offer a joke to lighten things up. b) Downplay the situation and tell him that customers lose data every day. c) Keep your head down and keep looking at manuals to let him know you are serious. d) Inform him that you’ve dealt with similar situations and will let him know what needs to be done as soon as possible.
d) You should always act with confidence and in a way similar to how you would want to be treated if you were in the customer’s situation. Ignoring, downplaying, and joking about the vice president’s obvious concern are very poor choices.
439
You’re temporarily filling in on phone support when a caller tells you that he is sick and tired of being bounced from one hold queue to another. He wants his problem fixed, and he wants it fixed now. What should you do? a) Inform him up front that you are only filling in temporarily and won’t be of much help. b) Transfer him to another technician who handles phone calls more often. c) Try to solve his problem without putting him on hold or transferring him elsewhere. d) Suggest that he call back at another time when you are not there.
c)Try to solve his problem without putting him on hold or transferring him elsewhere. The best solution is to meet the customer’s needs and solve his problem. If that means you have to summon additional help or resources, you should do so.
440
At the end of the day, you finish a job only to find the user you were doing it for had to leave. What should you do? (Choose two.) a) Clean up and leave no evidence that you were there. b) Leave a note for the user detailing what was done and how to contact you. c) Notify the user’s manager and your own that you have finished. d) Put the system back to its original state.
b) Leave a note for the user detailing what was done and how to contact you. c) Notify the user’s manager and your own that you have finished. You should leave a note for the user explaining what you did and include your contact information. You should also notify your manager and the user’s manager that you have completed your task. You should leave a note for the user explaining what you did and include your contact information. You should also notify your manager and the user’s manager that you have completed your task.
441
You just clicked Start > Run on a Windows XP workstation. Which of the following can you type to open a command prompt? (Choose two.) a) RUN b) CMD c) COMMAND d) OPEN
c) CMD b) COMMAND To open a command prompt, you can use CMD or COMMAND (though the latter does not work in Windows 7).
442
Which part of the operating system can be described as extremely specific software written for the purpose of instructing the OS on how to access a piece of hardware? a) Source b) Application c) Kernal d) Driver
d) Driver A driver is extremely specific software written for the purpose of instructing a particular OS on how to access a piece of hardware.
443
The Taskbar can be increased in size by ________________. a) Right-clicking the mouse and dragging the Taskbar to make it bigger b) Left-clicking the mouse and double-clicking the Taskbar c) Moving the mouse pointer to the top of the Taskbar, pausing until the pointer turns into a double-headed arrow, and then clicking and dragging d) Highlighting the Taskbar and double-clicking in the center
c)Moving the mouse pointer to the top of the Taskbar, pausing until the pointer turns into a double-headed arrow, and then clicking and dragging You can increase the Taskbar’s size by moving the mouse pointer to the top of it, pausing until the pointer turns into a double-headed arrow, and then clicking and dragging. Keep in mind that in Windows XP, you have to unlock the Taskbar first by right-clicking on it and deselecting Lock The Taskbar.
444
Which of the following file attributes are available to files on a FAT32 partition? a) Hidden, Read Only, Archive, System b) Compression, Hidden, Archive, Encryption, Read Only c) Read Only, Hidden, System, Encryption d) Indexing, Read Only, Hidden, System, Compression
a)Hidden, Read Only, Archive, System FAT32 does not have as many options as NTFS, such as Encryption and Compression. These attributes are available only on NTFS partitions.
445
The Windows Explorer program can be used to do which of the following? (Choose two.) a) Browse the Internet b) Copy and move files c) Change file attributes d) Create backup jobs
b) Copy and move files c) Change file attributes The Windows Explorer program can be used to copy and move files and to change file attributes.
446
Standard permissions are ________________. a) The same as special permissions b) Only the Read, Write, and Execute permissions c) Permissions assigned to users but not to groups d) Permissions grouped together for easy assignment
d) Permissions grouped together for easy assignment Standard permissions, unlike special permissions, have been grouped together to make it easier for administrators to assign permissions.
447
Which of the following is a program that runs on top of the OS and allows the user to issue commands through a set of menus or some other graphical interface? a) Taskbar b) shell c) GUI d) Source
b) Shell The shell is a program that runs on top of the OS and allows the user to issue commands through a set of menus or some other graphical interface.
448
If a program doesn’t have a shortcut on the Desktop or in the Programs submenu, you can start it by ________________. (Choose the best answer.) a) Using the Shut Down command b) Typing CMD  in the Start Run box c) Using the RUN command and typing in the name of the program d) Typing CMD  in the Start box followed by the program name
c)Using the RUN command and typing in the name of the program To run any program, select Start ( Run and type the name of the program in the Open field. If you don’t know the exact name of the program, you can find the file by clicking the Browse button. Once you have typed in the executable name, click OK to run the program.
449
What operating system feature offers the ability for a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor at one time? a) Multiuser mode b) Dystopia c) Preemption d) Multithreading
d)Multithreading Multithreading offers the ability for a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor at one time.
450
In Windows, a deleted file can be retrieved using which of the following? a) My Computer icon b) Recycle Bin c) Control Panel d) Settings panel
b) Recycle Bin All deleted files are placed in the Recycle Bin. Deleted files are held there until the Recycle Bin is emptied. Users can easily recover accidentally deleted files from the Recycle Bin.
451
To turn off a Windows 7 machine, you should ________________. a) Run the Shut Down (Turn Off) command at a command prompt. b) Turn off the switch and unplug the machine. c) Press Ctrl+Alt+Del. d) Select Start > Shut Down, choose Shut Down, and turn off the computer.
d)Select Start > Shut Down, choose Shut Down, and turn off the computer. To turn off a Windows 7 machine, select Start > Shut Down, choose Shut Down, and turn off the computer.
452
What is the minimum amount of memory recommended for XP Professional? a) 128MB b) 256MB c) 512MB d) 1GB
a) 128MB The minimum amount of memory recommended for XP Professional is 128MB.
453
What is the minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for the installation of Windows Vista Home Basic? a) 1.5GB b) 15GB c) 30 GB d) 60GB
b) 15GB The minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for the installation of Windows Vista Home Basic is 15GB.
454
What is the minimum recommended memory for a 32-bit installation of Windows 7? a) 512MB b) 1GB c) 2GB d) 4GB
b) 1GB The minimum recommended memory for a 32-bit installation of Windows 7 is 1GB.
455
In Windows, a quick way to access Help is to press which keyboard key? a) F12 b) The Windows button on the keyboard c) F1 d) ALT
c) F1 In Windows, a quick way to access Help is to press the F1 key.
456
Which of the following was installed to the Desktop by default only in Windows Vista? a) Gadgets b) Sidebar c) System tray d) Recycle Bin
b) Sidebar The Sidebar existed only in Windows Vista and provided a quick interface that allowed you to access common utilities such as the headlines.
457
Which of the following is located on the rightmost portion of the Taskbar? a) Start Menu b) Quick Launch c) System Tray d) Shutdown option
c) System Tray The System Tray is located on the right side of the Taskbar.
458
In addition to right-clicking on the Desktop, how else can you access the Display Properties settings in Windows XP? a) Display icon under Control Panel b) System icon under Control Panel c) Pressing Ctrl+Alt+Esc d) Pressing Ctrl+Alt+Tab
a) Display icon under Control Panel In addition to right-clicking on the Desktop, you can access the Display Properties settings by using the Display icon under Control Panel as long as you are not using Category view.
459
Which of the following is the name of the graphical interface included with Windows Vista? a) Start b) Aero c) KDE d) GNOME
b) Aero The interface included with Windows Vista is called Aero.
460
What is the minimum recommended memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 7? a) 512 MB b) 1 GB c) 2GB d) 4GB
c) 2GB The minimum recommended memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 7 is 2GB.
461
 Which switch can be used with PING to specify a packet size? a) -t b) -l c) -c d) -o
b) -l The –l switch can be used with PING to specify a packet size.
462
In Windows, which of the following is the file system of choice for CD media? a) NTFS b) JFS c) FAT32 d) CDFS
d)CDFS In Windows, CDFS is the file system of choice for CD media.
463
Which utility works like ping but returns the different IP addresses the packet was routed through to reach the final destination? a) Ipconfig b) Nbtstat c) Tracert d) Netstat
c) Tracert Tracert works like ping but returns the different IP addresses the packet was routed through to reach the final destination.
464
You have been told to use the /FIXBOOT switch to write a new boot sector on a Windows 7 machine. Which command does this switch work with? a) BOOTREC b) SFC c) BCEDIT d) ROBOCPY
a) BOOTREC The BOOTREC /FIXBOOT command can be used to write a new boot sector.
465
Which command is shown in the following screen shot? a) TASKLIST b) TRACERT c) NETSTAT d) NSLOOKUP
d) NSLOOKUP The screen shows the results of the NSLOOKUP GOOGLE.COM command.
466
Which command lists at the command line all running processes? a) WLIST b) ALIST c) PLIST d) TASKLIST
d) TASKLIST The TASKLIST utility will list at the command line all running processes.
467
Virtual memory is configured through which system tool? a) Taskbar b) System control applet c) Memory Manager d) Virtual Configuration
b)System control applet Virtual memory settings are accessed through the Performance tab or area of the System control panel applet.
468
Within the Services snap-in, services can be in any state except which of the following? a) Started automatically b) Started manually c) Disabled d) Detached
d) Detached Services can be started automatically or manually or be disabled.
469
What can you do if a program is not responding to any commands and appears to be locked up? a) Open the System control panel applet and choose Performance to see what process is causing the problem. b) Add more memory. c) Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to reboot the computer. d) Open Task Manager, select the appropriate task, and click End Task.
d) Open Task Manager, select the appropriate task, and click End Task. You can use Task Manager to deal with applications that have stopped responding.
470
Which of the following can be used to configure a remote connection? a) REGEDIT b) MSTSC c) REGSRV32 d) SPL
b) MSTSC MSTSC can be used to configure a remote connection.
471
Which tool is shown in the following screen shot? a) DXDIAG b) MSINFO c) MSCONFIG d) MSINFO32
a) DXDIAG The screen shot shows DXDIAG with the name of the utility purposely obscured.
472
Which type of resource do you configure in Device Manager? a) Hardware b) Files and folders c) Application d) Memory
a) Hardware Device Manager is used in Windows to configure all hardware resources that Windows knows about.
473
To back up the files on your disks in Windows XP, which Windows program can you use? a) Disk Management b) Backup c) My Computer d) No backup program in Windows
b) Backup The Backup utility is provided with all versions of Windows, but it has different levels of functionality in the different versions.
474
You believe that your system files are corrupted in Windows XP. You run System File Checker. What do you do to make System File Checker automatically repair your system files if repair is needed? a) Run SFC /AUTOREPAIR b) Run SFC /REPAIR c) Run SFC /REVERT d) Run SFC /SCANNOW
d) Run SFC /SCANNOW The SFC command will run System File Checker. The /SCANNOW option will scan files, and SFC automatically repairs files it detects as corrupted.
475
Which of the following partitions is specifically the partition from which the operating system boots? a) Primary partition b) Extended partition c) Active partition d) Logical partition
c) Active partition The operating system boots from the active partition. Active partitions must be primary partitions, but a primary partition does not have to be active (there can be up to four primary partitions per hard drive).
476
Which of the following Registry hives contains information about the computer’s hardware? a) HKEY_CURRENT_MACHINE b) HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE c) HKEY_MACHINE d) HKEY_RESOURCES
b) HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE There are five basic hives in the Windows Registry: HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT, HKEY_CURRENT_USER, HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE, HKEY_USERS, and HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE stores information about the computer’s hardware. HKEY_CURRENT_MACHINE, HKEY_MACHINE, and HKEY_RESOURCES do not exist
477
You are at a command prompt. Which command can you use to see whether you have a network connection to another computer? a) IPCONFIG b) CONNECT c) PING d) IP
c) ping The PING command tests to see whether you can reach a remote host on the network.
478
Which of the following utilities will rearrange the files on your hard disk to occupy contiguous chunks of space? a) Disk Defragmenter b) Window Explorer c) Scandisk d) Window Backup
a) Disk Defragmenter Windows Disk Defragmenter rearranges files on your hard disk so they occupy contiguous spaces (as much as possible). Windows Explorer lets you view and manage files but not manage their location on the physical hard disk. Scandisk will check the hard drive for errors, and Windows Backup backs up files but does not manage their physical location.
479
Which of the following switches can be used with ROBOCOPY to mirror a complete directory tree? a) /S b) /MIR c) /CDT d) /AH
b) /MIR The /MIR switch can be used with ROBOCOPY to mirror a complete directory tree.
480
Which of the following tools allows you to test DirectX functionality? a) Msinfo32 b) Ping c) Telnet d) DxDiag
d) The DxDiag utility (DirectX Diagnostics) is used to test DirectX functionality. Telnet is used to establish a remote connection, Msinfo32 shows configuration settings, and ping can let you know if a remote host can be reached.
481
Which editions of Windows 7 can create a HomeGroup? (Choose four.) a) Window 7 Starter b) Window 7 Home Professional c) Window 7 Professional d) Window 7 Enterprise e) Window 7 Ultimate
b) Window 7 Home Professional c) Window 7 Professional d) Window 7 Enterprise e) Window 7 Ultimate While all editions of Windows 7 can join a HomeGroup, only Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate can create one.
482
What is the name of the file that runs if there are any gadgets placed on the Windows 7 Desktop? a) NTOS b) GADCONFIG c) GADGET d) SIDEBAR
d) SIDEBAR Even though Windows 7 does not have Sidebar (a feature that lived and died only with Windows Vista), the file that runs for gadgets is SIDEBAR.EXE.
483
Which of the following is used by BitLocker to be able to encrypt a drive? a) EFS b) TPM c) HPM d) AERO
b) TPM BitLocker uses the Trusted Platform Module (TPM).
484
Which feature of Windows 7 allows files and folders to be grouped logically and appear as if they are in the same location even when they are not? a) HomeGroup b) Touch c) Libraries d) Snap
c) Libraries Libraries allow files and folders to be grouped logically and appear as if they are in the same location even when they are not.
485
As an administrator, you need to get an inventory of computers on your network and plan a rollout of Windows 7. Which tool can be used for this purpose? a) UDMT b) Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) toolkit c) USMT d) MigWiz
b) Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) toolkit The Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit can be used to get an inventory of computers on your network and plan a rollout of the new operating system.
486
Which of the following editions of Windows Vista can be upgraded to Windows 7 Professional? a) Windows Vista Starter b) Windows Vista Home Basic c) Windows Vista Home Premium d) Windows Vista Business
d) Windows Vista Business Only Windows Vista Business can be upgraded to Windows 7 Professional.
487
Which utility is shown in the following screen shot? a) Windows State Mover b) Windows Easy Transfer c) Windows Anytime Upgrade d) Windows Edition Roller
c) Windows Anytime Upgrade The utility shown is Windows Anytime Upgrade, which can be accessed from Control Panel. Portions of the screen that would reveal the name of the utility have been hidden in the screen shot.
488
You need to do an installation of Windows 7 in a PXE environment. Which of the following can be used? a) WinLoad b) BOOTMGR c) WinPE d) WinResume
c) WinPE Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE), which is a stub operating system creating a Pre-boot Execution Environment (PXE).
489
Which utility is shown below? a) WINVER b) MSINFO c) MSCONFIG d) SYSTEM32
a) winver The utility shown is WINVER. This utility will show the operating system, the edition, and the service pack installed on any Windows operating system.
490
Which editions of Windows 7 include BitLocker? (Choose two.) a) Window 7 Starter b) Window 7 Home Premium c) Window 7 Professional d) Window 7 Enterprise e) Window 7 Ultimate
d) Window 7 Enterprise e) Window Ultimate Only Windows 7 Enterprise and Windows 7 Ultimate support BitLocker drive encryption.
491
Where, in Windows 7, can you manually create a restore point? a) System Restore option beneath System Tools. b) System Protection tab of System Properties. c) In Backup, beneath Administrative Tools. d) Windows 7 does not allow the manual creation of restore points.
b)System Protection tab of System Properties. In Windows 7 (and Windows Vista), the ability to do this has been moved to the System Protection tab of System Properties.
492
System Protection tab of System Properties. a) Action Center b) Security Center c) Home Group d) Windows Vista Enterprise
a) Action Center The Action Center replaces the Security Center (which existed in Vista) and adds the Maintenance portion.
493
After installation of the operating system, what does Windows 7 require in order to curb software piracy? a) Certification b) Confirmation c) Activation d) Substantiation
c) Activation Windows 7 requires the installation to be followed by a process known as product activation to curb software piracy.
494
What is the maximum number of physical CPUs supported by Windows 7 Enterprise edition? a) one b) two c) three d) four
b) Two The maximum number of physical CPUs supported by Windows 7 Enterprise edition is two.
495
In Windows 7, what is the default setting for the UAC? a) Always notify b) Notify me only when programs try too make changes to my computer. c) Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer(do not dim my desktop). d) Never notify
b) Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer. The UAC default in Windows 7 is “Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer.”
496
Which feature allows you to use free space on an SD card to speed up a system? a) ReadyDrive b) Shadow Copy c) ReadyBoost d) BitLocker to Go
c) ReadyBoost The ReadyBoost feature allows you to use free space on a removable drive (such as an SD card) to speed up a system.
497
Which utility is shown in the following screen shot? a) Remote Control b) Remote Application c) Remote Desktop d) Remote Assitance
d) Remote Assistance The utility shown is Windows Remote Assistance. Portions of the utility that show its name have been obscured in the screen shot.
498
Remote computers and virtual machines are made available with Windows 7 using which port? a) 80 b) 139 c) 3389 d) 13742
c) 3389 When remote computers and virtual machine utilities are used in Windows 7 networking, port 3389 is the default port used.
499
Which directory on a standard Windows 7 installation holds the boot file configuration? a) /BOOT b) /START c) /SYSTEM32 d) /WINDOWS
a) /BOOT On a standard, default, installation, the /BOOT directory holds the boot file configuration for Windows 7.
500
What is the maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit Enterprise edition of Windows 7? a) 8 GB b) 16GB c) 128GB d) 192GB
d) 192GB The Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions support 192GB. The maximum amount of RAM supported by Home Premium is 16GB. The Starter edition supports only 2GB.
501
Which version of Windows Vista does not  include offline folder capabilities? a) Business b) Enterprise c) Home Premium d) Ultimate
c) Home Premium The two biggest modifications to offline folders in Windows Vista are the inclusion of the Sync Center and the restriction of offline file support to the Business, Enterprise, and Ultimate versions.
502
What is the first file used in the boot-up of Windows Vista? a) NTOSKRNL.EXE b) CONFIG.SYS c) AUTOEXEC.BAT d) BOOTMGR
d) BOOTMGR The first file used in the Windows Vista boot process is BOOTMGR.
503
What is the maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit Home Premium edition of Windows Vista? a) 8GB b) 16GB c) 128GB d) 256GB
b) 16GB The maximum amount of RAM supported by 64-bit Home Premium is 16GB. The Business, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions support 128GB. The Home Basic edition supports only 8GB.
504
Which of the following is an Ethernet standard implemented via a card that allows a “sleeping” machine to awaken when it receives a wakeup signal? a) Sleep Timer b) WEP c) Wake-on-LAN d) WPA
c) Wake-on-LAN Wake-on-LAN is an Ethernet standard implemented via a card that allows a “sleeping” machine to awaken when it receives a wakeup signal.
505
Which editions of Windows Vista include BitLocker support? (Choose two.) a) Business b) Enterprise c) Home Premium d) Ultimate
b) Enterprise d) Ultimate Only the Enterprise and Ultimate editions of Windows Vista include support for BitLocker.
506
Which Windows Vista feature allows you to recover from an accidental deletion or overwrite? a) BitLocker b) User Account Control c) Security Center d) Shadow Copy
d) Shadow Copy Shadow Copy is a Windows Vista feature allowing you to recover from an accidental deletion or overwrite.
507
You are migrating one stand-alone machine from Windows XP to Window Vista. Which of the following tools should you consider for transferring user state data and application files? a) Windows State Mover b) UDMT c) Windows Easy Transfer d) USMT
c) Window Easy Transfer For just one machine, Windows Easy Transfer should be used for transferring user state data and application files. For a mass rollout across a network, USMT can be used.
508
In Windows Vista, which of the following utilities can be used to see the edition and service pack installed on a system? a) info b) spm c) winver d) msall
c) winver In Windows Vista, and all Windows versions you need to be familiar with for the A+ exam, the winver utility can be used to see the edition and service pack installed on a system.
509
Which utility is shown in the following screen shot? a) Window Memory Diagnostics b) Printer Management c) Data Source d) Component Services
d)Component Services The utility shown is Component Services (with the name of the utility obscured). This MMC snap-in allows you to deploy and administer component services.
510
Which of the following files is at the end of the boot process and presents the user with the Logon screen? a) SMSS b) Winlogon c) HAL d) SIR
b) Winlogon Winlogon presents the Logon screen and wraps up the boot process.
511
Where is the Windows Memory Diagnostics utility found in Windows Vista? a)In the Accessories folder b)In the System folder, beneath Accessories c) Beneath Administrative Tools Not available in Windows Vista
c) Beneath Administrative Tools The Windows Memory Diagnostics utility (Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Memory Diagnostics Tool) can be used to check a system for memory problems.
512
Which editions of Windows Vista support Local Security Policy (secpol.msc)? (Choose three.) a) Windows Vista Home Basic b) Windows Vista Home Premium c) Windows Vista Business d) Windows Vista Enterprise e) Windows Vista Ultimate
c) Windows Vista Business d) Windows Vista Enterprise e) Windows Vista Ultimate Only the Business, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions of Windows Vista support Local Security Policy (secpol.msc).
513
After installation of the Windows Vista operating system, what is required in order to curb software piracy? a) Certification b) Confirmation c) Activation d) Substantiation
c) Activation Windows Vista requires the installation to be followed by a process known as product activation to curb software piracy.
514
What is the maximum number of physical CPUs supported by Windows Vista Business edition? a) one b) two c) three d) four
b) two The maximum number of physical CPUs supported by Windows Vista Business edition is two. Both Home Basic and Home Premium editions support only one, while Business, Enterprise, and Ultimate support two.
515
Which utility is the System Configuration tool in Windows Vista? a) msinfo32.exe b) msconfig.exe c) sysconfig.cpl d) config.cpl
b) msconfig.exe The System Configuration tool is msconfig.exe in Windows Vista.
516
Which feature allows you to use free space on a removable drive (usually USB) to speed up a system? a) USB Speed b) Shadow Copy c) ReadyBoost d) Screamer
c) ReadyBoost The ReadyBoost feature allows you to use free space on a removable drive (usually USB) to speed up a system.
517
Spencer is currently running Windows XP Professional and wants to upgrade to Windows Vista. Which of the following upgrades are possible? (Choose two.) a) Windows Vista Business b) Windows Vista Enterprise c) Windows Vista Home Premium d) Windows Vista Ultimate
a) Window Vista Business d) Window Vista Ultimate Windows XP Professional can only be upgraded to Windows Vista Business and Windows Vista Ultimate. Know the upgrade options well for the exam.
518
Which of the following network locations disables network discovery in Windows Vista? a) Home b) Work c) Public d) Personal
c) Public When the network location is set to Public, network discovery is disabled. Network discovery is enabled for both Home and Work. There is no such location as Personal in Windows Vista.
519
Which directory on a standard Windows Vista installation holds the boot file configuration? a) /boot b) /start c) /system32 d) /windows
a) /boots On a standard, default installation, the /boot directory holds the boot file configuration for Windows Vista.
520
What is the maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit Ultimate edition of Windows Vista? a) 8GB b) 16GB c) 128GB d) 256GB
c) 128GB The 64-bit, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions support 128GB. The maximum amount of RAM supported by Home Premium is 16GB. The Home Basic edition supports only 8GB.
521
What do you use in Windows XP to create a recovery disk? a) Automated System Recovery (ASR) b) RDISK.EXE c) Enhanced Startup Disk (ESD) d) Emergency Recovery System (ERS)
a) Automated System Recovery (ASR) | Windows XP uses Automated System Recovery (ASR). It makes a backup of your system partition and creates a recovery disk.
522
What is the first file used in the boot process of Windows XP? a) NTOSKRNL.EXE b) CONFIG.SYS c) AUTOEXEC.BAT d) NTLDR e) NTBOOTD.SYS
d) NTLDR The first file used in the Windows XP boot process is NTLDR. Both the NTOSKRNL.EXE and NTBOOTDD.SYS files are used in the boot process, but neither is the first file run. Neither AUTOEXEC.BAT nor CONFIG.SYS is involved in the Windows XP boot process.
523
What does Safe Mode allow you to do? a) Run Windows without processing AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS. b) Boot the system without scanning drives. c) Start Windows using only basic files and drivers. d) Skip loading the Registry.
c) Start Windows using only basic files and drivers. Safe Mode is a good option to choose to restore files that are missing or to fix a configuration error. With only basic files and drivers loaded, you can more easily identify the source of the problem.
524
Which of the following is an Ethernet standard implemented via a card that allows a “sleeping” machine to awaken when it receives a wakeup signal? a) Sleep Timer b) WEP c) Wake one LAN d) WPA
c) Wake on LAN Wake on LAN is an Ethernet standard implemented via a card that allows a “sleeping” machine to awaken when it receives a wakeup signal.
525
What is the quickest solution to fixing a corrupted NTOSKRNL.EXE file? a) Reinstall Windows. b) Replace the corrupted file with a new one. c) Modify the BOOT.INI file to point to the backup NTOSKRNL.EXE file. d) Boot from a startup disk and replace the file from the setup disks or CD.
d) Boot from a startup disk and replace the file from the setup disks or CD. The solution to a corrupted NTOSKRNL.EXE file is to boot from a startup disk and replace the file from the setup disks or CD.
526
During what type of installation must a user be present to choose all options as they appear? a) Attended b) Existing c) Bootstrap d) Denote
a) Attended In an attended installation, a user must be present to choose all of the options when the installation program gets to that point.
527
In Windows XP, how do you access advanced startup options? a) By pressing the spacebar when prompted to do so b) By holding down Ctrl+Alt+Del after the Windows logo displays for the first time c) By pressing Esc after the OS menu displays d) By pressing F8 during the first phase of the boot process
d) By pressing F8 during the first phase of the boot process Pressing F8 during the first phase of the boot process brings up the Advanced Startup Options menu in Windows.
528
In Windows XP, which of the following utilities is responsible for finding, downloading, and installing Windows service packs? a) Update Manager b) Service Pack Manager c) Window Update d) Download Manager
c) Window Update Windows Update is responsible for finding updates, patches, and service packs, downloading them, and installing them on your computer.
529
In Windows XP, which of the following files is specifically responsible for enabling communication between the system hardware and the operating system? a) NTDETECT.COM b) NTOSKRNL.EXE c) NTBOOTDD.SYS d) HAL.DLL e) NTLDR
d) HAL.DLL HAL, or the Hardware Abstraction Layer, is the translator between the hardware and the operating system.
530
Which of the following is a replacement for RIS? a) STIR b) UAC c) WDS d) SIR
c) WDS Beginning with Windows Server 2003, RIS was replaced by Windows Deployment Service (WDS). This utility offers the same functionality as RIS.
531
What is the first step when installing Windows onto a system that doesn’t already have a functioning operating system? a) Formatting b) Partitioning c) Redirecting d) Installing the OS
b) Partitioning New disk drives or PCs with no OS need to have two critical functions performed on them before they can be used: partitioning first and then formatting. These two functions are performed by two commands, FDISK.EXE and FORMAT.COM, or by the Windows installation program itself.
532
Which of the following is/are performed by formatting the hard drive? (Choose four.) a) Formatting scans the surface of the hard drive platter to find bad spots and marks the areas surrounding a bad spot as bad sectors. b) Formatting lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles. c) The tracks are split into pieces of 512 bytes called sectors. d) Formatting creates a File Allocation Table that contains information about the location of files.
a) Formatting scans the surface of the hard drive platter to find bad spots and marks the areas surrounding a bad spot as bad sectors. b) Formatting lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles. c) The tracks are split into pieces of 512 bytes called sectors. d) Formatting creates a File Allocation Table that contains information about the location of files. Formatting performs all of the listed processes.
533
After installation of the operating system, what does Windows XP require in order to curb software piracy? a) Certification b) Confirmation c) Activation d) Substantiation
c) activation Windows XP requires the installation to be followed by a process known as product activation to curb software piracy.
534
Windows XP includes a feature called a _________, which is a copy of your system configuration that can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a configuration error occurs. a) Restore point b) Repair point c) Roll back point d) Registry
a) Restore point Windows XP automatically creates restore points, which are copies of your system configuration. You can also create them manually through the System Restore utility.
535
Which utility is the System Configuration tool in Windows XP? a) MSINFO32.EXE b) MSCONFIG.EXE c) SYSCONFIG.CPL d) SYSCONFIG.CPL
b) MSCONFIG.EXE The System Configuration tool is MSCONFIG.EXE, and in Windows XP it includes a number of tabs and options not present in subsequent versions of Windows.
536
``` If Plug and Play does not work with a particular device on a Windows XP machine, what Control Panel applet can you use? a) Update b) System c) Add/Remove Hardware d) ```
d) Add Hardware When Plug and Play does not work, the Add Hardware Wizard applet in Control Panel can be used. There is not an Add/Remove option with hardware, but Add or Remove Programs is used with software.
537
Which utility that comes with Windows XP Professional is used to prepare a machine that can then be used to create an image to use for network installation? a) Ghost b) Sysprep c) Sysimage d) RIS
b) Sysprep The Sysprep utility comes with Windows XP Professional and is used to prepare a machine so that an image can then be created of the computer. Ghost is a third-party utility made by Norton that can be used to create images. Sysimage is not a known Windows utility, and RIS comes only with Windows Server operating systems.
538
Adding which option to the operating system option in the BOOT.INI file will show the drivers as they’re loaded in Windows XP? a) / show b) /sos c) /all d) /flag
b) /sos Adding the /sos option to the operating system option in the BOOT.INI file will show the drivers as they’re loaded in Windows XP.
539
Setup Manager is used to create answer files for automatically providing computer or user information during setup. These files are also known as what? a) UDFs b) INIs c) DLLs d) BTKs
a) UDFs Setup Manager is used to create answer files (known as uniqueness database files [UDFs]) for automatically providing computer or user information during setup.
540
Where would you configure a workstation to boot from the USB drive first and the hard drive only if there is not a bootable USB device attached? a) NTLDR b) C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\1st.txt c) BOOT.INI d) None of the above
d) None of the above Boot order is configured in the BIOS of the workstation and not in a Windows-related file.
541
Which component of physical security addresses outer-level access control? a) Perimeter security b) Mantraps c) Security zones d) Strong passwords
a) Perimeter security The first layer of access control is perimeter security. Perimeter security is intended to delay or deter entrance into a facility.
542
Which technology uses a physical characteristic to establish identity? a) Biometrics b) Surveillance c) Smart card d) CHAP authenticator
a) Biometrics Biometrics is a technology that uses personal characteristics, such as a retinal pattern or fingerprint, to establish identity.
543
As part of your training program, you’re trying to educate users on the importance of security. You explain to them that not every attack depends on implementing advanced technological methods. Some attacks, you explain, take advantage of human shortcomings to gain access that should otherwise be denied. What term do you use to describe attacks of this type? a) Social engineering b) IDS system c) Perimeter security d) Biometrics
a) Social engineering Social engineering uses the inherent trust in the human species, as opposed to technology, to gain access to your environment.
544
You’re in the process of securing the IT infrastructure by adding fingerprint scanners to your existing authentication methods. This type of security is an example of which of the following? a) Access control b) Physical barriers c) Biometrics d) Softening
c) Biometric A fingerprint scanner, or any device that identifies a person by a physical trait, is considered a biometric security control.
545
Which type of attack denies authorized users access to network resources? a) DoS b) Worm c) Logic bomb d) Social engineering
a) DoS Although the end result of any of these attacks may be denying authorized users access to network resources, a DoS attack is specifically intended to prevent access to network resources by overwhelming or flooding a service or network.
546
As the security administrator for your organization, you must be aware of all types of attacks that can occur and plan for them. Which type of attack uses more than one computer to attack the victim? a) DoS b) DDoS c) Worm d) UDP attack
b) DDoS A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack uses multiple computer systems to attack a server or host in the network.
547
A server in your network has a program running on it that bypasses authentication. Which type of attack has occurred? a) DoS b) DDoS c) Back door d) Social engineering
c) Back door In a back door attack, a program or service is placed on a server to bypass normal security procedures.
548
You’ve discovered that an expired certificate is being used repeatedly to gain logon privileges. Which type of attack is this most likely to be? a) Man-in-the-middle attack b) Back door attack c) Replay Attack d) TCP/IP hijacking
c) Replay attack A replay attack attempts to replay the results of a previously successful session to gain access.
549
A junior administrator comes to you in a panic. After looking at the log files, he has become convinced that an attacker is attempting to use a duplicate IP address to replace another system in the network to gain access. Which type of attack is this? a) Man-in-the-middle attack b) Back door attack c) Worm d) TCP/IP hijacking
d) TCP/IP hijacking TCP/IP hijacking is an attempt to steal a valid IP address and use it to gain authorization or information from a network.
550
Which of the following is different from a virus in that it can reproduce itself, it’s self-contained, and it doesn’t need a host application to be transported? a) Worm b) Smurf c) Phish d) Trojan
a) Worm A worm is different from a virus in that it can reproduce itself, it’s self-contained, and it doesn’t need a host application to be transported.
551
A smurf attack attempts to use a broadcast ping on a network; the return address of the ping may be that of a valid system in your network. Which protocol does a smurf attack use to conduct the attack? a) TCP b) IP c) UDP d) ICMP
d) ICMP A smurf attack attempts to use a broadcast ping (ICMP) on a network. The return address of the ping may be that of a valid system in your network. This system will be flooded with responses in a large network.
552
Your system log files report an ongoing attempt to gain access to a single account. This attempt has been unsuccessful to this point. What type of attack are you most likely experiencing? a) Password-guessing attack b) Back door attach c) Work attack d) TCP/IP hijacking
a) Password-guessing attack A password-guessing attack occurs when a user account is repeatedly attacked using a variety of passwords.
553
One of the vice presidents of the company calls a meeting with the information technology department after a recent trip to competitors’ sites. She reports that many of the companies she visited granted access to their buildings only after fingerprint scans, and she wants similar technology employed at this company. Of the following, which technology relies on a physical attribute of the user for authentication? a) Smart card b) Biometrics c) Mutual authentication d) Tokens
b) Biometrics Biometrics relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify identity. Biometric devices typically use either a hand pattern or a retinal scan to accomplish this.
554
Your company provides medical data to doctors from a worldwide database. Because of the sensitive nature of the data you work with, it’s imperative that authentication be established on each session and be valid only for that session. Which of the following authentication methods provides credentials that are valid only during a single session? a) Tokens b) Certificate c) Smart Card d) Kerberos
a) Tokens Tokens are created when a user or system successfully authenticates. The token is destroyed when the session is over.
555
Your help desk has informed you that they received an urgent call from the vice president last night requesting his logon ID and password. When talking with the VP today, he says he never made that call. What type of attack is this? a) Spoofing b) Replay attack c) Social engineering d) Trojan horse
c) Social engineering Someone trying to con your organization into revealing account and password information is launching a social engineering attack.
556
Internal users suspect repeated attempts to infect their systems as reported to them by pop-up messages from their virus-scanning software. According to the pop-up messages, the virus seems to be the same in every case. What is the most likely culprit? a) A server is acting as a carrier for a virus. b) You have a caterpillar virus. c) Your antivirus software has malfunctioned. d) A DoS attack is under way.
a) A server is acting as a carrier for a virus. Some viruses won’t damage a system in an attempt to spread into all the other systems in a network. These viruses use that system as the carrier of the virus.
557
You’re working late one night, and you notice that the hard disk on your new computer is very active even though you aren’t doing anything on the computer and it isn’t connected to the Internet. What is the most likely suspect? a) A disk failure is imminent. b) A virus is spreading in your system. c) Your system is under a DoS attack. d) TCP/IP hijacking is being attempted.
b) A virus is spreading in your system. A symptom of many viruses is unusual activity on the system disk. This is caused by the virus spreading to other files on your system.
558
You’re the administrator for a large bottling company. At the end of each month, you routinely view all logs and look for discrepancies. This month, your email system error log reports a large number of unsuccessful attempts to log on. It’s apparent that the email server is being targeted. Which type of attack is most likely occurring? a) Software exploitation attack b) Backdoor attack c) Worm d) TCP/IP hijacking
a) Software exploitation attack A software exploitation attack attempts to exploit weaknesses in software. A common attack attempts to communicate with an established port to gain unauthorized access.
559
Upper management has decreed that a firewall must be put in place immediately, before your site suffers an attack similar to one that struck a sister company. Responding to this order, your boss instructs you to implement a packet filter by the end of the week. A packet filter performs which function? a) Prevents unauthorized packets from entering the network b) Allows all packets to leave the network c) Allows all packets to enter the network d) Eliminates collisions in the network
a) Prevents unauthorized packets from entering the network Packet filters prevent unauthorized packets from entering or leaving a network. Packet filters are a type of firewall that block specified traffic based on IP address, protocol, and many other attributes.
560
Which media is susceptible to viruses? a) Tape b) Memory Stick c) CD-R d) All of the above
d) All of the above All of these devices can store and pass viruses to uninfected systems. Make sure that all files are scanned for viruses before they’re copied to these media.
561
Which of the following is not  a difference between iOS and Android? a) Android is not a proprietary operating system. b) You can download iOS apps from only one place. c) You can make a cellular phone call from all Android devices. d) It costs more to be a developer of iOS apps.
c) You can make a cellular phone call from all Android devices. There is no requirement of either operating system that the devices they are on have cellular calling capability.
562
By what name was Google Play formerly known? a) Google Market b) Android Market c) Android Play d) APp Store
b) Android Market Google Play used to be called the Android Market. The App Store is Apple’s equivalent.
563
Bob’s iPhone 4S cannot detect when he turns his device to the left and right like it’s a steering wheel. Games and other apps that require this motion will not work correctly as a result. Which component has failed in Bob’s phone? a) Gyroscope b) Accelerometer c) Magnetometer d) GPS
a) Gyroscope Three gyroscopes are used to detect roll, pitch, and yaw. The problem is with the gyroscope that detects yaw. The accelerometer would be suspect if the iPhone were not detecting flat movement to the side or forward and backward. The magnetometer can only help with compass headings and the GPS with geographical positioning.
564
Which of the following is more likely to be associated with a resistive touchscreen versus a capacitive one? a) You won’t have to apply as much pressure. b) You will need to recalibrate it. c) You will have to clean it more often for optimal functionality. d) You can use the pad of your finger instead of your fingernail.
b) You will need to recalibrate it. Resistive touchscreens require pressure to actuate them, while capacitive ones do not and instead can be actuated by the fleshy part of the human finger. Body oils, moisture, and dirt are not as detrimental to the effectiveness of resistive screens as they are to capacitive screens.
565
Which of the following are text-messaging services used with mobile devices? (Choose two.) a) SMS b) SIP c) Androtext d) iOS Messaging e) IMessage
a) SMS e) IMessage SMS is the most widely supported text-messaging service, across all platforms and service providers. Apple’s iMessage is a proprietary service that does not require cellular access to send text messages.
566
Which of the following is not  a valid reason to disable cellular data networking? a) You have a limited amount of data in your monthly plan. b) You have access to a reliable WiFi signal. c) You are about to download an update to your phone. d) Your phone calls are going out over your carrier’s cellular network.
d) Your phone calls are going out over your carrier’s cellular network. Whenever you have a reliable WiFi signal available that you do not pay for as you go, you should feel free to disable your cellular access to data networking. The wireless network is often faster and does not cost you anything to use. If data networking works better when you leave the cellular network available to fall back on, you can choose to disable it only for certain large downloads or disable it completely until the download is complete. Phone calls will continue to be sent out over the cellular network. This does not imply that your data is not using an available WiFi connection. Therefore, unless you are particularly sensitive to the situation or know that data is going out over your cell access, you might not need to disable the cellular data networking feature.
567
Which of the following is a characteristic of Bluetooth? a) Bluetooth connections support wireless device control but not file transfers. b) Bluetooth is not yet a fully standardized protocol. c) Bluetooth connections do not reach as far as WiFi connections. d) You must reboot paired devices to complete connection establishment.
c) Bluetooth connections do not reach as far as WiFi connections. The range of Bluetooth connections is considered short compared to WiFi connections. Bluetooth is a fully standardized protocol that supports file transfers using FTP. Rebooting, or even restarting, paired devices is not a requirement for Bluetooth connection.
568
What is the default TCP port number for SMTP? a) 25 b) 110 c) 143 d) 995
a) 25 SMTP sends mail to the server at TCP port 25. POP3 uses port 110. IMAP4 uses 143, and port 995 is used by POP3 securely over SSL or TLS.
569
Which mail protocol commonly uses TCP port 587? a) SMTP with SSL b) SMTP with TLS c) IMAP4 with SSL/TLS d) POP3 with SSL/TLS
b) SMTP with TLS SMTP with TLS uses port 587 by default. With SSL, SMTP uses port 465. IMAP4 with SSL/TLS uses port 993, while POP3 with SSL/TLS uses port 995.
570
Which of the following is not  a type of Android passcode lock that can be set? a) Spoken passphrase b) Drawn pattern c) Numeric PIN d) Password
a) Spoken passphrase All of these options can be used to set a passcode on an Android mobile device except speaking a passphrase.
571
If you do not have your iPhone 4S set to erase data after too many failed login attempts but your phone still locks you out after making the maximum allowable attempts, how can you unlock the phone? a) By having it send you an email with the passcode b) Only by taking into an Apple Store c) By plugging it into the last computer that it synced with in iTunes d) By holding down the sleep/wake and home buttons simultaneously
c) By plugging it into the last computer that it synced with in iTunes The fact that the iPhone is attached to the computer with which it last synced indicates that the owner is likely in possession of it. Servicing the phone is not required, and performing an Apple reset will still have you locked out as a security precaution.
572
Which of the following can Apple’s Find My iPhone application not  do? a) Remotely lock the device b) Remotely wipe the device c) Locate the device d) Alert the authorities
d) Alert the authorities Locator applications tend to leave reporting thefts to the user. Because not all losses are due to theft and because the user would need to determine the authorities to contact, this feature is not seen in such applications. The location information can certainly be relayed to the authorities. These applications tend to allow messages to be displayed on the device’s screen as well.
573
Directly under which of the following iOS menus can you find the Software Update utility? a) General b) iCloud c) Notificatons d) Security
a) General Software Update is a selection found under Settings > General in the iOS. There is no Security menu per se, although keeping your iOS updated is considered a proactive security measure.
574
Which of the following are you most likely to be able to do to a larger mobile device, such as Apple’s iPad? a) Replace the internal SSD b) Add additional RAM c) Upgrade the processor d) Print over WiFi or Bluetooth
d) Print over WiFi or Bluetooth You should not count on being able to do anything that involves opening the device. Many tablets and phones offer options for printing wirelessly, sometimes with the purchase of additional software or hardware to assist.
575
Which of the following features is not supported when you are unable to zoom in on a picture or screen of information by placing two fingers together on the screen and spreading them? a) Multi-touch b) TouchFLO c) SuperPinch d) Resistive touchscreen
a) Multi-touch Multi-touch is the feature that allows pinch-to-zoom technology. Spreading your fingers apart zooms in, while pinching your fingers together zooms out. TouchFLO is the HTC technology that features multiple screens that you can flip between. SuperPinch does not exist, and as unpopular an idea as it may seem, even resistive touchscreens are technically capable of multi-touch.
576
Which of the following are universally common items that are synced between a mobile device and a larger computer? (Choose three.) a) Office documents b) Contacts c) Operating system files d) Email e) Configuration settings f) Apps
b) Contacts d) Emails f) Apps The items most often able to be synchronized are contacts, apps, email, photos, music, and videos.
577
Which of the following is not  a requirement for installing iTunes on a Windows machine? a) A 1GHz processor or better b) 512MB of RAM or higher c) 200MB of available disk space' d) The x64 versions of Windows
d) The x64 versions of Windows You can install iTunes on the supported x86 versions of Windows as well.
578
Which of the following statements about configuring email access on a mobile device is true? a) b) The TCP ports used for configuring access are usually standard port numbers. c) Most ports used for access are UDP ports. d) You must download third-party apps for connecting to email services.
b) The TCP ports used for configuring access are usually standard port numbers. Mail access uses standard secure or insecure TCP ports, not UDP ports. Exchange access to such mail services is not unheard of, but it is exceedingly rare. Mobile devices tend to have email clients built in.
579
Which of the following built-in components is used by location services to find a lost mobile device? a) Gyroscope b) Accelerometer c) Global positioning system d) Magnetometer
c) Global positioning system The GPS transceiver, WiFi connection, and cellular network are used to home in on the geographical location of a missing mobile device.
580
Which of the following do modern mobile devices most likely have? a) SSD b) Keyboard connector c) Optical disc drive d) Video connector
a) SSD Most modern devices use a solid-state drive (SSD), called internal storage, instead of a traditional magnetic drive to store permanent information. Memory cards can often be used to augment the SSD’s storage capacity.
581
 In Windows 7, which utility is responsible for finding, downloading, and installing Windows service packs? a) Update Manager b) Service Pack Manager c) Download Manager d) Windows Update
d) Windows Update Windows Update automatically (by default) finds, downloads, and installs service packs and other Windows updates. None of the other options are real utilities.
582
Which boot mode loads only basic drivers? a) Limited Mode b) Safe Mode c) Feature Mode d) Window Mode
b) Safe Mode Safe Mode only loads basic drivers, such as a standard VGA video driver and the keyboard and mouse.
583
Which BOOTREC option can be used in Windows 7 to rebuild the boot configuration file? a) /FIXBOOT b) /REBUILDBCD c) /FIXBCD d) /FIXMBR
b) /REBUILDBCD Windows 7 and Windows Vista use the Windows Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file instead of the BOOT.INI file. This can be rebuilt with the /REBUILDBCD option.
584
What is the first step in the troubleshooting process? a) Document findings b) Identify the problem c) Establish a theory d) Verify functionality
b) Identify the problem The first step is to identify the problem. Once you have done that, you should (in order) establish a theory of probable cause, test the theory, establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, verify full system functionality, and document your findings.
585
Which tool do you use to create a restore point in Windows XP? a) Backup b) System Restore c) Restore Point d) Emergency Repair
b) System Restore The System Restore tool is used to create restore points. Backup creates backups of your hard drive. You can use Backup to create copies of your configuration (like a restore point) along with other data, but to specifically create a restore point, use System Restore. There are no Restore Point or Emergency Repair tools (although there is an emergency repair disk).
586
Which of the following operating systems use the BOOT.INI file during boot? a) Window XP b) Window Vista c) Window 7 d) All of the above
a) Window XP Only Windows XP uses the BOOT.INI file. Windows 7 and Windows Vista use the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file.
587
One of the users you support has a Windows 7 laptop that continues to spontaneously shut down and restart. What should you try first? a) Swap the motherboard. b) Begin disabling drivers one by one until you find the culprit. c) Disable the sleep settings for hibernation. d) Reinstall Windows 7.
c) Disable the sleep settings for hibernation. Check the sleep settings for hibernation and disable those first to see if that makes a difference. If it does not, then you can begin disabling drivers and making other changes.
588
Windows 7 includes a feature called a _________, which is a copy of your system configuration that can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a configuration error occurs. a) Restore Point b) Repair Point c) Rollback Point d) Registry point
a) Restore Point Windows can use restore points to roll back the system configuration to a previous state. None of the other options exist.
589
Which of the following are used to prevent pop-unders from appearing? a) Anti-malware utilities b) Pop-up blockers c) Phishing sites d) Antivirus software
b) Pop-up blockers Pop-up blockers are used to prevent both pop-ups and pop-unders from appearing. While older browsers did not incorporate an option to block pop-ups, most newer browsers, including the latest versions of Internet Explorer, now have that capability built in.
590
In general, how often should you update your antivirus definitions? a) Once a week b) Once a month c) Once a year d) Antivirus definitions do not need to be updated
a) Once a Week It’s critical to keep your antivirus software up-to-date, so you should update your definitions at least once per week.
591
One of your users claims that their hard drive seems to be running slowly. What tool can you use to check to see how fragmented the hard drive is? a) Disk Analyzer b) Disk Cleanup c) Disk Defragmenter d) Chkdsk
c) Disk Defragmenter Disk Defragmenter will analyze the hard drive to determine how fragmented it is and will allow you to defragment it. There is no Disk Analyzer tool. Disk Cleanup can help you free up space by deleting unneeded files. Checkdisk (Chkdsk) can help you find problems on the hard drive, but it does not look for fragmentation.
592
You want to ensure that your Windows XP computer receives automatic updates to Windows and Microsoft Office. Which tool will take care of this for you? a) Windows Update b) Microsoft Update c) System Upate d) None of the above
b) Microsoft Update Windows Update downloads patches for the Windows operating system. Microsoft Update downloads patches for Windows as well as Microsoft applications.
593
Which of the following programs could be considered anti-malware? a) Window Defender b) Microsoft Monitor c) System Watchdog d) None of the above
a) Window Defender Windows Defender is an anti-malware program. It checks for harmful, or unwanted, software installed on the machine.
594
Which of the following allows you to register and unregister modules and controls for troubleshooting purposes? a) RegSvr32 b) SFC c) Fixboot d) Fixmbr
a) RegSvr32 The Regsvr32 tool (REGSVR32.EXE) allows you to register and unregister modules and controls for troubleshooting purposes.
595
Which of the following can you do to help eliminate security problems? (Choose four.) a) Establish security policies and procedures. b) Update your operating systems. c) Update your applications. d) Update your network devices.
a) Establish security policies and procedures. b) Update your operating systems. c) Update your applications. d) Update your network devices. Establishing security policies and procedures, updating your operating systems, updating your applications, and updating your network devices are all good measures to take to help eliminate potential security problems.
596
Internal users are seeing repeated attempts to infect their systems as reported to them by pop-up messages from their virus scanning software. According to the pop-up messages, the virus seems to be the same in every case. What is the most likely culprit? a) A server is acting as a carrier for a virus. b) You have a worm virus. c) Your antivirus software has malfunctioned. d) A DoS attack is under way.
a) A server is acting as a carrier for a virus. Some viruses won’t damage a system in an attempt to spread into all the other systems in a network. These viruses use that system as the carrier of the virus.
597
Which of the following tools can you use to delete temporary Internet files and other unneeded files to free up disk space? a) Disk Analyzer b) Disk Cleanup c) Disk Defragmenter d) CHKDSK
b) Disk Cleanup Disk Cleanup can help you free up space by deleting unneeded files. Disk Defragmenter will analyze the hard drive to determine how fragmented it is and will allow you to defragment it. There is no Disk Analyzer tool. Checkdisk (Chkdsk) can help you find problems on the hard drive, but it does not delete files.
598
Which of the following tools automatically verifies system files after a reboot to see if they were changed to unprotected copies? a) DAZR b) NTLDR c) REGEDIT d) SFC
d) SFC SFC automatically verifies system files after a reboot to see if they were changed to unprotected copies.
599
To open System Restore, click Start > All Programs > Accessories, and then: a) Advanced b) System Tools c) Backup d) TCP/IP
b) System Tools To open System Restore, click Start > All Programs > Accessories > System Tools > System Restore.
600
Which utility is shown in the following figure? a) Regedit b) RegSrv32 c) Msconfig d) Event Viewer
a) Regedit The figure shows Regedit, but the name of the utility has been purposely obscured.
601
 If the video on your laptop is not working, what should you do to troubleshoot it? (Choose two.) a) Toggle the video function key. b) Try using an external monitor. c) Remove the display unit and reattach it. d) Power the system off and back on.
a) Toggle the video function key. b) Try using an external monitor. Two helpful things to try are toggling the video output function key (usually Fn+F8) and plugging an external monitor into the laptop. Removing the display is possible but not recommended. Powering the system off and back on isn’t likely to correct the problem.
602
While inspecting a motherboard, you notice a discolored area. What is usually a cause of this? a) Spilled liquid b) Improper manufacture c) Power surge d) Underclocking
c) Power surge Discolored areas on the board are often caused by overheating. This can be the result of power surges.
603
You need to connect a client computer to a shared network drive from the command prompt. Which command should you use? a) NET USE b) NETSTAT c) NSLOOKUP d) IPCONFIG
a) NET USE The NET USE command allows you to connect to shared resources such as shared drives and printers on the network.
604
Every computer has a diagnostic program built into its BIOS called the __________. a) CMOS b) BIOS c) POST d) DNS
c) POST Every computer has a diagnostic program built into its BIOS called the power-on self-test (POST). The BIOS is the software stored on the CMOS chip. DNS is Domain Name Service, which in networking resolves hostnames to IP addresses.
605
While troubleshooting a client computer, you decide to obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server. After releasing the existing address, which command do you use to get new IP information from the DHCP server? a) IPCONFIG /REFRESH b) IPCONFIG /RENEW c) IFCONFIG /RELEASE d) IFCONFIG /START
b) IPCONFIG /RENEW Explanation: The IPCONFIG command is perhaps the most used utility in troubleshooting and network configuration. The IPCONFIG /RENEW command will send a query to the DHCP server asking it to resend and renew all DHCP information. For a more detailed look at the IPCONFIG command, type IPCONFIG /?  at the command prompt.
606
Users are complaining that their print jobs are not printing. You open the print queue and see 50 jobs lined up. The printer is connected properly and online. What should you do? a) Open Printer Troubleshooting and have it diagnose the problem. b) Stop and restart the print spooler. c) Delete and reinstall the printer. d) Delete and reinstall Windows.
b) Stop and restart the print spooler. If print jobs are seemingly getting “stuck” in the printer queue, you should stop and restart the print spooler service. There is no Printer Troubleshooting utility that will diagnose printer problems. Deleting and reinstalling is not necessary.
607
What two devices are commonly used to cool components within a PC? (Choose two.) a) Fans b) Compressed air c) Freon d) Heat sinks
a) Fans d) Heat sinks Heat sinks and fans are commonly used to cool components within a PC. Compressed air can be used to blow out small particles or dust. Freon is a coolant used in some air conditioners but is not typically used for personal computers.
608
You are having problems with the video card in one of your computers. Where could you check for troubleshooting information? a) Another computer with the same video card b) The video card manufacturer’s website c) The manual that came with the card d) The server log
b) The video card manufacturer’s website The manufacturer's website is the first place you should go for information on your products, including troubleshooting information. Many years ago, manufacturers would provide paper manuals with their products, but that’s almost unheard of today. Server logs can show error codes but won’t tell you how to fix anything.
609
Your laser printer keeps printing vertical black lines on its output pages. What is the most likely cause of the problem? a) There is a groove or scratch in the EP drum. b) The EP drum cleaning blade is broken. c) The printer is low on toner. d) The transfer corona wire is not working properly.
a) There is a groove or scratch in the EP drum. The most likely cause is a groove or a scratch in the EP drum. Toner is collecting in that groove or scratch and then being deposited on to the page.
610
The display on your laptop appears warped and fuzzy. You plug in an external monitor, and the image on it is fine. What is the most likely cause of the problem? a) The video card b) The LCD display c) The motherboard d) The video driver
b) The LCD display It has to be a problem with the LCD display. If it were the video card, then the display would appear warped and fuzzy on the external monitor as well. While many motherboards contain video circuitry, this answer is not specific enough. If the video driver were corrupted, you would have the same problem on all displays.
611
You have an inkjet printer. Recently, papers are being printed with excessive amounts of ink, and the ink is smearing. What is the most likely cause of the problem? a) A faulty ink cartridge b) A corrupt print driver c) A faulty fuser d) Too much humidity in the air
a) A faulty ink cartridge If an ink cartridge is faulty or develops a hole, it can release excessive amounts of ink, which will lead to smearing. A corrupt print driver would result in printing garbage. Inkjet printers do not have a fuser. Excessive humidity may cause smearing, but it wouldn’t cause the disbursement of too much ink.
612
You are working with a system that is assigned IP information configuration information from a central server. You wish to view the IP information on the system. Which of the following commands would you use from the command prompt? a) IPCONFIG /REFRESH b) IPCONFIG /ALL c) IPCONFIG /RENEW d) WINIPCFG /ALL
b) IPCONFIG /ALL The ipconfig utility can be used with Windows to see the networking configuration values at the command line. It is one of the most commonly used command-line utilities that can be used in troubleshooting and network configurations. To view IP configuration information, use the IPCONFIG /all command.
613
When you print documents on your laser printer, you see residue from previous images on the output. What two things are the most likely causes of this problem? (Choose two.) a) A faulty transfer corona wire b) An overheating printer c) A bad erasure lamp d) A broken cleaning blade
c) A bad erasure lamp d) A broken cleaning blade Seeing images from previous print jobs is a phenomenon called ghosting. It’s most likely due to a bad erasure lamp or a broken cleaning blade.
614
You turn a computer on, but nothing shows up on the monitor. Instead of one beep, you hear one long beep followed by three short beeps. What is the problem? a) The video card is dead. b) The motherboard is dead. c) The BIOS is not functioning. d) Not enough information; you need to look up the beep code to determine the problem.
d) Not enough information; you need to look up the beep code to determine the problem. It may well be that the video card is dead. Different BIOS manufacturers use different beep codes, though, so you’ll want to look it up to be sure. If the motherboard was dead or the BIOS wasn’t functioning, you wouldn’t get to the POST routine, so you wouldn’t get a beep code.
615
Which of the following command-line utilities is used to verify the route a data packet takes to a remote host? a) Trace b) Tracert c) TraceRoute d) Tracepacket
b) Tracert Tracert is a command-line utility that enables you to verify the route to a remote host. It is often used in the troubleshooting process to verify the path a data packet takes toward its final destination.
616
You turn a computer on and it doesn’t boot up properly. From inside the case you hear a rhythmic ticking sound. What is most likely the problem? a) The motherboard b) The power supply fan c) The hard drive d) The video card
c) The hard drive The only components that typically make noise are the ones that have moving parts, such as fans and hard drives. In most cases, a rhythmic ticking sound will be something that’s generated by the hard drive.
617
You support an old dot-matrix printer at work. When the printer prints, there is always a blank horizontal line in the middle of each line of output. What is the most likely cause of the problem? a) The print ribbon is old and needs to be replaced. b) The print ribbon is not advancing properly. c) The print head needs to be replaced. d) The wrong print driver is installed.
c) The print head needs to be replaced. If there is a consistent blank space, it likely means that a pin is not firing properly and the print head needs to be replaced. If the print ribbon was old, you would have consistently faded printing. If the ribbon was not advancing properly, you would get light and dark printing. If the wrong driver is installed, you will get garbage.
618
You suspect a faulty network card on a client machine. Which tool can you use to test your hypothesis? a) Wireless locator b) Cable tester c) Toner probe d) Loopback plug
d) Loopback plug Loopback plugs are used to test the sending and receiving ability of network cards. Wireless locators find wireless network signals. Cable testers validate cables, and toner probes are used to trace a cable from one end to the other.
619
You are troubleshooting a server and discover that one of the hard drives in the RAID 0 array has failed. Which statement is true? a) You need to replace the failed drive, but the data is okay because it is configured as a mirror. b) You need to replace the failed drive, but the data is okay because it is configured as a disk stripe with parity. c) You need to replace the failed drive, and the data on the array is lost. d) You do not need to replace the failed drive; the system will function normally.
c) You need to replace the failed drive, and the data on the array is lost. A RAID 0 array is also known as disk striping. RAID 0 actually decreases your fault tolerance versus one hard drive because there are more points of failure. You need to replace the drive, and hopefully you had it backed up so you can restore the data.
620
A user calls saying his laptop won’t power on. He charged it all night so he knows the battery is fine. What should you have him do first? a) Plug the laptop in using an AC adapter and try to power it on. b) Replace the battery with a spare and try to power it on. c) Toggle the battery power switch on the front of the laptop, and then try to power it on. d) Send the laptop in for service.v
a) Plug the laptop in using an AC adapter and try to power it on. If a laptop won’t power up on battery, always try to use AC power. You never know when a battery could have failed. If he had a spare and didn’t have an AC power cord, trying a spare might work, but trying AC power is the best bet. There is no battery power switch on laptops.
621
Which of the following topologies allows for network expansion with the least amount of disruption for the current network users? a) Star b) Bus c) Ring d) Mesh
a) Star The star topology is the easiest to modify. A physical star topology branches each network device off a central device called a hub or a switch, making it easy to add a new workstation. See Chapter 6 for more information.
622
Which layer of the OSI model has the important role of providing error checking? a) Session Layer b) Presentation layer c) Application layer d) Transport layer
d) Transport layer A key role of the Transport layer is to provide error checking. The Transport layer also provides functions such as reliable end-to-end communications, segmentation and reassembly of larger messages, and combination of smaller messages into a single larger message. See Chapter 6 for more information.
623
Which cable standard is used for Ethernet 10Base2 installations? a) RG-6 b) RG-8 c) RG-58AU d) RJ-45
c) RG-58AU 10Base2 is also known as thinnet, and it uses coaxial cable. The correct cable standard is RG-58AU. RG-6 is for cable television and satellite modems, and RG-8 is for thicknet, or 10Base5. RJ-45 is a connector for twisted pair cabling. See Chapter 6 for more information.
624
On which port does FTP run by default? a) 21 b) 25 c) 63 d) 89
a) 21 FTP listens on port 21. See Chapter 7 for more information.
625
Which of the following protocols can be used by a client to retrieve email from a server? a) DNS b) FTP c) SMTP d) IMAP
d) IMAP The IMAP and POP3 protocols can be used to retrieve email from mail servers. See Chapter 7 for more information.
626
Which of the following is a security mechanism used by HTTPS to encrypt web traffic between a web client and server? a) IPSec b) SSL c) L2TP d) PPPoE
b) SSL HTTPS connections are secured using either Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS). See Chapter 7 for more information.
627
Which of the following is a company that provides direct access to the Internet for home and business computer users? a) ASP b) ISP c) DNS d) DNP
b) ISP An Internet service provider (ISP) provides direct access to the Internet. See Chapter 8 for more information.
628
What is the data throughput provided by one ISDN bearer channel? a) 16Kbps b) 56Kbps c) 64Kbps d) 128Kbps
c) 64Kbps An ISDN B (bearer) channel provides 64Kbps data throughput. A home-based BRI ISDN provides two B channels. See Chapter 8 for more information.
629
Which of the following are 4G technologies? (Choose all that apply.) a) LTE b) GSM c) CDMA d) WiMax
a) LTE d) WiMax WiMax and LTE are the two current 4G cellular technologies. GSM and CDMA are 3G technologies. See Chapter 8 for more information.
630
Which LCD component is responsible for providing brightness? a) Backlight b) Inverter c) Screen d) Backdrop
a) backlight The backlight provides light to the LCD screen. The inverter provides power to the backlight, and the screen displays the picture. See Chapter 9 for more information.
631
Your laptop has 2GB of installed memory and uses shared video memory. If the video card is using 512MB, how much is left for the rest of the system? a) 2GB b) 1.5 GB c) 512MB d) Cannot determine
b)1.5GB If the laptop is using shared video memory, then the system memory is shared with the video card. If the video card is using 512MB (half a gigabyte), then there is 1.5GB left for the system. See Chapter 9 for more information.
632
Which of the following standards is also known as CardBus? a) PCMCIA 1.0 b) PCMCIA 2.0 c) PCMCIA 5.0 d) ExpressCard
c) PCMCIA 5.0 PCMCIA 5.0 is also known as CardBus. See Chapter 9 for more information.
633
What is the function of the laser in a laser printer? a) It heats up the toner so it adheres to the page. b) It charges the paper so it will attract toner. c) It creates an image of the page on the drum. d) It cleans the drum before a page is printed.
c) It creates an image of the page on the drum. The laser creates an image on the photosensitive drum that is then transferred to the paper by the transfer corona. The fuser heats up the toner so it adheres to the page. The transfer corona charges the page, and the eraser lamp cleans the drum before a page is printed. A rubber blade is also used to physically remove toner from the drum. See Chapter 10 for more information.
634
What is the component called that stores the material that ends up printed to the page in a laser printer? a) Toner cartridge b) Ink cartridge c) Laser module d) Laser cartridge
a) Toner cartridge Laser printers use toner, which they melt to the page in the image of the text and graphics being printed. A toner cartridge holds the fine toner dust until it is used in the printing process. See Chapter 10 for more information.
635
The output of a dot-matrix printer is typically measured in what? a) CPM b) CPS c) PPM d) PPM
b) CPS The output of impact printers such as dot-matrix printers is measured in characters per second (CPS). Many bubble-jet and laser printers are measured in terms of pages per minute (PPM). See Chapter 10 for more information.
636
Which of the following computer components can retain a lethal electrical charge even after the device is unplugged? (Choose all that apply.) a) Monitor b) Processor c) Power Supply d) RAM
a) Monitor c) Power Supply Monitors and power supplies can retain significant electrical charges even after they?re unplugged. Don?t open the back of a monitor or the power supply unless you are specifically trained to do so. See Chapter 11 for more information.
637
Roughly how much time spent communicating should be devoted to listening? a) 23 percent b) 40 percent c) 50 percent d) 80 percent
c) 50 percent Roughly half the time spent communicating should be devoted to listening. See Chapter 11 for more information.
638
When lifting heavy equipment, what is the proper technique? a) Get the heaviest part closest to your body and lift with your legs. b) Get the heaviest part closest to your body and lift with your back. c) Get the lightest part closest to your body and lift with your legs. d) Get the lightest part closest to your body and lift with your back.
a) Get the heaviest part closest to your body and lift with your legs. When lifting heavy equipment, center the weight as close to your body as possible. Then, keep your back straight and lift with your legs. See Chapter 11 for more information.
639
Your laser printer has recently starting printing vertical white lines on documents it prints. What is the most likely cause of the problem? a) The print driver is faulty. b) The fuser is not heating properly. c) There is toner on the transfer corona wire. d) There is a scratch on the EP drum.
c) There is toner on the transfer corona wire. White streaks on printouts are most likely caused by toner on the transfer corona wire. Vertical black lines are caused by a scratch or a groove in the EP drum. If the fuser was not heating properly, toner would not bond to the paper and you would have smearing. Faulty print drivers will cause garbage to print or there will be no printing at all. See Chapter 20 for more information.
640
You are working with a system that is assigned IP information configuration information from a central server. You wish to manually refresh the IP information on the system. Which of the following command would you use? a) IPCONFIG /REFRESH b) IPCONFIG /ALL c) IPCONFIG /RENEW d) WINIPCFG /ALL
c) IPCONFIG / RENEW The IPCONFIG command can be used with Windows XP (and others) to see the networking configuration values at the command line. It is one of the most commonly used command-line utilities that can be used in troubleshooting and network configurations. To renew IP configuration information, the IPCONFIG /renew command is used to force the DHCP server to renew the IP information assigned to the system. See Chapter 20 for more information.
641
One laser printer in your office keeps getting frequent paper jams. What is the most likely cause of the problem? a) Worn paper feed rollers b) Faulty stepper motor c) Faulty fuser assembly d) v\The EP drum not advancing properly
a) Worn paper feed rollers The most likely cause of those listed is a worn paper feed roller. Stepper motors control the back-and-forth motion of a print head in a bubble-jet printer. If the fuser assembly were faulty, the images would smear. See Chapter 20 for more information.
642
Which of the following is not  considered a system component that can be found inside a computer? a) CPU b) RAM c) PCIe graphics adapter d) Motherboard
c) PCIe graphic adapter System components are essential for the basic functionality of a computer system. Many of the landmarks found on the motherboard can be considered system components, even expansion slots to a degree. What you plug into those slots, however, must be considered peripheral to the basic operation of the system. For more information, see Chapter 1.
643
Which of the following is not  a physical memory format used in desktop computer systems? a) DRAM b) DIMM c) SIMM d) RIMM
a) DRAM Although DRAM is a very common type of RAM essentially used in all computer systems today, it does not describe a physical memory format. SIMMs, DIMMs, and RIMMs are all technologies on which memory-module manufacturing is based. For more information, see Chapter 1.
644
Which of the following are components that can commonly be found on a motherboard? (Choose all that apply.) a) Slots b) Fan connectors c) Gyroscope d) Scanner
a) Slots b) Fan connector Motherboards commonly have RAM slots and expansion slots. Older motherboards even had CPU slots. Modern motherboards have connectors for powering cooling fans. Gyroscopes are most commonly found in mobile devices. Scanners are external devices. Although there might be one or more types of HDD interfaces built into the motherboard, the HDD itself is not. For more information, see Chapter 1.
645
Which of the following is a chip that is integrated into PATA drives, as opposed to being mounted on a daughter card? a) Controller b) CPU c) Host adapter d) IDE
a) Controller A controller chip is responsible for encoding data to be stored on the disk platters as well as performing geometry translation for the BIOS. Translation is necessary because the true number of sectors per track of the hard disk drive system usually exceeds what is supported by the BIOS. For more information, see Chapter 2.
646
What is the name of the power connector that is larger than the connector used for floppy diskette drives and that is commonly used with PATA drives? a) AT system connector b) Berg c) Molex d) ATX system connector
a) Molex The standard peripheral power connector, or Molex connector, is commonly used on larger drives because it allows more current to flow to the drive than does the Berg connector, which is used with floppy diskette drives. For more information, see Chapter 2.
647
After SATA was introduced, what was the retroactive term used for the original ATA specification? a) EIDE b) IDE c) PATA d) SCSI
c) PATA IDE  (ATA-1) and EIDE  (ATA-2 and later) were specific nicknames for the ATA series of standards. Although ATA  is technically accurate, it refers to legacy IDE standards as well as newer SATA standards. Instead of using the term ATA  to be synonymous with IDE  and EIDE , as had been done in the past, the term PATA  was coined, referring to the parallel nature of IDE communications. The term PATA  differentiates the IDE and EIDE form of ATA from Serial ATA. SCSI is a related yet completely different type of technology. For more information, see Chapter 2.
648
You are installing a new graphics adapter in a Windows 7 system. Which of the following expansion slots are designed for high-speed, 3D graphics adapters? (Choose all that apply.) a) USB b) AGP c) PCI d) ISA e) PCIe
b) AGP e) PCIe Although technically PCI and ISA could be used for graphics adapters, AGP was specifically designed for the use of high-speed, 3D graphic video cards. PCIe offers better performance than AGP for graphics adapters. For more information, see Chapter 3.
649
Which of the following connectors is used for a parallel printer port? a) DE9 b) DA15 c) DB25 d) DE25
c) DB25 Parallel printer ports use a D-subminiature connector known as a DB25. The DE9 port is used for the RS-232 serial port. The DA15 is used for AUI and game/joystick ports. The DE25 is not a common port. For more information, see Chapter 3.
650
Which of the following are modular ports used in data communications? (Choose all that apply.) a) RG-6 b) RJ-45 c) RJ-11 d) DB25 e) RG-11
b) RJ-45 c) RJ-11 RJ-11 ports are used in analog telephony and allow modems attached to computer serial ports to transmit modulated digital information across the public switched telephone network (PSTN). RJ-45 ports are used by various network interface controller (NIC) cards for attachment to networks such as Ethernet. RG-6 and RG-11 coaxial connectors and DB25 connectors are not modular. For more information, see Chapter 3.
651
The _________ is the measurement of the number of pixels an LCD monitor can display without the image appearing distorted. a) Native resolution b) Contrast ratio c) Pixelation d) Base frequency
a) Native resolution The native resolution refers to how many pixels an LCD screen can display (across and down) without distortion. The native resolution is based on the placement of the actual transistors that create the image by twisting the liquid crystals. The contrast ratio is the measurement between the darkest color and the lightest color that an LCD screen can display. For more information, see Chapter 4.
652
Which of the following is not  a common monitor technology? a) CRT b) Plasma c) OLED d) Super PMOLED
d) Super PMOLED Although there is  a Super AMOLED display, employing active-matrix technology, there is not a corresponding passive-matrix version. The other technologies exist and are discussed in further detail in Chapter 4.
653
What can be used at the check-in desk of a doctor?s office to prevent patients from viewing confidential information? a) An antiglare filter b) A privacy filter c) An LED display d) A thin client
b) A privacy filter Privacy filters are used to limit the viewing angle for a monitor. With such filters, the screen image becomes indiscernible when viewed at just a few degrees from center. For more information, see Chapter 4.
654
Which of the following is a standard computer that can access resources locally as well as from servers but requires no specialized enhancements? a) Gaming PC b) Home server c) Thin client d) Thick Client
d) Thick client A thick client is any computer system with a standard configuration. The gaming PC has enhancements over thick clients to their CPU, video, audio, and cooling. The home server PC must have specialized capabilities and services along with a faster NIC than the thick client and a RAID array. The thin client is a lesser device in comparison to the thick client, but that cost-saving feature is its enhancement. These less expensive computers can connect over the network to servers for their operating system images and applications. For more information, see Chapter 5.
655
Which of the following is a requirement for virtualization workstations? a) Enhanced video b) Enhanced audio c) Maximum RAM and CPU cores d) RAID array
c) Maximum RAM and CPU cores Virtualization workstations require more RAM than standard systems and need to be equipped with as many multicore processors as possible. Video and audio are not resources that need to be enhanced for such workstations. Although a RAID array is a wise addition whenever servers with valuable information are involved, a virtualization workstation does not require one. For more information, see Chapter 5.
656
Which of the following is not  a requirement for a home server PC? a) TV turner b) Print and file sharing services c) Gigabit NIC d) RAID array
a) TV turner A TV tuner card is a requirement for a home theater PC but not for a home server. The other options are among those features that are required. For more information, see Chapter 5.
657
Which of the following are popular mobile-device operating systems? (Choose all that apply.) a) Andriod b) Window 7 c) Ubuntu d) iOS
a) Andriod d) iOS Google?s Android and Apple?s iOS are two of the most popular operating systems for mobile devices on the market. The other two are not. Although some mobile operating systems are based on Linux or UNIX, Ubuntu is a Linux distribution not used for mobile devices. For more information, see Chapter 18.
658
Which of the following protocols can be used in close range to transfer data between a mobile device and a computer system or to allow media to stream from the mobile device to an audio system? a) SMTP b) Bluetooh c) POP3 d) IMAP4
b) Bluetooth Bluetooth allows you to pair a mobile device to a computer or to a device such as an automotive sound system or headset. Data can be transferred between devices and media can be streamed from the mobile device. For more information, see Chapter 18.
659
What term refers to copying data between a mobile device and a computer system to mirror such things as contacts, programs, pictures, and music? a) Calibration b) Remote wipe c) Pairing d) Synchronization
d) Synchronization Synchronizing a mobile device with a computer system allows you to mirror personal data between the devices, regardless of which one contains the most current data. Calibration refers to matching the device?s and user?s perceptions of where the user is touching the screen. Remote wipes allow you to remove personal data from a lost or stolen device. Pairing is what must be done in Bluetooth for two Bluetooth devices to connect and communicate. For more information, see Chapter 18.
660
Which of the following is a virtual machine manager?the software that allows the virtual machines to exist? a) Comptroller b) Shell c) Kernel d) Hypervisor
d) Hypervisor The hypervisor is a virtual machine manager?the software that allows the virtual machines to exist. For more information, see Chapter 12.
661
Which of the following would not  be considered a standard permission in Windows using NTFS? a) Full Control b) Modify c) Allow d) Write
c) Allow Which of the following would not  be considered a standard permission in Windows using NTFS?
662
Which feature is designed to keep Windows current by automatically downloading updates such as patches and security fixes and installing these fixes automatically? a) Security Center b) Action Center c) Windows Update d) Windows Anytime
c) Window update Windows includes Windows Update, a feature designed to keep Windows current by automatically downloading updates such as patches and security fixes and installing these fixes automatically. For more information, see Chapter 12.
663
With dynamic storage, which of the following partition types are possible? a) Complex, bridged, or mirrored b) Simple, spanned, or striped c) Simple, complex, or interleaved d) Spanned, interleaved, or striped
b) Simple, spanned, or striped Windows 7, Vista, and XP support both basic and dynamic storage. Basic can have a primary and an extended partition, while dynamic can be simple, spanned, or striped. For more information, see Chapter 13.
664
Which MSINFO32 option is available only with Windows XP? a) /PCH b) /COMPUTER c) /NFO d) /REPORT
a) /PCH The /pch option is available only in Windows XP and is used to display the history view. For more information, see Chapter 13.
665
You have been told to use Task Manager to change the priority of a process to Below Normal. This equates to a base priority of what? a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
c) 6 You have been told to use Task Manager to change the priority of a process to Below Normal. This equates to a base priority of what?
666
Encrypting File System (EFS) is available in which editions of Windows 7? (Choose all that apply.) a) Professional b) Home Premium c) Enterprise d) Ultimate e) Business
a) Professional c) Enterprise d) Ultimate EFS is available in the Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions of Windows 7 allowing for encryption/decryption on files stored in NTFS volumes. For more information, see Chapter 14.
667
Which of the following can provide electrical power over Ethernet cabling? a) PoE b) QoS c) DoS d) WoL
a) PoE Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a handy technology to supply both power and an Ethernet connection. The purpose of Power over Ethernet (PoE) is pretty much described in its name: Electrical power is transmitted over twisted-pair Ethernet cable (along with data). For more information, see Chapter 14.
668
With which type of duplexing do communications travel in both directions but in only one direction at any given time? a) Full b) Half c) Auto d) Mechanical
b) Half With half duplex, communications travel in both directions but in only one direction at any given time. For more information, see Chapter 14.
669
You have just added a new network to your Windows Vista laptop and it is asking you to specify a type of location. With which location types is network discovery on by default? (Choose all that apply.) a) Home b) Work c) Public d) Private e) HomeGroup
a) Home b) Work The three location types in Windows Vista for a network are Home, Work, and Public. If you choose one of the first two, network discovery is on by default, allowing you to see other computers and other computers to see you. For more information, see Chapter 14.
670
Which applet in Windows Vista is the primary interface for configuring synchronization of offline files? a) Synchronization Wizard b) Action Center c) Merge d) Sync Center
d) Sync Center The Sync Center in Windows Vista is the primary interface for configuring synchronization. For more information, see Chapter 15.
671
Which of the following Control Panel applets is unique to Windows Vista? a) Tablet PC Settings b) Network Setup Wizard c) Printers and Faxes d) Action Center
a) Tablet PC Settings The Tablet PC Settings applet (Start > Control Panel > Tablet PC Settings) in Windows Vista can be used, as the name implies, to configure the device on which the operating system is installed to function as a true tablet. For more information, see Chapter 15.
672
Which Control Panel applet allows you to administer, as well as deploy, component services and configure behavior like security? a) SFC b) Data Sources c) Component Services d) DDR
c) Component Services Component Services allows you to administer, as well as deploy, component services and configure behavior like security. For more information, see Chapter 15.
673
The Account Lockout Counter in an Account Lockout policy keeps track of the number of invalid attempts before lockout occurs. The default is 0 (meaning the feature is turned off), but it can be set from 1 to what? a) 9999 b) 999 c) 99 d) 24
b) 999 It can be set from 1 to 999. For more information, see Chapter 15.
674
What Windows operating system tool can be used to block access from the network (be it internal or the Internet)? a) Windows Firewall b) Windows Defender c) Advanced Security d) Device Manager
a) Windows Firewall Windows Firewall (Start > Control Panel > Windows Firewall) is used to block access from the network (be it internal or the Internet). For more information, see Chapter 15.
675
Which of the following are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of another program? (Choose the best answer.) a) Worm b) Trojans c) Rootkits d) Spyware
b) Trojans Trojans are programs that enter a system or network under the guise of another program. While rootkits may  do this, it is not their primary feature and thus not the best answer for this question. For more information, see Chapter 17.
676
Which of the following involves applying a strong magnetic field to initialize the media before tossing it away? a) Fraying b) Fracking c) Degaussing d) Spreading
c) Degaussing Degaussing involves applying a strong magnetic field to initialize the media (this is also referred to as disk wiping). This process helps ensure that information doesn?t fall into the wrong hands. For more information, see Chapter 17.
677
Which term is synonymous with MAC filtering? a) Disabling Autorun b) Shredding c) Port disabling d) Network Lock
d) Network Lock On a number of wireless devices, the term Network Lock is used in place of MAC filtering, and the two are synonymous. For more information, see Chapter 17.
678
Which of the following is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time? a) Restore point b) MBR c) Registry d) BOOT.INI
a) Restore Point A restore point is a copy of your system configuration at a given point in time. It?s like a backup of your configuration but not necessarily your data. For more information, see Chapter 12.
679
Your system has issues with locking up intermittently. Because it is running Windows XP, what diagnostic tool can you use that does not exist in Windows Vista or Windows 7? a) SFC b) Dr. Watson c) NTLDR d) MSCONFIG
b) Dr. Watson Windows XP includes a special utility known as Dr. Watson. This utility intercepts all error conditions and, instead of presenting the user with a cryptic Windows error, displays a slew of information that can be used to troubleshoot the problem. For more information, see Chapter 19.
680
Which of the following could be described as a small, deviously ingenious program that replicates itself to other computers, generally causing those computers to behave abnormally? (Choose the best answer.) a) Rogue b) Redirector c) Virus d) Pop-up
c) Virus A computer virus is a small, deviously ingenious program that replicates itself to other computers, generally causing those computers to behave abnormally. Generally speaking, a virus?s main function is to reproduce. For more information, see Chapter 17.
681
Which of the following are types of broadband access? (Choose three.) a) Dial-up b) DSL c) Cable d) Fiber-optic
b) DSL c) Cable d) Fiber-optic Dial-up is the predecessor to broadband access. Available broadband methods include DSL, cable, fiber-optic, and satellite. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Compare and contrast Internet connection types and features Book reference: Chapter 8
682
Which impact printer has a print head that contains a row of pins that are triggered in patterns that form letters and numbers as the print head moves across the paper? a) Laser printer b) Daisy-wheel printer c) Dot-matrix printer d) Bubble-jet printer
c) Dot-matrix printer The dot-matrix impact printer’s print head contains a row of pins that are triggered in patterns that form letters and numbers as the print head moves across the paper. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
683
Which speakers are used in 7.1 surround sound but not in 5.1 surround sound? a) Side channel b) Rear channels c) Front channels d) Center and LFE channels
a) Side Channel Six-channel (5.1) surround sound does not include side speakers, but eight-channel (7.1) surround sound does. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Identify connector types and associated cables Book Reference: Chapter 3
684
Which LCD component is responsible for providing the right kind of power to the display? a) Backlight b) Inverter c) Screen d) Backdrop
b) inverter The inverter provides power to the backlight. The backlight provides light to the LCD screen, and the screen displays the picture. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Compare and contrast the components within the display of a laptop Book reference: Chapter 9
685
When configuring a network, what is the rule of thumb on the maximum number of computers you should have in a peer-to-peer network? a) 5 b) 10 c) 20 d) 30
b) 10 The rule of thumb is 10 computers or fewer on a peer-to-peer network. If you have more computers than that, you should consider setting up a client-server network. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Identify various types of networks Book reference: Chapter 6
686
What type of connector does a Mini PCIe card have? a) 52-pin card edge b) 100-pin stacking c) 100-pin card edge d) 124-pin card edge
a) 52-pin card edge Mini PCIe cards have 52-pin card edge connectors. Mini PCI cards have either a 100-pin stacking connector or a 124-pin card edge connector. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Install and configure laptop hardware and components Book reference: Chapter 9
687
While configuring your firewall, you inadvertently block port 443. Which of the following will be unavailable? a) HTTPS b) HTTP c) SSL d) Telnet
a) HTTPS Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure is a combination of HTTP with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to make for a secure connection. It uses port 443 by default, and the beginning of the site address becomes https://. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose Book reference: Chapter 7
688
Which of the following options describes video resolution ? a) The number of colors that a pixel can display at any one time b) Whether each pixel is controlled by one or two transistors c) The difference in brightness between adjacent pixels d) The number of pixels displayed represented in column and row measurements
The number of pixels displayed represented in column and row measurements
689
You want to ensure that a certain datastream receives guaranteed bandwidth. What level of QoS should you specify in the SLA? a) 0 b) 1 c) 5 d) 6
c) 5 In the Quality of Service (QoS) service-level agreement (SLA), you should specify level 5. Higher numbers indicate higher levels of service, but the highest level anyone can configure is 5. Levels 6 and 7 are reserved for control data. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Install, configure, and deploy a SOHO wireless/wired router using appropriate settings Book reference: Chapter 8
690
Which of the following are common types of screwdrivers? (Choose two.) a) Circular b) Phillips c) Torx d) Helix
b) Phillips c) Torx The three common types of screwdrivers are flat-blade, Phillips, and Torx. There are no circular or helix screwdrivers. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, use appropriate safety procedures Book reference: Chapter 11
691
You have been asked to install a network cable that offers the greatest level of resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI). Which of the following network media would you select? a) Coaxial b) Fiber-optic c) Ethernet d) Twisted-pair
b) Fiber-optic Because fiber-optic cables use light pulses over a glass fiber as opposed to electrical signals over a copper conductor, fiber-optic cable is not susceptible to EMI. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Categorize characteristics of connectors and cabling Book reference: Chapter 6
692
Which of the following interfaces offers the highest data rate? a) USB 1.1 b) IEEE 1284 c) FireWire d) SPP
c) FireWire FireWire starts at 400Mbps. The closest competitor in this list of options is USB 1.1, which tops out at 12Mbps. You have to employ USB 2.0 at 480Mbps to challenge FireWire (IEEE 1394). Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Compare and contrast various connection interfaces and explain their purpose Book Reference: Chapter 3
693
Which kind of laptop was designed to look and function like a paper notebook? a) Luggable b) Tablet c) Netbook d) Notebook
b) Tablet The tablet PC is a notebook with a flip-around screen that allows a user to hold it like a large notebook and write notes directly on the screen with a special stylus. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Install and configure laptop hardware and components Book reference: Chapter 9
694
Which of the following is not  held in CMOS memory while the system power is off? a) Boot sequence b) BIOS passwords c) Operating system passwords d) Memory and CPU settings
c) Operating system passwords The CMOS memory only stores hardware-level settings, not those related to operating systems. Those settings are kept in files maintained by the operating systems. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Configure and apply BIOS settings Book Reference: Chapter 1
695
Which of the following is the best way to increase the security of your wireless network? a) Disable MAC filtering. b) Disable SSID broadcasts. c) Leave the SSID as the default. d) Use WEP instead of WPA.
b) Disable SSID broadcasts. You should disable SSID broadcasts to increase security. Enabling MAC filtering allows only specific computers to use the wireless router. Changing the SSID from the default is always a good idea, and you should use some sort of wireless security, but WPA is more secure than WEP. Objective: Networking Subdomain: Install, configure, and deploy a SOHO wireless/wired router using appropriate settings Book reference: Chapter 8
696
Which of the following custom configurations do not benefit from enhanced graphics? (Choose two.) a) Gaming PC b) Home server PC c) Home theater PC d) CAD/CAM workstation
b) Home server PC e) Thin Client Home server PCs are designed to share media and other resources with clients, not output high-end graphics. Thin clients obtain images and applications from servers and are not intended to support enhanced graphics. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Evaluate and select appropriate components for a custom configuration, to meet customer specifications or needs
697
Which of the following devices takes advantage of Plug and Play while power is applied to the system? a) PS/2 keyboard b) USB mouse c) DDR3 DIMM module d) PCIe graphics adapter
b) USB mouse USB-attached devices without a file system are considered Plug and Play and hot swappable because they can be removed while the computer system to which they are attached is powered on. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Install and configure various peripheral devices Book Reference: Chapter 3
698
Which of the following microfloppy formats has a capacity of 2.88MB? a) Low density b) Double density c) High density d) Extended density
d) Extended density Extended-density microfloppy diskettes have a formatted capacity of 2.88MB. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Install and configure storage devices and use appropriate media Book Reference: Chapter 2
699
Which of the following is not a valid IPv6 workstation address? a) 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab b) 2001:db8:3c4d:12:0:0:1234:56ab c) 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab d) 2001::1ab4::5468
d) 2001::1ab4::5468 The address with two sets of double colons is not valid. You can use double colons only once in an IPv6 address. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose Book reference: Chapter 7
700
Which class of fire extinguisher is recommended for use in a wood and paper fire? a) a b) b c) c d) d
a) A Wood and paper fires can be put out by a class A fire extinguisher. If you have a combination Class ABC extinguisher, that will work fine. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, use appropriate safety procedures Book reference: Chapter 11
701
Which of the following protocols can be used by a client to send email to an email server? a) POP3 b) SMTP c) IMAP d) FTP
b) SMTP SMTP is for sending email to an email server. The IMAP and POP3 protocols can be used to retrieve email from mail servers. FTP is for file downloads. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose Book reference: Chapter 7
702
Which of the following functions is typical of a home theater PC? a) Storing and streaming video b) File sharing c) Data fault tolerance d) Engineering design and manufacturing
a) Storing and streaming video Home theater PCs store a large amount of entertainment media and stream it to output devices but do not field file-sharing requests from clients. Home server PCs tend to do that and offer data fault tolerance. CAD/CAM workstations are used in design and manufacturing. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Evaluate and select appropriate components for a custom configuration, to meet customer specifications or needs Book Reference: Chapter 5
703
Which of the following are common types of Mini PCI card devices? (Choose two.) a) Hard Drive Controller b) Hard drive c) Processor d) Sound Card
a) Hard drive controller d) Sound Card Hard drive controllers (SATA and SCSI), network cards, and sound cards can all be found in Mini PCI forms. Hard drives and processors are not made in Mini PCI form. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Install and configure laptop hardware and components Book reference: Chapter 9
704
On which memory modules would you find DDR400 chips? a) PC3200 b) PC400 c) PC2-3200 d) PC50
a) PC3200 The 8:1 ratio between the numerical portion of the names of memory chips and the modules they are mounted on results in chips having the lower number of the two. Therefore, DDR400 chips are found on PC3200 modules, not PC50 modules. Even if they existed, PC50 modules would be a form of SDR SDRAM module, not DDR SDRAM. PC2-3200 modules are DDR2 modules and have DDR2-400 chips mounted on them. Domain: PC Hardware
705
Which of the following are designed to help protect against static electricity that might harm computer components? (Choose two.) a) ESD bags b) ESD mats c) ESD batteries d) ESD connectors
a) ESD bags b) ESD mats ESD bags and mats help protect against electrostatic discharge (ESD). ESD grounding straps do too. There are no ESD batteries or ESD connectors. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, use appropriate safety procedures Book reference: Chapter 11
706
How much data can a single layer of a standard DVD hold? a) 2.88MB b) 2.88GB c) 4.7GB d) 25GB
c) 4.7GB A single-sided, single-layer DVD holds 4.7GB of data. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Install and configure storage devices and use appropriate media Book Reference: Chapter 2
707
Which of the following graphics interface connectors produces an analog signal? a) DV-D b) HDMI c) VGA d) YCbCr
c) VGA The VGA DE15 connector produces an analog signal from the graphics adapter to the monitor. The DIV-D and HDMI connectors produce digital signals, as do YCbCr connectors, the digital form of YPbPr component video connectors. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Compare and contrast various connection interfaces and explain their purpose Book Reference: Chapter 3
708
You have a computer with the IP address 226.18.171.1. What class is this address? a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) This is not a valid IP address
d) This is not a valid IP address Class A addresses have a first octet between 1 and 126, Class B between 128 and 191, and Class C between 192 and 223. With a first octet of 226, this address is not valid for use by hosts on your network (it’s technically a Class D address). Domain: Networking Subdomain: Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose
709
Which of the following CPU-cooling methods requires a pump in order to function? a) Heat pipes b) Air cooling c) Peltier cooling d) Liquid cooling
d) Liquid cooling Liquid cooling and phase-change cooling methods use pumps to circulate the cooling medium. The other technologies use physics that do not require pumps to function. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Differentiate among various CPU types and features and select the appropriate cooling method Book Reference: Chapter 1
710
Which of the following traits affecting IT support is also governed by law? a) Punctuality b) Accountability c) Privacy d) Respect
c) Privacy Privacy is governed by law at several levels. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, demonstrate proper communication and professionalism Book reference: Chapter 11
711
What does FRU stand for? a) Field replaceable unit b) Field recyclable unit c) Foreign recycled unit d) Failed replaced unit
a) Field replaceable unit The acronym FRU  stands for field replaceable unit , which means that the component can be replaced by a technician while at the user’s location. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Install and configure laptop hardware and components Book reference: Chapter 9
712
Which of the following communication technologies is designed for a network known as a PAN? a) Cellular b) Infrared c) Bluetooth d) Ethernet
c) Bluetooth Bluetooth was made to work as a wireless personal area network (WPAN). As such, it’s perfect for computer peripherals such as keyboards, mice, and wireless headsets. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Compare and contrast wireless networking standards and encryption types Book reference: Chapter 6
713
Which of the following is an example of a computer system featuring a custom configuration? a) A laptop with a BD-RE burner b) A computer with a fast processor and high-end graphics adapter used for gaming c) A standard thick client used for A/V editing d) An enterprise server with 100 concurrent client sessions
b) A computer with a fast processor and high-end graphics adapter used for gaming Gaming PCs require high-end CPUs, graphics adapters, sound cards, and cooling. This is considered a custom configuration. The other configurations are not examples of custom configurations and standard systems doing extraordinary work (the A/V editor) or their normal job. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Evaluate and select appropriate components for a custom configuration, to meet customer specifications or needs Book Reference: Chapter 5
714
What differentiates a solid-state drive from a conventional hard disk drive? a) Larger storage capacity b) No moving parts c) Different drive interface and cabling d) Lower cost per byte
b) No moving parts Solid-state drives have no moving parts like conventional hard disk drives. They rival smaller conventional drives in capacity but are not yet offered in as large a capacity overall. They tend to be more expensive than conventional drives per byte of capacity but use the same drive interfaces, such as SATA interfaces, for example. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Install and configure storage devices and use appropriate media Book Reference: Chapter 2
715
Which of the following is a difference between CRTs and LCDs? a) CRTs use less energy than LCDs. b) LCDs weigh more than CRTs with a comparable viewing area. c) You can degauss a CRT. d) LCDs produce a sharper, higher-quality image.
c) You can degauss a CRT. CRTs have magnetic properties, leading to the need to degauss them on occasion. LCDs use less energy than CRTs and weigh less but cannot display an image as sharp and pure as that of a CRT. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Given a scenario, evaluate types and features of display devices Book Reference: Chapter 4
716
Which stage of a laser printer process melts the toner onto the paper? a) Writing b) Charging c) Fusing d) Transferring
c) Fusing The drum is first charged to prepare for the writing stage, which charges the print pattern onto the drum. After toner is applied to the drum, the toner is transferred to paper. At this point the toner is melted and fused to the paper by using heat. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
717
Which of the following is not  a term relating to CPUs? a) Hyperthreading b) I/O port c) Multicore d) L1 cache
b) I/O port The communication between a CPU and the rest of the system is considered I/O from the perspective of the CPU, but an I/O port is not used for this purpose. I/O ports, such as USB or sound ports, are not directly related to the CPU. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Differentiate among various CPU types and features and select the appropriate cooling method Book Reference: Chapter 1
718
Which benefits of a USB connection make it the most popular choice for printers? (Choose three.) a) It automatically recognizes new devices. b) It has a higher transfer rate than a parallel connection. c) It has a higher transfer rate than a serial connection. d) It allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.
a) It automatically recognizes new devices. b) It has a higher transfer rate than a parallel connection. c) It has a higher transfer rate than a serial connection. The rate of transfer and the ability to automatically recognize new devices are two of the major advantages that make USB the current most popular type of printer interface. However, it is the network printer interface that allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Given a scenario, install, and configure printers Book reference: Chapter 10
719
``` The 5Gbps data rate of USB 3.0 is also known by which name? a) Full Speed b) High Speed c) Super Speed d) Normal Speed d) ```
c) Super speed USB is capable of all the options listed, but its 5Gbps rate is known by the trade name SuperSpeed. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Compare and contrast various connection interfaces and explain their purpose Book Reference: Chapter 3
720
Which physical network topology uses the least amount of cabling? a) Bus b) Star c) Mesh d) Hybrid
a) Bus Because of its design, which includes a central trunk that runs the distance between the two most distant computers (as long as it does not exceed the maximum distance allowed for the cabling), a bus topology requires the least amount of cable. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Identify various types of networks Book reference: Chapter 6
721
Which of the following are elements of a good workplace safety plan? (Choose two.) a) Periodic workplace inspections b) A safety and health training program c) Retribution for employees who report violations d) An independent third-party auditor of the safety plan
a) Periodic workplace inspections b) A safety and health training program Good safety plans protect the interests of the workers and also help keep company costs down. Periodic workplace inspections and a training program are good components to implement. Employees cannot be punished in any way for reporting safety violations. Third-party auditing of safety programs is not necessary, but there are organizations that will do this for you. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, use appropriate safety procedures Book reference: Chapter 11
722
Which of the following standards supports communications up to 54Mbps? a) 802.11i b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) Bluetooth
c) 802.11g The 802.11g standard supports speeds up to 54Mbps. 802.11i is a set of security standards, and 802.11b supports only up to 11Mbps. Bluetooth is limited to 3Mbps. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Compare and contrast wireless networking standards and encryption types Book reference: Chapter 8
723
Which of the following is an error-checking scheme that is not capable of error correction and sometimes implemented in main memory? a) ECC b) Dual-channel memory c) Rambus d) Parity checking
d) Parity checking Parity checking stores an extra bit with each byte in memory. When a byte is received by the CPU or a device that supports DMA, the validity of the parity bit is checked. If the check shows an error, the byte is rejected because there is no way to determine the nature of the error. ECC works differently and is capable of correcting single-bit errors. Dual-channel and Rambus are not error-checking schemes. Hint: It’s not ECC. Type: Multiple Choice Question #: Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Compare and contrast RAM types and features Book Reference: Chapter 1
724
Which of the following display types bombards the viewing screen with electrons, making the device more susceptible to magnetic interference? a) Touchscreen overlay panel b) CRT c) LCD d) LCD projector
b) CRT Displays based on cathode ray tube (CRT) technology excite phosphor dot trios on the back of the viewing screen by shooting electrons from electron guns, making the phosphors glow in red, green, or blue. When the intensity of the bombardment among the three dot phosphors is varied, millions of colors per pixel are attainable. Magnetic interference can affect the aim of the electron guns. LCDs and touchscreen panels do not use dot phosphors to display images. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Given a scenario, evaluate types and features of display devices Book Reference: Chapter 4
725
A user on the phone does not seem to be able to explain her problem to you without using profanity for every other word. That profanity is making you unable to understand their problem. What should you do? a) Ask the user to refrain from the offensive language. b) Overlook the profanity. c) Hang up. d) Show her that you know just as many expletives as she does. d)
a) Ask the user to refrain from the offensive language. While likely the profanity is linked to frustration, it hinders the communication and should be eliminated. There may be circumstances where it is necessary to overlook the profanity if your request is likely to make the already upset customer even angrier, as long as you can understand what is being said. The customer is not always right, but they are always the customer. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, demonstrate proper communication and professionalism Book reference: Chapter 11
726
You are configuring an IPv6 client on your network. Which of the following are valid ways to assign the interface ID portion of the IP address to the network card? (Choose three.) a) Obtain the address from a DHCPv6 server. b) Assign the address based on the CPU’s ID. c) Configure the address manually. d) Assign a random address.
a) Obtain the address from a DHCPv6 server. c) Configure the address manually. d) Assign a random address. IPv6 interface IDs can be assigned in one of four ways. They can be assigned through a DHCPv6 sever, based on the MAC address of the adapter, configured manually, or assigned randomly. They cannot be assigned based on any of the CPU’s identifying information. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose Book reference: Chapter 7
727
What is a valid power option for Mini PCIe cards? a) 1.3V b) 2.3V c) 3.3V d) 5V
c) 3.3V Mini PCIe cards can use either 1.5V or 3.3V, just like ExpressCard. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Install and configure laptop hardware and components Book reference: Chapter 9
728
You are working with a laser printer. Which of the following components offers the greatest risk to technicians? a) Fuser b) Refuser c) Corona wire d) Drum
a) Fuser When you are working with laser printers, the device most likely to cause damage is the fuser. The fuser works at high temperatures and can cause a burn. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
729
Which custom configuration features surround-sound audio? a) Graphics design workstation b) Thick client c) Home theater PC d) Home server PC
c) Home theater PC Of the options listed, only the home theater PC benefits the user by featuring surround sound audio. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Evaluate and select appropriate components for a custom configuration, to meet customer specifications or needs Book Reference: Chapter 5
730
What is the term for the concentric magnetic rings on the surface of a disk platter? a) Cluster b) Sector c) Cylinder d) Track
d) Track Tracks are concentric rings formed magnetically in the factory or through low-level formatting. Tracks form the boundaries within which data is written to the surface of a platter. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Install and configure storage devices and use appropriate media Book Reference: Chapter 2
731
Which of the following network standards will not work with Category 5 cable? a) 10BaseT b) 100BaseT c) 100BaseTX d) 100BaseFX
d) 100BaseFX 100BaseFX is a standard that uses fiber-optic cables. Therefore, CAT-5 cabling will not work. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Categorize characteristics of connectors and cabling Book reference: Chapter 8
732
In which step of the laser printer printing process does a uniform –600VDC charge get applied to the EP drum? a) Conditioning b) Charging c) Developing d) Transferring
b) Charging During the charging phase, the charging corona applies a uniform –600VDC charge to the photosensitive drum. The drum is then ready for the image to be written on it. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
733
You just installed a printer on a client’s computer. What should you do to verify functionality? a) Configure options and settings. b) Reboot the client computer. c) Verify that it’s available in the operating system. d) Print a test page.
d) Print a test page. After installing and configuring a printer, print a test page to verify functionality. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Given a scenario, install, and configure printers Book reference: Chapter 10
734
Which of the following is the most common paper feed mechanism associated with a dot-matrix printer? a) Gravity feed b) Impact feed c) Tractor feed d) Dual feed
d) Dual feed Dot-matrix printers often use tractor feed paper feed mechanisms. These are designed to pull or weave the paper through the printer. Some can use regular printer paper. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
735
Which of the following is true regarding the refresh rate of a monitor? a) Adjusting the refresh rate does not affect the quality of the displayed image. b) As long as the graphics adapter supports a given refresh rate, the monitor will support it. c) The refresh rate is adjusted through Device Manager. d) Both the monitor and graphics adapter must be correctly identifiable in the operating system by using the correct drivers.
d) Both the monitor and graphics adapter must be correctly identifiable in the operating system by using the correct drivers. If the monitor does not support a given refresh rate, setting the adapter to such a rate will result in no image or a flickering image being displayed. The monitor might also display an “out of range” error until the rate is adjusted to a supported one. The refresh rate is adjusted through Display Properties in Windows XP and Display Settings in Vista and Windows 7. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Given a scenario, evaluate types and features of display devices Book Reference: Chapter 4
736
What is the term for one of the segments of a track on the platter of a magnetic disk? a) Cluster b) Sector c) Cylinder d) Allocation unit
b) Sector Tracks are segmented into sectors, each of which routinely stores up to 512 bytes of data. Sectors are created in the factory or during low-level formatting. Cluster  and allocation unit  are two terms for a collection of one or more sectors. Clusters are formed during high-level formatting by an operating system. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Install and configure storage devices and use appropriate media Book Reference: Chapter 2
737
Which of the following are laptop memory form factor standards? (Choose two.) a) MiniDIMM b) MicroDIMM c) SlotDIMM d) SODIMM
b) MircoDIMM d) SODIMM The two laptop memory form factor standards are the 144-pin SODIMM and 172-pin MicroDIMM. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Install and configure laptop hardware and components Book reference: Chapter 9
738
The _________ is the measurement of the difference between the darkest color and the lightest color an LCD screen can display. a) Native resolution b) Contrast ratio c) Luminescence d) Ambient brightness
b) Contrast ratio The contrast ratio is the measurement between the darkest color and the lightest color that an LCD screen can display. The native resolution refers to how many pixels an LCD screen can display (across and down) without distortion. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Given a scenario, evaluate types and features of display devices Book Reference: Chapter 4
739
Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 23? a) HTTP b) SMTP c) Telnet d) POP3
c) Telnet Telnet uses port 23. HTTP uses port 80, SMTP 25, and POP3 110. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose Book reference: Chapter 7
740
Which layer of the OSI model describes how data is transmitted over a physical medium? a) Application layer b) Session layer c) Data Link layer d) Physical layer
d) Physical layer The Physical layer is responsible for formatting the final packet of data for transmission over a physical medium. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Identify various types of networks Book reference: Chapter 6
741
Which of the following are elements of a good workplace safety plan? (Choose two.) a) Periodic workplace inspections b) A safety and health training program c) Retribution for employees who report violations d) An independent third-party auditor of the safety plan
a) Periodic workplace inspections b) A safety and health training program Good safety plans protect the interests of the workers and also help keep company costs down. Periodic workplace inspections and a training program are good components to implement. Employees cannot be punished in any way for reporting safety violations. Third-party auditing of safety programs is not necessary, but there are organizations that will do this for you. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, use appropriate safety procedures Book reference: Chapter 11
742
Which of the following are elements of a good workplace safety plan? (Choose two.) a) Periodic workplace inspections b) A safety and health training program c) Retribution for employees who report violations d) An independent third-party auditor of the safety plan
a) Periodic workplace inspections b) A safety and health training program Good safety plans protect the interests of the workers and also help keep company costs down. Periodic workplace inspections and a training program are good components to implement. Employees cannot be punished in any way for reporting safety violations. Third-party auditing of safety programs is not necessary, but there are organizations that will do this for you. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, use appropriate safety procedures Book reference: Chapter 11
743
Which of the following standards supports communications up to 54Mbps? a) 802.11i b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) Bluetooth
c) 802.11g The 802.11g standard supports speeds up to 54Mbps. 802.11i is a set of security standards, and 802.11b supports only up to 11Mbps. Bluetooth is limited to 3Mbps. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Compare and contrast wireless networking standards and encryption types Book reference: Chapter 8
744
Which of the following standards supports communications up to 54Mbps? a) 802.11i b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) Bluetooth
c) 802.11g The 802.11g standard supports speeds up to 54Mbps. 802.11i is a set of security standards, and 802.11b supports only up to 11Mbps. Bluetooth is limited to 3Mbps. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Compare and contrast wireless networking standards and encryption types Book reference: Chapter 8
745
Which of the following is an error-checking scheme that is not capable of error correction and sometimes implemented in main memory? a) ECC b) Dual-channel memory c) Rambus d) Parity checking
d) Parity checking Parity checking stores an extra bit with each byte in memory. When a byte is received by the CPU or a device that supports DMA, the validity of the parity bit is checked. If the check shows an error, the byte is rejected because there is no way to determine the nature of the error. ECC works differently and is capable of correcting single-bit errors. Dual-channel and Rambus are not error-checking schemes. Hint: It’s not ECC. Type: Multiple Choice Question #: Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Compare and contrast RAM types and features Book Reference: Chapter 1
746
Which of the following is an error-checking scheme that is not capable of error correction and sometimes implemented in main memory? a) ECC b) Dual-channel memory c) Rambus d) Parity checking
d) Parity checking Parity checking stores an extra bit with each byte in memory. When a byte is received by the CPU or a device that supports DMA, the validity of the parity bit is checked. If the check shows an error, the byte is rejected because there is no way to determine the nature of the error. ECC works differently and is capable of correcting single-bit errors. Dual-channel and Rambus are not error-checking schemes. Hint: It’s not ECC. Type: Multiple Choice Question #: Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Compare and contrast RAM types and features Book Reference: Chapter 1
747
Which of the following display types bombards the viewing screen with electrons, making the device more susceptible to magnetic interference? a) Touchscreen overlay panel b) CRT c) LCD d) LCD projector
b) CRT Displays based on cathode ray tube (CRT) technology excite phosphor dot trios on the back of the viewing screen by shooting electrons from electron guns, making the phosphors glow in red, green, or blue. When the intensity of the bombardment among the three dot phosphors is varied, millions of colors per pixel are attainable. Magnetic interference can affect the aim of the electron guns. LCDs and touchscreen panels do not use dot phosphors to display images. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Given a scenario, evaluate types and features of display devices Book Reference: Chapter 4
748
Which of the following display types bombards the viewing screen with electrons, making the device more susceptible to magnetic interference? a) Touchscreen overlay panel b) CRT c) LCD d) LCD projector
b) CRT Displays based on cathode ray tube (CRT) technology excite phosphor dot trios on the back of the viewing screen by shooting electrons from electron guns, making the phosphors glow in red, green, or blue. When the intensity of the bombardment among the three dot phosphors is varied, millions of colors per pixel are attainable. Magnetic interference can affect the aim of the electron guns. LCDs and touchscreen panels do not use dot phosphors to display images. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Given a scenario, evaluate types and features of display devices Book Reference: Chapter 4
749
A user on the phone does not seem to be able to explain her problem to you without using profanity for every other word. That profanity is making you unable to understand their problem. What should you do? a) Ask the user to refrain from the offensive language. b) Overlook the profanity. c) Hang up. d) Show her that you know just as many expletives as she does. d)
a) Ask the user to refrain from the offensive language. While likely the profanity is linked to frustration, it hinders the communication and should be eliminated. There may be circumstances where it is necessary to overlook the profanity if your request is likely to make the already upset customer even angrier, as long as you can understand what is being said. The customer is not always right, but they are always the customer. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, demonstrate proper communication and professionalism Book reference: Chapter 11
750
A user on the phone does not seem to be able to explain her problem to you without using profanity for every other word. That profanity is making you unable to understand their problem. What should you do? a) Ask the user to refrain from the offensive language. b) Overlook the profanity. c) Hang up. d) Show her that you know just as many expletives as she does. d)
a) Ask the user to refrain from the offensive language. While likely the profanity is linked to frustration, it hinders the communication and should be eliminated. There may be circumstances where it is necessary to overlook the profanity if your request is likely to make the already upset customer even angrier, as long as you can understand what is being said. The customer is not always right, but they are always the customer. Domain: Operational Procedures Subdomain: Given a scenario, demonstrate proper communication and professionalism Book reference: Chapter 11
751
You are configuring an IPv6 client on your network. Which of the following are valid ways to assign the interface ID portion of the IP address to the network card? (Choose three.) a) Obtain the address from a DHCPv6 server. b) Assign the address based on the CPU’s ID. c) Configure the address manually. d) Assign a random address.
a) Obtain the address from a DHCPv6 server. c) Configure the address manually. d) Assign a random address. IPv6 interface IDs can be assigned in one of four ways. They can be assigned through a DHCPv6 sever, based on the MAC address of the adapter, configured manually, or assigned randomly. They cannot be assigned based on any of the CPU’s identifying information. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose Book reference: Chapter 7
752
You are configuring an IPv6 client on your network. Which of the following are valid ways to assign the interface ID portion of the IP address to the network card? (Choose three.) a) Obtain the address from a DHCPv6 server. b) Assign the address based on the CPU’s ID. c) Configure the address manually. d) Assign a random address.
a) Obtain the address from a DHCPv6 server. c) Configure the address manually. d) Assign a random address. IPv6 interface IDs can be assigned in one of four ways. They can be assigned through a DHCPv6 sever, based on the MAC address of the adapter, configured manually, or assigned randomly. They cannot be assigned based on any of the CPU’s identifying information. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose Book reference: Chapter 7
753
What is a valid power option for Mini PCIe cards? a) 1.3V b) 2.3V c) 3.3V d) 5V
c) 3.3V Mini PCIe cards can use either 1.5V or 3.3V, just like ExpressCard. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Install and configure laptop hardware and components Book reference: Chapter 9
754
What is a valid power option for Mini PCIe cards? a) 1.3V b) 2.3V c) 3.3V d) 5V
c) 3.3V Mini PCIe cards can use either 1.5V or 3.3V, just like ExpressCard. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Install and configure laptop hardware and components Book reference: Chapter 9
755
You are working with a laser printer. Which of the following components offers the greatest risk to technicians? a) Fuser b) Refuser c) Corona wire d) Drum
a) Fuser When you are working with laser printers, the device most likely to cause damage is the fuser. The fuser works at high temperatures and can cause a burn. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
756
You are working with a laser printer. Which of the following components offers the greatest risk to technicians? a) Fuser b) Refuser c) Corona wire d) Drum
a) Fuser When you are working with laser printers, the device most likely to cause damage is the fuser. The fuser works at high temperatures and can cause a burn. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
757
Which custom configuration features surround-sound audio? a) Graphics design workstation b) Thick client c) Home theater PC d) Home server PC
c) Home theater PC Of the options listed, only the home theater PC benefits the user by featuring surround sound audio. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Evaluate and select appropriate components for a custom configuration, to meet customer specifications or needs Book Reference: Chapter 5
758
Which custom configuration features surround-sound audio? a) Graphics design workstation b) Thick client c) Home theater PC d) Home server PC
c) Home theater PC Of the options listed, only the home theater PC benefits the user by featuring surround sound audio. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Evaluate and select appropriate components for a custom configuration, to meet customer specifications or needs Book Reference: Chapter 5
759
What is the term for the concentric magnetic rings on the surface of a disk platter? a) Cluster b) Sector c) Cylinder d) Track
d) Track Tracks are concentric rings formed magnetically in the factory or through low-level formatting. Tracks form the boundaries within which data is written to the surface of a platter. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Install and configure storage devices and use appropriate media Book Reference: Chapter 2
760
What is the term for the concentric magnetic rings on the surface of a disk platter? a) Cluster b) Sector c) Cylinder d) Track
d) Track Tracks are concentric rings formed magnetically in the factory or through low-level formatting. Tracks form the boundaries within which data is written to the surface of a platter. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Install and configure storage devices and use appropriate media Book Reference: Chapter 2
761
Which of the following network standards will not work with Category 5 cable? a) 10BaseT b) 100BaseT c) 100BaseTX d) 100BaseFX
d) 100BaseFX 100BaseFX is a standard that uses fiber-optic cables. Therefore, CAT-5 cabling will not work. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Categorize characteristics of connectors and cabling Book reference: Chapter 8
762
Which of the following network standards will not work with Category 5 cable? a) 10BaseT b) 100BaseT c) 100BaseTX d) 100BaseFX
d) 100BaseFX 100BaseFX is a standard that uses fiber-optic cables. Therefore, CAT-5 cabling will not work. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Categorize characteristics of connectors and cabling Book reference: Chapter 8
763
In which step of the laser printer printing process does a uniform –600VDC charge get applied to the EP drum? a) Conditioning b) Charging c) Developing d) Transferring
b) Charging During the charging phase, the charging corona applies a uniform –600VDC charge to the photosensitive drum. The drum is then ready for the image to be written on it. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
764
In which step of the laser printer printing process does a uniform –600VDC charge get applied to the EP drum? a) Conditioning b) Charging c) Developing d) Transferring
b) Charging During the charging phase, the charging corona applies a uniform –600VDC charge to the photosensitive drum. The drum is then ready for the image to be written on it. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
765
You just installed a printer on a client’s computer. What should you do to verify functionality? a) Configure options and settings. b) Reboot the client computer. c) Verify that it’s available in the operating system. d) Print a test page.
d) Print a test page. After installing and configuring a printer, print a test page to verify functionality. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Given a scenario, install, and configure printers Book reference: Chapter 10
766
You just installed a printer on a client’s computer. What should you do to verify functionality? a) Configure options and settings. b) Reboot the client computer. c) Verify that it’s available in the operating system. d) Print a test page.
d) Print a test page. After installing and configuring a printer, print a test page to verify functionality. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Given a scenario, install, and configure printers Book reference: Chapter 10
767
Which of the following is the most common paper feed mechanism associated with a dot-matrix printer? a) Gravity feed b) Impact feed c) Tractor feed d) Dual feed
d) Dual feed Dot-matrix printers often use tractor feed paper feed mechanisms. These are designed to pull or weave the paper through the printer. Some can use regular printer paper. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
768
Which of the following is the most common paper feed mechanism associated with a dot-matrix printer? a) Gravity feed b) Impact feed c) Tractor feed d) Dual feed
d) Dual feed Dot-matrix printers often use tractor feed paper feed mechanisms. These are designed to pull or weave the paper through the printer. Some can use regular printer paper. Domain: Printers Subdomain: Explain the differences between the various printer types and summarize the associated imaging process Book reference: Chapter 10
769
Which of the following is true regarding the refresh rate of a monitor? a) Adjusting the refresh rate does not affect the quality of the displayed image. b) As long as the graphics adapter supports a given refresh rate, the monitor will support it. c) The refresh rate is adjusted through Device Manager. d) Both the monitor and graphics adapter must be correctly identifiable in the operating system by using the correct drivers.
d) Both the monitor and graphics adapter must be correctly identifiable in the operating system by using the correct drivers. If the monitor does not support a given refresh rate, setting the adapter to such a rate will result in no image or a flickering image being displayed. The monitor might also display an “out of range” error until the rate is adjusted to a supported one. The refresh rate is adjusted through Display Properties in Windows XP and Display Settings in Vista and Windows 7. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Given a scenario, evaluate types and features of display devices Book Reference: Chapter 4
770
Which of the following is true regarding the refresh rate of a monitor? a) Adjusting the refresh rate does not affect the quality of the displayed image. b) As long as the graphics adapter supports a given refresh rate, the monitor will support it. c) The refresh rate is adjusted through Device Manager. d) Both the monitor and graphics adapter must be correctly identifiable in the operating system by using the correct drivers.
d) Both the monitor and graphics adapter must be correctly identifiable in the operating system by using the correct drivers. If the monitor does not support a given refresh rate, setting the adapter to such a rate will result in no image or a flickering image being displayed. The monitor might also display an “out of range” error until the rate is adjusted to a supported one. The refresh rate is adjusted through Display Properties in Windows XP and Display Settings in Vista and Windows 7. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Given a scenario, evaluate types and features of display devices Book Reference: Chapter 4
771
What is the term for one of the segments of a track on the platter of a magnetic disk? a) Cluster b) Sector c) Cylinder d) Allocation unit
b) Sector Tracks are segmented into sectors, each of which routinely stores up to 512 bytes of data. Sectors are created in the factory or during low-level formatting. Cluster  and allocation unit  are two terms for a collection of one or more sectors. Clusters are formed during high-level formatting by an operating system. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Install and configure storage devices and use appropriate media Book Reference: Chapter 2
772
Which of the following are laptop memory form factor standards? (Choose two.) a) MiniDIMM b) MicroDIMM c) SlotDIMM d) SODIMM
b) MircoDIMM d) SODIMM The two laptop memory form factor standards are the 144-pin SODIMM and 172-pin MicroDIMM. Domain: Laptops Subdomain: Install and configure laptop hardware and components Book reference: Chapter 9
773
The _________ is the measurement of the difference between the darkest color and the lightest color an LCD screen can display. a) Native resolution b) Contrast ratio c) Luminescence d) Ambient brightness
b) Contrast ratio The contrast ratio is the measurement between the darkest color and the lightest color that an LCD screen can display. The native resolution refers to how many pixels an LCD screen can display (across and down) without distortion. Domain: PC Hardware Subdomain: Given a scenario, evaluate types and features of display devices Book Reference: Chapter 4
774
Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 23? a) HTTP b) SMTP c) Telnet d) POP3
c) Telnet Telnet uses port 23. HTTP uses port 80, SMTP 25, and POP3 110. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose Book reference: Chapter 7
775
Which layer of the OSI model describes how data is transmitted over a physical medium? a) Application layer b) Session layer c) Data Link layer d) Physical layer
d) Physical layer The Physical layer is responsible for formatting the final packet of data for transmission over a physical medium. Domain: Networking Subdomain: Identify various types of networks Book reference: Chapter 6
776
``` Which of the following will provide the BEST protection against power failures and data loss? A. Auto-switching power supply B. Uninterruptible power supply C. Line conditioner D. Surge suppressor ```
B. Uninterruptible power supply
777
Which of the following tools are commonly used to remove dust and debris from inside a computer? (Select TWO). ``` A. Cotton and alcohol B. Vacuum C. Compressed air D. Anti-bacterial surface cleaner E. Feather duster ```
B. Vacuum | C. Compressed air
778
Which of the following is the BEST way to explain RAID to a non-technical user? A. "RAID is a dynamic logical disk management system." B. "RAID uses multiple hard disks to increase performance and/or provide protection against data loss." C. "RAID uses data striping to reduce hard drive write time and parity bits to reconstruct the data from a failed hard drive." D. "RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks".
B. "RAID uses multiple hard disks to increase performance and/or provide protection against data loss."
779
``` Which of the following devices might need drivers installed so that it can be recognized by the operating system and function properly? A. Speakers B. Monitors C. Scanners D. Projectors ```
C. Scanners
780
``` Which of the following properties of TCP/IP is used to differentiate the network and the host portions of an IP address? A. DNS address B. Default gateway C. Subnet mask D. DHCP lease ```
C. Subnet mask
781
``` A user is trying to setup a small office home office (SOHO) wireless network and does not want any neighbors to be able to discover the network. Which of the following parameters would MOST likely be configured? A. Configure a proxy server address B. Enable WEP encryption C. Disable SSID broadcast D. Configure DMZ settings ```
C. Disable SSID broadcast
782
``` Which of the following would provide continuous power to various devices connected to it during a power surge or outage? A. Line conditioner B. Power strip C. Battery backup D. Surge suppressor ```
C. Battery backup
783
``` Which of the following network topologies would MOST likely be used to provide redundancy at each network device to support data transmissions? A. Mesh B. Ring C. PBX D. Bus ```
A. Mesh
784
``` Which of the following memory features allows for the protection against random inconsistencies in the transfer of the data? A. Low latency B. Dual channel C. ECC D. Single channel ```
C. ECC
785
``` Primary system functions like basic boot priorities, voltage parameters for the processor, and SATA options are configured in which of the following areas of a PC system? A. MBR B. CMOS C. VRAM D. BIOS ```
D. BIOS
786
``` Which of the following storage media would be used to build a RAID 5 array? A. Dual layer DVDs B. SATA HDDs C. Flash drives D. Blu-ray discs ```
B. SATA HDDs
787
``` Which of the following video cable types would be MOST likely to experience gradual, degraded signal quality over a long distance? A. HDMI B. DisplayPort C. VGA D. DVI ```
C. VGA
788
``` A DVI-D cable is generally used for which of the following computer functions? A. Delivering audio only B. Delivering audio & video C. Delivering video only D. Delivering an analog signal ```
C. Delivering video only
789
``` An IP address of 10.10.1.180 would be considered part of which of the following address classes? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D ```
A. Class A
790
``` Which of the following 802.11 wireless standards provides the LOWEST maximum theoretical throughput? A. A B. B C. G D. N ```
B. B
791
``` Basic Internet web traffic generally travels on which of the following ports? A. 25 and 53 B. 53 and 8080 C. 80 and 443 D. 110 and 53 ```
C. 80 and 443
792
``` Which of the following printer types needs to have toner replaced as part of the normal maintenance cycle? A. Inkjet B. Thermal C. Impact D. Laser ```
D. Laser
793
``` Which of the following technologies has the SHORTEST wireless range for printing? A. 802.11g B. 802.11a C. Bluetooth D. Infrared ```
D. Infrared
794
``` Which of the following protocols would be MOST important in preserving digital evidence of criminal activity during an investigation? A. Change control management B. Chain of custody C. Channel escalation D. MSDS documents ```
B. Chain of custody
795
After installing a new serial port card in a computer, the communication parameters need to be configured. Which of the following is the MOST common communication configuration for a serial port? A. Eight data bits, even parity, two stop bits B. Seven data bits, no parity, one stop bit C. Eight data bits, no parity, one stop bit D. Seven data bits, even parity, one stop bit
C. Eight data bits, no parity, one stop bit
796
``` Which of the following types of software protection will help mitigate any threats coming from worm and Trojans? A. Spam Blocker B. Antivirus C. Anti Spyware D. Anti Adware ```
B. Antivirus
797
An end user is having problems printing from an application. The technician attempts to send a test page to printer. Which of the following BEST explains the reason the technician used a test page to trouble shoot the issue? A. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory. B. It allows the technician to see the quality of the printer output. C. The output of the test page allows the technician to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer. D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems.
D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems.
798
``` Which of the following protocols is used to retrieve email? A. SFTP B. FTP C. SMTP D. POP3 ```
D. POP3
799
On Windows 7, which of the following paths allows a user to configure a fingerprint reader? A. Start > Settings > Device Manager > Biometric Devices B. Start > Computer > Devices > Biometric Devices C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices D. Start > Programs > System Settings > Biometric Devices
C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices
800
``` A computer in a warehouse experiences hardware faults and often requires replacement of power supplies, CPUs and CD ROM drives. Which of the following tools will help prevent the hardware faults? A. Anti-static wrist straps B. Compressed air C. Anti-static wipes D. Operating system rescue disk ```
B. Compressed air
801
Which of the following is the MOST effective means for a technician to prevent ESD damage when installing RAM? A. Touching grounded metal before contacting components B. Ensuring the AC plug has a ground post C. Wearing a grounded wristband D. Wearing rubber-soled shoes
C. Wearing a grounded wristband
802
``` Which of the following processor types is manufactured by AMD? A. Celeron B. Athlon C. Pentium D. Core 2 Quad ```
B. Athlon
803
``` A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal hardware drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. But the laptop appears to be stopping after POST. Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of problem? A. Format the external USB hare drive. B. Turn off the external monitor C. Disconnect the external monitor D. Remove and reset the laptop battery ```
C. Disconnect the external monitor
804
A technician has completed upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. According to the system and video drivers need to be upgraded. Which of the following is BEST source for theses drivers? A. The Microsoft Windows 7 website B. The manufacturer’s website C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List D. The drivers that came in the original Windows Vista Installation CD
C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List
805
A user made a change to their windows XP system that caused problems. The technician wants to restore the system on previous state. The technician cannot find the previous restore point. Which of the following is problem? A. The technician is not in administrator mode. B. System restore is turned off. C. System 32 folder has been removed. D. System restore is not supported on the OS version.
B. System restore is turned off.
806
Which of the following is LAST step of troubleshooting theory? A. Establish a plan of action to restore the problem and implement the solution. B. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures. C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. D. Question the user and identify user charges
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
807
A technician is installing a program on a Windows Vista computer and the installation fails. Which of the following is NEXT step? A. Reinstall Windows XP on the computer. B. Contact the program’s manufacturer. C. Run the installer as an administrator. D. Upgrade to Windows 7
C. Run the installer as an administrator.
808
``` Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of devices connected per IEEE 1394 controller? A. 4 B. 63 C. 64 D. 128 ```
B. 63
809
``` Which of the following printer types requires the use of toner? A. Impact B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal ```
C. Laser
810
``` Which of the following will BEST conserve resources and prolong equipment life? A. Firmware updates B. Power Management C. Disk Defragmenter D. Clean with a lint-free cloth ```
B. Power Management
811
``` Which of the following describes keeping the desk area free of trip hazards such as loose cables? A. Network interface B. Client Configuration C. Cable management D. Personal Area Network (PAN) ```
C. Cable management
812
``` Which of the following Network cables would a technician find on RJ-45 connector? A. UTP B. Coaxial C. USB D. Fiber ```
A. UTP
813
``` Which of the following ports does an impact printer use? A. Wi – Fi B. PS/2 C. USB D. LPT ```
D. LPT
814
Which of the following functions can be performed by using the msconfig command? A. Update the product key information for the Microsoft OS. B. Prevent specific programs from beginning at the system startup. C. Find specific information about the system hardware configuration. D. Configure the boot order of the system hardware devices.
B. Prevent specific programs from beginning at the system startup.
815
``` Which of the following would a technician use to install a manufacturer’s image on a notebook? (Select two) A. Recovery CD B. System Restore Utility C. Access a recent data backup D. Utilize a Recovery Agent feature E. Factory recover partition ```
A. Recovery CD | B. System Restore Utility
816
Which of the following differentiates between passive and active cooling? A. Active cooling allows heat to be transferred to a heat sink and distributed in a radiant fashion. B. Passive cooling allows heat to be radiated away from the CPU by dispersion. C. Active cooling does not require a thermal compound to sit between the CPU and the heat sink. D. Passive cooling occurs when cool air or a liquid medium is passed across a surface of the CPU.
B. Passive cooling allows heat to be radiated away from the CPU by dispersion.
817
A user states that their laptop is not working. A technician determines the laptop is booting. But there is no image on the LCD Next, the technician plugs an external monitor into the laptop and it functions correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT in troubleshooting this issue? A. Reload the LCD drivers. B. Check the alternate display switch. C. Replace the LCD. D. Check the back light is functioning correctly.
B. Check the alternate display switch
818
``` Which of the following security measures ensures an unauthorized user cannot boot to the OS without physical case? A. Kerberos authentication B. BitLocker encryption C. BIOS password D. Disabling USB ports ```
C. BIOS password
819
``` In Windows Vista, in order to create a spanned volume, the additional disk(s) MUST. A. Have unallocated space B. Be compressed C. Be encrypted D. Contain the operating system ```
A. Have unallocated space
820
``` Which of the following interfaces would a technician use the launch IPCONFIG from? A. MMC B. Control Panel C. Command Prompt D. Task Manager ```
C. Command Prompt
821
A user reports that they are unable to connect to any wireless network. The laptop technician verifies that the latest wireless drivers have been installed. Which of the following trouble shooting steps should also be taken to kept resolve this issue? A. Remove unneeded peripherals B. Check the switch for built – WIFI antenna C. Replace network cable D. Ensure NIC disabled
B. Check the switch for built – WIFI antenna
822
``` Which of the following commands will allow a technician to test a network card? A. tracert comptia.org B. ping 127.0.0.1 C. msconfig D. ip config ```
B. ping 127.0.0.1
823
A travelling user needs to use a printer in the business room in their hotel. They have a laptop with Windows 7. The printer has USB and Ethernet ports. The user connects the laptop to the USB post, and after the laptop installs the device the user cannot print. How can the user verify the connection? A. Restart the print spooler service B. Ping the printer C. Try to print from another computer in the business room D. Check the online status of the printer.
D. Check the online status of the printer.
824
``` Which of the following is feature of a Docking Station? A. Provides additional connectivity B. Expands the laptop memory C. Provides a built in tape device D. Provides power surge protection ```
A. Provides additional connectivity
825
``` Which of the following is commonly used to create a LAN in home network? (Select two) A. Switch B. Satellite C. DSL D. Dial-up E. Ethernet ```
A. Switch | E. Ethernet
826
``` Which of the following should be checked prior to an operating system being installed? A. HDD B. USB C. RAM D. HCL ```
D. HCL
827
``` Which of the following is a power supply that has one single plug and socket? A. Heat sink B. AT C. ATX D. UPS ```
C. ATX
828
``` Which of the following interfaces can support the MOST devices per port? A. USB 1.1 B. Bluetooth C. IEEE 1394 D. RS-232 ```
A. USB 1.1
829
``` Which of the following is an example of a serial port? A. LPT1 B. PRN C. COM1 D. VGA ```
C. COM1
830
``` Which of the following ports does Windows firewall open by default for Remote Desktop to work? A. 25 B. 80 C. 3389 D. 8080 ```
C. 3389
831
``` Which of the following are advantages of NTFS over FAT32? (Select TWO) A. Read-only capabilities B. Hidden files C. Encryption D. Full control capabilities E. Increased security ```
C. Encryption | E. Increased security
832
Which of the following steps BEST describes how to replace a defective sound card in a desktop PC? A. Put on anti-static strap, replace power supply, uninstall drivers, remove cover and cables including power cord, and put in new sound card B. Uninstall drivers, remove all cables including power cord, remove cover, put on anti-static strap, remove memory, remove sound card, put in new sound card. C. Put on anti-static strap, remove cover, remove all cables, remove sound card, put in new sound card D. Remove cover, uninstall drivers, remove all cables including power cord, remove sound card, and put in new sound card.
C. Put on anti-static strap, remove cover, remove all cables, remove sound card, put in new sound card
833
``` When looking for 32-bit applications installed on a 64-bit version of Windows Vista, a technician should look in which of the following default locations? A. C \Windows\System32 B. C:\ProgramFiles C. C:\Users\ D. C:\Program Files (x86) ```
D. C:\Program Files (x86)
834
``` Which of the following is the MOST secure communication method for a wireless network? A. MAC filtering B. WPA C. WPA2 D. WEP ```
C. WPA2
835
A technician installs a new video card in a desktop with onboard video. The technician boots the unit but sees no display. The monitor power light is on and the OS seems to be loading. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. The display is defective. B. The video card needs to be flashed. C. The internal adapter has not been disabled. D. The new video card is defective.
C. The internal adapter has not been disabled.
836
``` Which of the following features are available in Windows 7 Professional beyond those available in Windows 7 Home Premium? A. Home Group B. Windows XP Mode C. Aero Desktop D. Internet Explorer 8 ```
B. Windows XP Mode
837
``` Antistatic devices should be used when: A. Replacing hardware. B. Lifting heavy equipment. C. Updating software. D. Cooling equipment. ```
A. Replacing hardware.
838
``` Which of the following describes a secure connection over the Internet between two sites? A. FTP B. VLAN C. VPN D. HTTP ```
C. VPN
839
``` On a Windows XP machine, which of the following settings should be configured to allow dragging of files without holding the mouse button? A. Scroll Lock B. Sticky Keys C. MouseKeys D. Click Lock ```
D. Click Lock
840
A laser printer has an error ‘tray two paper jam’ but tray two does not have any paper in it. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. Replace the tray two paper sensor and run the printer self test. B. Remove the tray two paper sensor and clean the printhead C. Check the tray two paper sensors for blockage and run the printer self test. D. Check the tray two paper rollers for blockage clean the printhead, and run the printer self test.
C. Check the tray two paper sensors for blockage and run the printer self test.
841
A technician troubleshooting an issue has implemented a solution. Which of the following is the NEXT troubleshooting step the technician should take? A. Test the theory and validate the plan. B. Ask the customer to describe the symptoms and identify any changes made to the computer. C. Document findings, actions and outcomes. D. Verify and implement preventative measures.
D. Verify and implement preventative measures.
842
Which of the following is the LAST step of the troubleshooting theory? A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. B. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures. C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. D. Question the user and identify user changes
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
843
``` Which of the following is a networking technology used to create a Personal Area Network (PAN)? A. Dial-up B. Broadband C. Bluetooth D. Satellite ```
C. Bluetooth
844
``` A user can no longer launch their word processing program. The program worked fine yesterday. Which of the following options could BEST be used to fix the word processing program? A. Safe Mode B. Automated System Recovery C. Last Known Good Configuration D. System Restore ```
D. System Restore
845
``` Which of the following printers uses toner to transfer an image onto paper? A. Inkjet B. Laser C. Impact D. Thermal ```
B. Laser
846
``` Which of the following cables can be used to directly connect a laptop to a PC for ICS? A. IEEE 1394 cable B. CAT5 crossover cable C. CAT5e patch cable D. Parallel cable ```
B. CAT5 crossover cable
847
A user reports a problem with a PC located in the same room as cement testing equipment. The room has adequate cooling. The PC will boot up but locks up after 5 to 10 minutes of use. After a lockup, it will not reboot immediately. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? A. The PC air intakes are clogged with cement dust. B. The PC has a virus. C. The power supply is underrated for the electrical load of the PC. D. The CPU heat sink underrated for the CPU.
A. The PC air intakes are clogged with cement dust
848
``` Which of the following is commonly used to restrict access to a network, based on the physical hardware address of the client’s network device? A. DHCP settings B. MAC filtering C. SSID broadcast D. WEP key ```
B. MAC filtering
849
Which of the following should be done FIRST when identifying and troubleshooting a problem? A. Question the user and identify any user changes to the computer. B. Establish a theory of probable cause. C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. D. Test the theory to determine cause.
A. Question the user and identify any user changes to the computer.
850
``` Which of the following protocols is used to connect to a secure Internet website? A. POP3 B. FTP C. HTTPS D. HTTP ```
C. HTTPS
851
A military member has just returned to the United States from Europe and reports their personal desktop computer does not work. Which of the following i s the MOST logical solution to this problem? A. The computer is unable to work in the US because of EU licensing arrangements B. The power supply needs to be replaced with one rated for 110 watts C. The power supply needs a power inverter to handle the change in cycles D. The power supply voltage needs to be switched to 110 from 220
D. The power supply voltage needs to be switched to 110 from 220
852
``` A user states that a new graphical intensive application they are using will not load because it requires Direct3D to be enabled. Which of the following utilities would be used to enable this? A. services.msc B. appwiz.cpl C. dxdiag.exe D. msconfig.exe ```
C. dxdiag.exe
853
``` Which of the following board types can transmit data up to 8GB/s? A. AGP B. CNR C. PCI D. PCIe ```
D. PCIe
854
``` The Complete PC Backup feature is available in which of the following versions of Windows? (Select TWO) A. Windows Vista Ultimate B. Windows Vista Business C. Windows XP Professional SP2 D. Windows 2000 Professional E. Windows Vista Home Basic F. Windows Vista Home Premium G. Windows XP Home ```
A. Windows Vista Ultimate | B. Windows Vista Business
855
``` Which of the following cable types is not affected by electromagnetic interference but requires specialized tools and techniques to install? A. CAT5e B. Plenum coated STP C. CAT6 D. Fiber optic ```
D. Fiber optic
856
``` Which of the following DSL types has the same upstream and downstream bandwidth? A. IDSL B. FIOS C. ADSL D. SDSL ```
D. SDSL
857
``` Which of the following types of printers uses a fuser to print a document? A. Thermal B. Laser C. Inkjet D. Dot Matrix ```
B. Laser
858
``` A technician receives a request to build a machine and install a 64-bit operating system. Which of the following processors would the technician use in this system? A. Pentium 4 B. Athlon XP C. Celeron D. Itanium 2 ```
D. Itanium 2
859
``` Which of the following is the key combination to resolve an inverted display? A. Windows Key + ALT + U B. CTR + ALT + Down arrow C. SHIFT+ HOME + PG UP D. CTR + TAB + Enter ```
B. CTR + ALT + Down arrow
860
``` Which of the following network types allows for high speed data communication and is the MOST difficult to splice into? A. Cable B. DSL C. Satellite D. Fiber ```
D. Fiber
861
``` Which of the following provides the BEST transfer speed for a HDD? A. SATA B. IEEE 1394 C. EIDE D. IDE ```
A. SATA
862
A technician turns on the computer and a blue screen appears on the monitor with an error code. Which of the following is the BEST place for the technician to find out what this error code means? A. Hardware manufacturer’s website B. Third party websites C. OS manufacturer’s website D. Installation manuals
C. OS manufacturer’s website
863
``` Which of the following is commonly used to create a LAN in a home network? (Select TWO) A. Switch B. Satellite C. DSL D. Dial-up E. Ethernet ```
A. Switch E. Ethernet
864
A technician has had several support requests for one PC. The technician has reseated the PCI cards and replaced the hard drive in the PC located in a school cafeteria kitchen. PCs located in the business office or the classrooms have not had this issue. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this PC s issue? A. Faulty RAM B. 240 volt Kitchen outlets C. Power Brownouts D. Excessive Heat
D. Excessive Heat
865
``` A technician inserts a Windows OS install disk into the CD-ROM to upgrade the OS on a computer but after several restarts, the computer does not boot from the disk. Which of the following MOST likely needs to be configured? A. BIOS settings B. Network Configuration C. Repair Options D. Wake On LAN settings ```
A. BIOS settings
866
``` A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal hard drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged ? but the laptop appears to be stopping after POST. Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of this problem? A. Format the external USB hard drive. B. Turn off the external monitor C. Disconnect the external devices. D. Remove and reseat the laptop battery ```
C. Disconnect the external devices.
867
``` Which of the following Internet connections has the HIGHEST latency? A. Cable B. Satellite C. DSL D. Dial-up ```
B. Satellite
868
A customer reports the optical drive is no longer responding. Which of the following questions should be asked FIRST? A. "Did you log in with an administrator account?" B. "Have you been to any inappropriate websites?" C. "What have you changed since the optical drive worked properly?" D. "What has changed since the optical drive worked properly?"
D. "What has changed since the optical drive worked properly?"
869
``` A technician installs a new graphics card in a computer and upon booting up nothing happens. The technician puts the old graphics card back into the computer and the computer boots up normally. Which of the following would be the BEST source of information to solve the problem? (Select TWO). A. Chat room discussion online B. Installation manual C. Ask another technician D. Manufacturer’s website E. OS forum online ```
B. Installation manual | D. Manufacturer’s website
870
``` Which of the following is the MINIMUM memory requirement for installing Windows Vista Home Basic? A. 1GB B. 128MB C. 256MB D. 512MB ```
D. 512MB
871
``` Which of the following should be The FIRST step in troubleshooting a problem? A. Establish a theory of probable cause B. Establish a plan of action C. Verify full system functionality D. Identify the problem ```
D. Identify the problem
872
A technician installs an additional hard drive controller. Which of the following processes will MOST likely prevent errors? A. 1) Apply System Updates 2) Update the BIOS 3) Install the card 4) Install the driver 5) Upgrade the Card Firmware B. Install the card 2) Update the BIOS 3) Upgrade the Card Firmware 4) Install the driver 5) Apply System Updates C. 1) Apply System Updates 2) Install the driver 3) Install the card 4) Upgrade the Card Firmware 5) Update the BIOS D. 1) Update the BIOS 2) Install the driver 3) Install the card 4) Upgrade the Card Firmware 5) Apply System Updates
A. 1) Apply System Updates 2) Update the BIOS 3) Install the card 4) Install the driver 5) Upgrade the Card Firmware
873
``` A company printer is used to print payroll checks on paper forms with carbon backing. Which of the following is the BEST type of printer for this scenario? A. Laser B. Impact C. Inkjet D. Thermal ```
B. Impact
874
``` Which of the following types of security concepts describe securing ports and protocols on a system? A. Disk Encryption B. Data classification C. Social Engineering D. Software Firewall ```
D. Software Firewall
875
``` Which of the following connectors uses the main board ATX connector type? A. Centro nix B. 20/24 pin C. BNC D. Molex ```
B. 20/24 pin
876
``` Which of the following helps protect important confidential information from being publicly disclosed? A. Hard drive wiping B. Social Engineering C. Classification D. RAS server ```
C. Classification
877
``` Which of the following devices is used to move frames between a source and destination based on a MAC address? A. Repeater B. Hub C. Router D. Switch ```
D. Switch
878
Which of the following methods is the correct use of a KVM switch? A. To connect multiple monitors to one computer. B. To connect multiple computers to one set user interface. C. To connect multiple computers to each other. D. To connect multiple keyboards to one computer.
B. To connect multiple computers to one set user interface.
879
While accessing the Internet in an external environment (i.e. while traveling), a Windows 7 firewall should be set to which of the following? A. Block incoming and outgoing connections. B. Turned off or disabled. C. Block outgoing connections. D. Block incoming connections.
D. Block incoming connections.
880
``` Which of the following network cable types is MOST often used in environments where physical security of the data is the top priority? A. UTP B. Coaxial C. Fiber optic D. STP ```
C. Fiber optic
881
The most important customer a technician has is: A. The customer standing right in front of them. B. The customer who owes the company the most money. C. The customer calling on the phone. D. The customer they have an appointment with in an hour.
A. The customer standing right in front of them.
882
``` Of the ports below which of the following is the standard HTTP port? A. 25 B. 80 C. 110 D. 443 ```
B. 80
883
``` Which key combination allows the choice of Task Manager or the computer to be locked in Windows XP Professional? A. Shift+ F5 B. Ctrl + Alt+ T C. Ctrl + Alt + Esc D. Ctrl + Alt+ Del ```
D. Ctrl + Alt+ Del
884
A technician just finished installing a new printer on an end user’s computer. Which of the following will enable the technician to see the test page option for the pnnter1? A. Right-click on the printer and select Properties B. Double click on the printer icon C. Right-click on the printer and select Set as Default D. Right-click on the printer and select Open
A. Right-click on the printer and select Properties
885
``` Which of the following processors would provide the BEST performance? A. Pentium 4 with Hyper-Threading B. Pentium Core 2 Duo C. Single-Core Athlon64 D. 64-bit Core 2 Quad ```
D. 64-bit Core 2 Quad
886
If a technician is getting frustrated during a support call, which of the following could the technician employ to avoid irritating the customer? A. End the call quickly, even if a solution has not been found. B. Ask the caller to call back in a while. C. Put the caller on hold briefly and take a deep breath, D. Pass the caller to another support representative.
C. Put the caller on hold briefly and take a deep breath,
887
In Windows XP, which of the following locations allows the mouse pointer to snap to the default button in a window? A. Start>Settings>ControlPanel>System>Hardware B. Start>Settings>ControlPanel>Display>Appearance C. Start>Settings>ControlPanel>Mouse>PointerOptions D. Start>Settings>ControlPanel>Mouse>Pointers
C. Start>Settings>ControlPanel>Mouse>PointerOptions
888
Which of the following are advantages of using Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol? (Select TWO). A. IP addresses can be managed from a central point B. Computers can automatically get new addressing when moved to a different network segment C. Media Access Control addresses can be changed automatically D. The network speed can automatically adjust based on the type of traffic being generated E. The HOSTS file on the computer can be validated for proper entries
A. IP addresses can be managed from a central point | B. Computers can automatically get new addressing when moved to a different network segment
889
``` Which of the following MUST be configured to turn a computer on remotely with a network packet? A. Sleep timers B. Hibernate C. Standby D. WOL ```
D. WOL
890
Which of the following should be completed NEXT, after testing the theory of probable cause? A. Verify full system functionality B. Implement preventative measures C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem D. Implement the solution to the problem
C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem
891
``` A user states that whenever they try to launch a certain installed application, they hear unusual whirring/clicking sounds from their machine and the application never loads. Which of the following components would a technician MOST likely need to replace? A. Hard Disk Drive B. Optical Drive C. Power Supply Unit D. Case Fan ```
A. Hard Disk Drive
892
``` Which of the following voltages is MOST commonly associated with DIMMS? A. +3.3V B. +5V C. -12V D. +12V ```
A. +3.3V
893
``` Which of the following wireless standards has the potential for having the MOST bandwidth? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n ```
D. 802.11n
894
``` Which of the following adapter types uses a 7-pin cable to transmit video signals? A. RGB B. DVI C. HDMI D. S-Video ```
D. S-Video
895
``` A user states that their computer is running but they have no image on their monitor. Given this information, which of the following should a technician do NEXT? A. Explain the process to the user B. Test several possible causes C. Ensure that the monitor is functional D. Determine the cause of the problem ```
D. Determine the cause of the problem
896
Which of the following BEST describes a hub? A. Determines the best route to transmit data B. Inspects traffic and accepts or declines transmission C. Broadcasts data to specific network devices D. Broadcasts data to all network devices
D. Broadcasts data to all network devices
897
``` A user has purchased a laptop that has no means to charge the battery. Which of the following would the user MOST likely purchase? A. USB cable B. AC adapter C. PCMCIA card D. Replacement battery ```
B. AC adapter
898
The contrast ratio for an LCD monitor is BEST defined as the ratio between: A. display resolution and brightness B. power consumption and output intensity C. power savings of a comparable CRT monitor and the LCD D. the darkest and lightest displayed output
D. the darkest and lightest displayed output
899
``` A user plugs in a new USB barcode reader and the computer recognizes it, but the reader is unable to work property. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason? A. Software drivers need to be updated B. OS software needs to be updated C. Too many USB devices are plugged in D. Bad USB cable ```
A. Software drivers need to be updated
900
``` Which of the following describes the random access memory limitations with Vista 64-bit operating system? A. 2GB B. 4GB C. 8GB D. 128GB ```
D. 128GB
901
A frustrated customer has called about their computer that is not functioning correctly. Which of the following is the BEST question to ask the user? A. "Can you avoid using the PC that crashed?" B. "What was the last thing that occurred before the PC had problems?" C. "What were you doing before the PC went down?" D. "What was the last thing you did before the PC crashed?"
B. "What was the last thing that occurred before the PC had problems?"
902
A technician is trying to install a previous-generation expansion card into their new laptop. However, the card refuses to fit into the expansion slot. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason? A. The card needs to have the compatibility jumpers set before it can be installed into the system. B. The card is a PCI Express card and the laptop supports PCMCIA. C. The expansion slot needs to be enabled in the BIOS first. D. The card is a PCMCIA card and the laptop supports PCI Express cards.
D. The card is a PCMCIA card and the laptop supports PCI Express cards.
903
``` Which of the following utilities would a technician use to determine network utilization? A. Start Menu B. My Network Places C. Administrative Tools D. Task Manager ```
D. Task Manager
904
``` A technician needs to upgrade the memory in a laptop. Which of the following memory types would be the correct type? A. RIMM B. DDR RAM C. SDRAM D. SODIMM ```
D. SODIMM
905
An end user reports that they cannot access any of the features of a particular printer. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. The document the user is printing is not formatted properly. B. The user has the wrong cable type connected to the printer. C. The printer is in a low power mode. D. The user has the wrong driver installed for the printer. Which of the following ports is the default for HTTP? A. 21 B. 25 C. 80 D. 110
C. 80
906
``` A user reports that print jobs sent to a local printer are printing out as blank pieces of paper. Which of the following steps should the technician perform FIRST on the printer to determine the cause? A. Stop and restart the print spooler B. Reload the printer drivers C. Print an internal test page D. Replace the printer cable ```
C. Print an internal test page
907
``` Which of the following describes the number of processors supported in Windows XP Professional 32-bit edition? A. One B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ```
B. 2
908
``` Which of the following steps would be performed FIRST to install a fresh copy of Windows 7 Professional on a new hard drive? A. Format the partition B. Load any RAID or SATA drivers needed C. Partition the drive D. Configure Windows settings ```
B. Load any RAID or SATA drivers needed
909
``` Which of the following connectors is commonly used on a shielded twisted pair cable? A. BNC B. RJ-45 C. F D. HDMI ```
B. RJ-45
910
``` Which of the following display ports sends video output over pure digital signal? A. VGA and HDMI B. S-Video and DVI C. HDMI and DVI D. VGA and DVI ```
C. HDMI and DVI
911
``` Which of the following devices is the MOST appropriate to limit network broadcasts, segment logical address ranges, and interconnect different physical media? A. Router B. Switch C. Firewall D. Hub ```
A. Router
912
Which of the following is a feature of a Docking station? A. Provides additional connectivity options B. Expands the laptop memory C. Provides a built in tape drive D. Provides power surge protection
A. Provides additional connectivity options
913
``` Which of the following utilities would be used to configure energy saving measures when a laptop switches to battery power? A. MSTSC B. ACPI C. GDI D. MSCONFIG ```
B. ACPI
914
``` Which of the following keys is pressed lo enter the Windows boot options after POST? A. F1 B. F8 C. F10 D. F12 ```
B. F8
915
``` Which of the following would BEST provide cooling to a processor? A. Case fan B. Heal sink C. Liquid cooling system D. CPU fan ```
C. Liquid cooling system
916
``` Which of the following tools can be used for system maintenance and troubleshooting? A. Automated System Recovery B. Disk Probe C. Last Known Good Configuration D. Recovery Console ```
D. Recovery Console
917
``` Which of the following motherboard components quality can be measured using DPI? A. PS/2 port B. Audio interface C. Display adapter D. IEEE 1394 port ```
C. Display adapter
918
Which of the following is the PRIMARY difference between a Celeron and a Pentium chip? A. A Celeron chip has a higher performance index than a similar speed Pentium chip B. A Celeron chip is more expensive than a similar speed Pentium chip. C. A Celeron chip has less cache than a similar speed Pentium chip D. A Celeron chip has built-in extra features such as wireless support.
C. A Celeron chip has less cache than a similar speed Pentium chip
919
The help desk technician receives a call from an irate user who is using profanity and yelling at the technician. To BEST defuse the situation, the technician should: A. Hang up and let the caller calm down for a while. B. Speak louder and use profanity to mimic the users tone. C. Converse with the user in a soft voice and low tone. D. Place the caller back in the queue and answer another call.
C. Converse with the user in a soft voice and low tone.
920
Which of the following are correct sequences to install a keyboard layout in Windows 7? (Select TWO). A. Start > Control Panel > Region & Languages > Keyboards & Languages B. Right click > Personalize > ease of access center > make the keyboard easier to use C. Start > Control Panel > Display D. Start > Control Panel > Clock Languages & Region>personalization E. Start > Control Panel > Clock languages & region > Change Keyboards & other input methods > change Keyboard
A. Start > Control Panel > Region & Languages > Keyboards & Languages E. Start > Control Panel > Clock languages & region > Change Keyboards & other input methods > change Keyboard
921
``` Which of the following network types uses telephone lines as its ONLY medium for connectivity? A. DSL B. Cellular C. Fiber D. Satellite ```
A. DSL
922
``` An email i s received from the user’s bank. It is asking for the user to reply with their account number and access code to verify their identity. Which of the following attack types does this describe? A. Phishing B. Rootkit C. Hoax D. Adware ```
A. Phishing
923
``` A customer reports that when their computer is turned on. the screen is blank with some gray text and a flashing cursor. The customer also says that there are numbers counting upward when the computer beeps and freezes. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this problem? A. The hard drive has no MBR B. Computer has faulty memory C. The operating system is corrupted D. Network login account expired ```
B. Computer has faulty memory
924
A user recently purchased a new wireless 802.11n router and noticed that the wireless signal strength on the laptop is poor and only connects at 11Mbps even with default settings. The user moved the laptop next to the WAP and is still experiencing the same issue. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. The laptop is connecting to the incorrect wireless network B. The router1 s wireless card drivers are faulty. C. The cable modem is faulty D. The wireless antennas on the router need to be replaced.
A. The laptop is connecting to the incorrect wireless network
925
A user reports that at times the display on their monitor gets shaky and wavy. Which of the following describes a possible reason that this occurs? A. The refresh rate of the monitor was set too high causing the video card to become over-utilized. B. The resolution on the monitor was set too high and caused the display to become unstable. C. The user was visiting websites that were not approved by the company and were blocked. D. The user has a portable heater plugged into the same circuit causing electrical interference.
D. The user has a portable heater plugged into the same circuit causing electrical interference.
926
A technician is installing BitLocker in Microsoft Vista, but the operating system gives an error stating the computer does not support BitLocker. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Windows Vista does not support BitLocker B. TPM is disabled in the BIOS C. The hard drive does not support BitLocker D. Insufficient memory to support BitLocker
B. TPM is disabled in the BIOS
927
``` Which of the following is an alternate HTTP port that can be used commonly in business environments? A. 180 B. 255 C. 443 D. 8080 ```
D. 8080
928
A user contacts the helpdesk about a problem connecting to the Internet. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the helpdesk technician perform FIRST? A. Document the problem and resolution for future reference. B. Have the user go to an Internet site to verify connectivity issues. C. Determine a plan of action to resolve the Internet problem. D. Ask a question about the local ISP equipment being serviced lately
D. Ask a question about the local ISP equipment being serviced lately
929
``` Which of the following represents a valid APIPA address? A. 10.22.51.194 B. 169.254.13.237 C. 172.40.0.155 D. 192.168.3.7 ```
B. 169.254.13.237
930
``` A technician is installing a motherboard that has a 24-pin connector from the power supply to the motherboard. Which of the following devices are the additional four pins used? A. Extra drives B. The processor C. Extra RAM D. Cooling system ```
B. The processor
931
``` Active heat sinks incorporate which of the following into their design? A. Gas B. Water C. Fans D. Grease ```
C. Fans
932
A laptop with an integrated 802.11b/g card is unable to connect to any wireless networks. The laptop was previously able to connect to wireless networks. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue? A. The wireless card is disabled in BIOS. B. The wireless card drivers are not installed. C. The wireless hardware switch is turned off. D. The wireless card firmware requires an update
C. The wireless hardware switch is turned off.
933
``` Which of the following ports would a technician enable ECP? A. USB B. LPR C. COM D. LPT ```
D. LPT
934
``` When trying to secure a password against a brute force attack, which of the following is the MOST important attribute? A. Upper and lower case characters B. Length C. Complexity D. Difficult to remember ```
A. Upper and lower case characters
935
``` A technician determines that a SCSI card needs an update to its embedded code. This is commonly referred to as updating the: A. driver B. operating system C. system D. firmware ```
D. firmware
936
``` Which of the following describes how many toner cartridges are in a monochrome laser printer? A. Zero B. One C. Two D. Four ```
B. One
937
``` APIPA addressing uses which of the following network classes? A. A B. B C. C D. D ```
B. B
938
``` Which of the following is the BEST reason why VoIP should not be used with satellite Internet? A. Difficulty in installation B. High latency C. Bandwidth limitations D. High cost ```
B. High latency
939
When installing a printer shared from a Windows print server, an error is received that the 64-bit driver is not available. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should take? A. Download the 64-bit driver from the manufacturer’s website. B. Use a 64-bit driver on the server from the same manufacturer. C. Use Windows Update to locate the proper driver. D. Use the 32-bit driver loaded on the server.
A. Download the 64-bit driver from the manufacturer’s website.
940
``` All of the following Windows editions have the aero theme EXCEPT: (Select TWO). A. Windows Vista Home B. Windows 7 Professional C. Windows XP Professional D. Windows 7 Starter E. Windows Vista Business ```
C. Windows XP Professional | D. Windows 7 Starter
941
``` A technician has a laptop that is booting but nothing appears on the LCD. Which of the following should the technician press to make video transfer to the external monitor? A. Function keys B. Alt-insert keys C. Power button D. Control and escape keys ```
A. Function keys
942
``` Which of the following cables consists of only two twisted pairs of copper wires? A. Coaxial B. Fiber C. POTS line D. UTP ```
C. POTS line
943
A laser printer is received for repair work with a description of failing to pick up paper during prints, even with a full paper tray. Which of the following is the cause of such an occurrence? A. The automatic document feeder is faulty and needs replacing B. The rollers are dirty and need to be cleaned C. The incorrect print driver is installed D. The drum is dirty and needs to be cleaned
B. The rollers are dirty and need to be cleaned
944
``` A customer brings in a desktop PC that runs fine for an hour and then shuts down. Which of the following should be checked FIRST? A. Power supply voltages B. Hard disk drive C. CD-ROM drive D. CPU fan ```
D. CPU fan
945
``` Which of the following printer technologies provides the LOWEST cost per page? A. Laser B. Dot matrix C. Dye-sublimation D. Inkjet ```
A. Laser
946
A technician prints a test page from the printer" s front panel and the printer consistently print one page of data across two pages of paper. Which of the following is the cause of the problem? A. The fuser is not functioning B. The printer driver needs to be updated C. The paper tray media type is not set up D. The paper tray media size is wrong
D. The paper tray media size is wrong
947
``` Raising the voltage or multiplier of a CPU is known as: A. Over clocking. B. Hype threading. C. Turbo-boost. D. Overcharging ```
A. Over clocking.
948
``` A networking device that sends packets to all connections is a: A. gateway B. hub C. switch D. router ```
B. hub
949
A user reports that the battery in their Windows 7 laptop is constantly low on power. Which of the following should a technician suggest to help the user conserve laptop battery power? A. Have the user run the laptop using the battery until all the power is depleted, and then recharge the battery. B. Have the user remove the battery and run the notebook using the electrical cord only. C. Configure the laptop power options to restore power usage when the laptop is unattended. D. Configure the laptop power option to power saver plan.
D. Configure the laptop power option to power saver plan.
950
``` Which of the following printer technologies provides the LOWEST cost per page? A. Laser B. Dot matrix C. Dye-sublimation D. Inkjet ```
A. Laser
951
A technician prints a test page from the printer" s front panel and the printer consistently print one page of data across two pages of paper. Which of the following is the cause of the problem? A. The fuser is not functioning B. The printer driver needs to be updated C. The paper tray media type is not set up D. The paper tray media size is wrong
D. The paper tray media size is wrong
952
``` A network extension needs to be run 50 meters (164 feet) across a machine shop. The path will take the extension near a number of fluorescent light fixtures and a large electric motor. Which of the following cable types would be BEST suited for this environment? A. Fiber B. UTPCat3 C. STPCat5 D. Coaxial ```
A. Fiber
953
Which of the following are the default libraries in the Windows 7 OS? A. Documents, Media. Pictures, Programs, and Videos B. Files, Music, Pictures, Online, and Videos C. Documents, Music, Pictures, and Videos D. Files, Media, Programs, and Online
C. Documents, Music, Pictures, and Videos
954
``` Which of the following wireless networking standards operates at only 5GHz? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n ```
A. 802.11a
955
``` Which of the following cables uses an ST connector by default? A. CAT5e B. Fiber C. CAT5 D. CAT6 ```
B. Fiber
956
``` A laser printer can be connected to all of the following devices EXCEPT a / an: A. power conditioner B. UPS C. power strip D. surge protector ```
B. UPS
957
``` Which of the following commands slops all network adapter connections, and allows the IP addresses to be used elsewhere? A. ipconfig /flushdns B. ipconfig /renew C. ipconfig/restart D. ipconfig/release ```
D. ipconfig/release
958
``` USB 2.0 has a MAXIMUM transmission speed of: A. 54Mbps B. 128Mbps C. 480Mbps D. 800Mbps ```
C. 480Mbps
959
While at lunch, a user states that emails were sent from their computer to fellow co-workers without the user1 s knowledge. Which of the following recommendations should the technician make to the user to prevent this in the future? A. Turn on the out of office feature in the email client software B. Enable the Screensaver feature C. Unplug the network cable D. Use the operating system’s lock feature
D. Use the operating system’s lock feature
960
Which of the following is the MAIN advantage of choosing a 64-bit (x64) operating system over a 32-bit (x86) operating system? A. The ability to use software based data execution prevention (DEP) B. The ability to run multiple 16-bit programs in separate memory spaces C. The ability to use unsigned drivers D. The ability to access more than 4GB of RAM
Answer: D Posted in Chapter 1, Free Practice Test Tags: 220-801 pdf, free download 220-801 « CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 1 (156-160) CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 2 (1-5) » You can leave a response, or trackback from your own site. 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Leave a Reply Name (required) Mail (will not be published) (required) Website Twitter Delicious Facebook Digg Stumbleupon Favorites More RSS FeedSubscribe to our RSS feed! ``` Get 220-801 Dump Recent Posts CompTIA A+ 220-801 Certification Exam Question (11-20) CompTIA A+ 220-801 Certification Exam Question (1-10) CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 2 (41-45) CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 2 (36-40) CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 2 (31-35) Categories 220-801 Practice Test (2) A+ Books (3) A+ Certification (3) Free Practice Test (39) Chapter 1 (30) Chapter 2 (9) Archives October 2012 (2) September 2012 (2) June 2012 (3) May 2012 (6) April 2012 (8) March 2012 (26) Tags 220-801 A+ 220-801 Book 220-801 Dumps 220-801 Exam 220-801 Exam Cram 220-801 Exam Objectives 220-801 Exam Question 220-801 Guide 220-801 pdf 220-801 Practice Exam 220-801 Practice Test 220-801 Questions 220-801 Training 220-802 Book 220-802 Exam Cram 220-802 Guide 220-802 Training A+ 220-801 A+ 220-802 A+ Practice Exam A+ Practice Test A+ Questions ACPI ATX Command Prompt CompTIA 220-801 CompTIA A+ CompTIA A+ Training Kit DSL Exam 220-801 Free Practice Test HCL HDMI IEEE 1394 LAN LCD LPT NTFS PAN Power Management RAID RJ-45 USB cable Windows XP WPA2 Blogroll 642-832 Training Materials CCIP MPLS Certification CCNP 642-832 Exam CCNP TSHOOT Training CISSP Practice Test IT Certification Forum Latest 220-801 Exam Questions Latest Lead2pass Dumps Microsoft Certification Exam Preparation SY0-301 Exam Training Meta Register Log in Entries RSS Comments RSS WordPress.org ``` Copyright © A+ 220-801 Dumps - Latest 220-801 Exam Questions & Practice Tests Powered by WordPress | Designed by: NFL Schedule | Thanks to Rush Tour, Download Premium WordPress Themes and Free WordPress Themes Answer: D Posted in Chapter 1, Free Practice Test Tags: 220-801 pdf, free download 220-801 « CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 1 (156-160) CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 2 (1-5) » You can leave a response, or trackback from your own site. Leave a Reply Name (required) Mail (will not be published) (required) Website Twitter Delicious Facebook Digg Stumbleupon Favorites More RSS FeedSubscribe to our RSS feed! ``` Get 220-801 Dump Recent Posts CompTIA A+ 220-801 Certification Exam Question (11-20) CompTIA A+ 220-801 Certification Exam Question (1-10) CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 2 (41-45) CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 2 (36-40) CompTIA A+ Essentials Free Practice Test – Chapter 2 (31-35) Categories 220-801 Practice Test (2) A+ Books (3) A+ Certification (3) Free Practice Test (39) Chapter 1 (30) Chapter 2 (9) Archives October 2012 (2) September 2012 (2) June 2012 (3) May 2012 (6) April 2012 (8) March 2012 (26) Tags 220-801 A+ 220-801 Book 220-801 Dumps 220-801 Exam 220-801 Exam Cram 220-801 Exam Objectives 220-801 Exam Question 220-801 Guide 220-801 pdf 220-801 Practice Exam 220-801 Practice Test 220-801 Questions 220-801 Training 220-802 Book 220-802 Exam Cram 220-802 Guide 220-802 Training A+ 220-801 A+ 220-802 A+ Practice Exam A+ Practice Test A+ Questions ACPI ATX Command Prompt CompTIA 220-801 CompTIA A+ CompTIA A+ Training Kit DSL Exam 220-801 Free Practice Test HCL HDMI IEEE 1394 LAN LCD LPT NTFS PAN Power Management RAID RJ-45 USB cable Windows XP WPA2 Blogroll 642-832 Training Materials CCIP MPLS Certification CCNP 642-832 Exam CCNP TSHOOT Training CISSP Practice Test IT Certification Forum Latest 220-801 Exam Questions Latest Lead2pass Dumps Microsoft Certification Exam Preparation SY0-301 Exam Training Meta Register Log in Entries RSS Comments RSS WordPress.org ``` Copyright © A+ 220-801 Dumps - Latest 220-801 Exam Questions & Practice Tests Powered by WordPress | Designed by: NFL Schedule | Thanks to Rush Tour, Download Premium WordPress Themes and Free WordPress Themes D. The ability to access more than 4GB of RAM
961
``` Which of the following RAID levels uses striping across three or more disks with parity? A. RAID 1 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 ```
C. RAID 5
962
A customer reports that while attempting to print a document it seems to queue up fine, but the printer does not print the job. Which of the following may be the cause? A. Outdated or corrupt print driver. B. The application used to create the document is incompatible with the printer. C. A print job is waiting in the print queue. D. Printer configuration is incorrect.
C. A print job is waiting in the print queue.
963
``` A print job fails to leave the queue. Which of the following services may need to be restarted? A. Printer Driver B. Windows Spool Service C. Print Spooler D. NIC driver ```
C. Print Spooler
964
``` A technicians company prints forms on multi-layer carbonless copy paper. When asked to replace the printer, which of the following printing technologies will allow the technician to continue to use the companys copy paper? A. Transfer B. Dot Matrix C. Thermal D. Laser ```
B. Dot Matrix
965
A customers computer crashes consistently when a specific application is launched. The technician has looked at the computer and confirmed the cause of the crash. Which of the following is the NEXT troubleshooting step the technician should take? A. Verify full system functionality. B. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes. C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. D. Question the user and identify changes the user has made to the system.
C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
966
``` Which of the following programs can be scheduled to delete unwanted compressed old files? A. Disk Management B. Check Disk C. Disk Cleanup D. Disk Defragmenter ```
C. Disk Cleanup
967
``` Which of the following chipsets is responsible for controlling the data flow between a PATA optical drive and the processor? A. Northbridge B. BIOS C. Southbridge D. DMA controller ```
C. Southbridge
968
A KVM will allow the user to: A. prevent unauthorized users from removing devices from a computer. B. network multiple computers to gain optimum use of system resources. C. connect multiple computers to save on resources. D. allow multiple users the ability to share a single computer.
C. connect multiple computers to save on resources.
969
``` Which of the following bus slots is in a laptop? A. AGP B. PCMCIA C. PCI D. AMR ```
B. PCMCIA
970
A technician is called to a school lab to fix a computer. The computer worked fine the day before, but now does not power on. The computer is plugged into a power strip with another computer. The other computer works fine. Which of the following could be the problem? (Select TWO). A. The power strip is overloaded. B. The monitor is unplugged. C. The power cable is unplugged from the computer. D. The power strip is unplugged. E. The voltage switch on the computer is set incorrectly.
C. The power cable is unplugged from the computer. E. The voltage switch on the computer is set incorrectly.
971
``` The FASTEST cache in a computer is: A. L1. B. L2. C. L3. D. L4. ```
A. L1.
972
``` Which of the following uses pair authentication to provide a wireless connection between two devices? A. 802.11n B. Bluetooth C. Infrared D. Cellular ```
B. Bluetooth
973
``` Which of the following should a technician be cautious of when removing a fuser from a printer that has been recently operational? A. The fuser being fragile B. The fuser being wet C. The fuser being hot D. The fuser containing toner ```
C. The fuser being hot
974
``` Which of the following will help dissipate heat through the heat sink when upgrading a CPU? A. Case fan B. Thermal compound C. Motherboard riser D. Power supply ```
B. Thermal compound
975
``` Which of the following would accommodate the installation of an upgraded video card? (Select TWO). A. AGP B. VGA C. DVI D. SCSI E. PCIe ```
A. AGP | E. PCIe
976
technician has replaced a memory stick in a computer. After the operating system starts to boot, the computer displays a BSOD. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. The chipset firmware needs to be updated B. The motherboard has failed C. The hard drive has failed D. The memory is not seated properly
D. The memory is not seated properly
977
``` Which of the following is the MOST secure form of wireless security? A. WPA2 B. MAC filtering C. SSID D. WEP ```
A. WPA2
978
``` The process of a virus or worm copying itself, then propagating to multiple systems is known as: A. repudiation B. replication C. duplication D. redundancy ```
B. replication
979
``` Which of the following is a user replaceable memory in a computer system? A. SRAM B. CMOS C. ROM D. DRAM ```
D. DRAM
980
``` Computers should NEVER be placed on which of the following materials? A. Carpet B. Wood C. Tile D. Plastic ```
A. Carpet
981
A user needs to transfer numerous personal financial documents from an existing hard drive to a new hard drive. Which of the following should the technician perform? A. Copy all data over without viewing them B. Review all data and write down important account numbers in case information is lost C. Remove all financial documents since they are confidential D. Print out all personal financial documents in case information is deleted
A. Copy all data over without viewing them
982
Which of the following BEST describes a situation that would require STP cable? A. Installation in an area with low EMI B. Installation in an area with high EMI C. Installation in an air handling space D. Installation is an area with high humidity
B. Installation in an area with high EMI
983
``` Which of the following connectors is MOST commonly used for POTS lines? A. BNC B. SC C. RJ-11 D. RJ-45 ```
C. RJ-11
984
Which of the following is the difference between a Cellular WAN and a WLAN card? A. A WLAN card generally has a range of 6 miles (9.7 kilometers), while a Cellular WAN card is limited in range to 1200 feet (365 meters). B. A Cellular WAN card will work on most public Wireless Access Points, while a WLAN card is more proprietary. C. A Cellular WAN card requires subscription to a cellular provider, while a WLAN card can work without provider payment. D. A WLAN card is usually an external card, while a Cellular WAN card is usually an internal card.
C. A Cellular WAN card requires subscription to a cellular provider, while a WLAN card can work without provider payment.
985
``` A technician has rebooted a PC, and the machine has paused on a black screen with a white blinking underscore on the top left of the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem? A. PC is running in Safe Mode B. Boot order C. Recovery Console is running D. BIOS update in process ```
B. Boot order
986
A technician notices that there are two appointments scheduled for the same time. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the issue? A. Call one of the clients and apologize, then reschedule B. Do not go to the second scheduled appointment C. Email each client for rescheduling D. Go to the first scheduled appointment then after completion go to the next
A. Call one of the clients and apologize, then reschedule
987
``` SCSI uses which of the following connector types? A. DB-25 B. DB-9 C. RJ-45 D. RJ-11 ```
A. DB-25
988
``` Which of the following devices would MOST likely require a serial adapter to be installed on a modern PC? A. External modem B. TV tuner C. Mouse D. Keyboard ```
A. External modem
989
An end user reports that their laptop cannot access the wireless network. The user had access to the network yesterday, before taking the laptop out of the office. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the connection problem? A. The wireless network is down. B. The user turned the wireless switch off. C. The battery needs to be charged. D. The wireless antenna has become disconnected
B. The user turned the wireless switch off
990
``` A technician would like to rebuild the MBR without reinstalling Windows. Which of the following recovery options would be used to build a new MBR? A. Recovery Console B. System Restore C. Automated System Recovery D. Emergency Repair Disk ```
A. Recovery Console
991
``` Which of the following wireless technology standards can operate at either 2.4GHz or 5GHz frequencies? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n ```
D. 802.11n
992
``` Which of the following protocols are commonly used for Windows Remote Desktop? A. NTP B. PPTP C. RDP D. LDAP ```
C. RDP
993
``` Which of the following ports does the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol use? A. 21 B. 25 C. 80 D. 443 ```
B. 25
994
``` Which of the following log files references Windows specific errors? A. Archive Logs B. Application Logs C. Security Logs D. System Logs ```
D. System Logs
995
Which of the following is a function of the PS/2 port? A. Connection of a gaming controller B. Connection of a keyboard or mouse C. Connection of a biometric device D. Connection of an external optical drive
B. Connection of a keyboard or mouse
996
The PING command can be used to determine which of the following? (Select TWO). A. If there is connection to a specified IP address B. The gateway address of a currently logged on user C. The response time of the connection to a specific IP address D. The amount of hops it takes to reach destination computer E. The active connections to a computer
A. If there is connection to a specified IP address C. The response time of the connection to a specific IP address
997
``` Which of the following would a technician enable on a router to allow specific devices to connect to the Internet? A. DHCP B. MAC filtering C. DNS D. SSID ```
B. MAC filtering
998
A technician has been taken to a users desk to resolve a problem. The users desk is covered with papers and it is obvious to the technician that these papers are of a confidential nature. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Put the confidential papers in a neat pile at the side of the desk. B. Ask the user to clear the desk of the confidential papers. C. Work around the papers to resolve the problem. D. Refuse to work until the user has cleared the desk.
B. Ask the user to clear the desk of the confidential papers
999
``` Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting theory after identifying the problem? A. Establish a theory of probable cause B. Test the theory C. Implement preventative measures D. Establish a plan of action ```
A. Establish a theory of probable cause
1000
``` Which of the following is the number of devices that can be daisy-chained to an IEEE 1394 port? A. 7 B. 15 C. 63 D. 127 ```
C. 63
1001
A customer reports that their computer is displaying operating system not found while booting. The technician confirms that the computer booted fine the previous day and that no devices were added. The technician also confirms that no software changes were made to the system from the previous day. Which of the following is the problem? A. The network cable is unplugged. B. A diskette was placed in the disk drive. C. The keyboard is unplugged. D. The system has been infected with spyware.
B. A diskette was placed in the disk drive.
1002
``` Which of the following are digital audio-only formats? (Select TWO). A. AAC B. WMV C. WMA D. AVI E. DES ```
A. AAC | C. WMA
1003
``` Which of the following wireless technology standards can operate at a MAXIMUM of 54Mbps? (Select TWO). A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11k E. 802.11n ```
A. 802.11a | C. 802.11g
1004
After verifying full system functionality, which of the following should a technician do NEXT when troubleshooting a problem? A. Establish a theory of probable cause. B. Identify user changes to the computer. C. Move on to the next issue that requires troubleshooting. D. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
1005
``` A user notices that the battery light on the laptop is flashing when the laptop is on a docking station. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST? A. Reseat in the docking station B. Reinstall the operating system C. Remove and reseat the battery D. Replace the laptop battery ```
A. Reseat in the docking station

A plus (1 decks)

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