A350 CBT Flashcards
(178 cards)
1
Q
You can use Keyboard and Cursor Control unit to interact…
A
With the MFD, ND, Mailbox and OIS.
2
Q
To select and adjust information displayed on the ND, the crew can use
A
The EFIS control panel and/or the KCCU.
3
Q
To interact with the OIS, the flight crew can use
A
The OIS keyboard or the KCCU.
4
Q
The two navigation keys on the Cursor Control Device (CCD) are used for
A
Their onside ND and OIS, the PFDs and with the mailbox as well.
5
Q
The KCCUs (Key and Cursor Control Units) interact with
A
Their onside ND and OIS, the MFDs and with the mailbox as well.
6
Q
Which color-coding requires the flight crew’s awareness (and not immediate actions)
A
Amber
7
Q
Which color-coding requires immediate actions
A
Red
8
Q
On the shown PFD, the highlights “V” indication is the
A
Altitude Pitch limit indication to avoid tail strike (visible below 400’).
9
Q
On the shown PFD, The red symbol represents:
A
An excessive pitch attitude.
10
Q
On the shown PFD, You are at takeoff or go-around. In accordance with the shown PFD, the sideslip index appears in blue and
A
It refers to beta target with ENG 2 failed.
11
Q
On the shown PFD, In accordance with speed scale indication, speed is
A
Selected. The aircraft will reach 275kt in 10s.
12
Q
You are in high workload phase (takeoff or landing). The memos and some ECAM alerts are delayed to a more appropriate flight phase.
A
TRUE
13
Q
The surveillance function enhances the situation awareness of the flight crew regarding
A
Weather, surrounding traffic, terrain and obstacle
14
Q
The surveillance function includes the following systems
A
XPDR and TCAS, WXR, TAWS
15
Q
The flight crew can select a surveillance (SURV) system manually
A
Via the pedestal SURV panel.
Via the MFD SURV STATUS & SWITCHING page.
16
Q
To change the transponder operation mode, the flight crew can use
A
THE MFD SURV CONTROLS page. (RMP can only change transponder code).
17
Q
In STBY mode, the flight crew will get an alert in case of potential collision of other aircrafts.
A
FALSE.
18
Q
The flight crew can control TCAS via
A
The SURV panel and MFD SURV/CONTROLS page.
19
Q
On the ND, the red filled square indicates
A
An intruder in the RA range, 1500ft below.
20
Q
The radar TURB function can detect
A
Wet turbulence.
21
Q
The TURB function is available. The NDs display areas of turbulence
A
Inmagenta.
22
Q
The XPDR code can be set on
A
The RMP or the MFD SURV CONTROLS page.
23
Q
In case of terrain or obstacle alert, the ND range and mode
A
Switch automatically to ARC mode, 10 nm.
24
Q
If the flight crew does not press the WX Pb on the EFIS CP
A
The weather automatically turns on after takeoff.
25
What does the OIS switch give you when switched to EFB
Both A and B (The documentation equivalent to a traditional pilot briefcase / Flight operations applications)
26
Turn off the ADR 3 on the show ADIRS panel
ADR 3 Pb
27
Turn off the IR 1 on the show ADIRS panel
IR 1 Pb
28
On the A350, the time function operates in automatic mode (AUTO) mode by default. In this mode, time is provided by the GNSS.
TRUE.
29
On the shown VD, the yellow arrow represents
The radio altitude.
30
In accordance to the show panel
TOU VOR is tuned automatically. TBO VOR is tuned manually.
31
In accordance with the shown ND, TOU VOR is tuned manually
On the MFD POSITION/ NAVAID page.
32
The GLS and SLS enable to fly straight-in precision approaches with the “ILS look-alike” feature.
TRUE.
33
If only one ISIS is installed the ISIS can be used as Standby Flight display (SFD) but not as Standby Navigation Display (SND)
TRUE.
34
THE MASTER PRIM loses the best operational capability. The Slave 1 PRIM takes over and
The AP, FDs and A/THR (if engaged) stays engaged.
35
AP1 is engaged and an ILS approach is inserted in the FMS. You can engage the second AP
When APPR pb is pressed.
36
To disconnect the AP(s), Airbus recommends to press twice the sidestick pb. The first pression disconnects the AP(s). The second pression →
Acknowledges the disengagement and stops the warnings.
37
In accordance with the shown PFD (flashing FD)
FD orders are not available.
38
In accordance with the shown FMA, which FD bar(s) is/are displayed (1FD2)
Both FD bars.
39
In accordance with the shown FMA and AFS-CP (A/THR Blue)
The A/THR is armed.
40
In accordance with the shown thrust levers and FMA (MAN TOGA and A/THR Blue)
The A/THR is armed and you manually control the thrust.
41
On ground the FD’s automatically engage
The aircraft is powered up.
42
In flight, if OFF, the FD’s will automatically engage
If the flight crew selects go around mode with the thrust levers. Upon a TCAS resolution advisory.
43
If a normal monitored parameter goes out of its NORMAL range, but does not reach a level that trigger an alert, what would you expect the parameters indication to do
To pulse green on the SD page.
44
Look at the picture provided, what does the dashed line indicate in the vertical display overview box
Predicted FMS trajectory.
45
In flight, there is a reversion as per the pictures from NAV to HDG What will FD bars do
The pitch bar will flash for 10 sec.
46
At landing, if the “WINDSHEAR WARNING” (Reactive Windshear) is triggered on the PFD, the flight crew memory items are
THR LEVERS → TOGA, SET
AP (if engaged) → Keep ON
SRS ORDERS → FOLLOW.
47
If a flight computer detects an abnormal operation what does the FWS do…
Triggers the applicable alerts. Displays the associated procedures; display the applicable SD pages; provide the aircraft status and displays limitations if any.
48
The first actions of stall recovery procedure are…
Apply nose down pitch control and bank to wings level.
49
What is the maximum pitch attitude
30º
50
What is the maximum pitch attitude at low speed
25º (-15º down is max nose down pitch attitude)
51
All AP/FD modes may be used with or without A/THR unless specified
TRUE
52
Where would you expect to see the DISPCH white reminder
On the WD page. (reminder/memo appears in WD but the full Dispatch page appears in the SD)
53
After take off the AP must be engaged below 200ft AGL and at least 5 s after takeoff
FALSE.
54
What color are Reminders shown in on the Last part of the WD
White
55
What is the normal range of the vertical speed tape
+/-6000 fpm
56
The flight envelope function of the AFS, computes the normal flight envelopes, which provides what
Characteristics speeds / Specific Protections.
57
What kind of modes do these come under (LAND, FLARE, ROLL OUT)
COMMON.
58
The SD Page displays System Pages, BUT what other pages will it display
Cruise page, Status page and Status More page, Video page, Dispatch page.
59
What color are limitations shown in on the upper part of the WD
Blue
60
The A/THR is ON. In accordance with the speed-scale, if you select speed at 135kt
TheA/THRwillnotadjustthe speed below VLS.
61
VLS is the lowest selectable speed.
TRUE
62
The Alpha floor function is available in Normal Law and in Alternate Law..
FALSE
63
The FMS tunes the navaids automatically for the aircraft position computation and for
The ND display and the landing system.
64
In accordance with the shown MFD panel, what is the correct statement
The VOR 2 TBO and the course are selected manually. The frequency is selected by FMS.
65
The FMS Landing System (FLS) function enables to perform non-precision approaches with the help of FMS.
TRUE
66
The FMS Landing System (FLS) beam is virtual. It can go through terrain obstacles.
TRUE
67
For the CLB, CRZ and DES flight phase, does the FMS have one or two specific speed mode
Two → Long Range Cruise (LRC) mode and the (ECON) mode.
68
The FMS computes the Recommended Maximum Flight Level (REC MAX FL). At REC MAX FL
The speed is GDOT minimum and, The buffeting margin is 0.3g.
69
The yellow line on the ND shows
The temporary flight plan
70
The sidesticks are spring loaded to neutral. The sidesticks receive feedback from the control surfaces
In no case.
71
In abnormal operations, one of any PRIM or SEC is able to control the aircraft
TRUE.
72
An Electro-Hydrostatic Actuator (EHA) operates as
A back up conventional actuator.
73
Hydraulic power is lost. The Electrical Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA) behaves as an Electro-Hydrostatic Actuator (EHA)..
TRUE
74
The slats and flaps are monitored and controlled by
The two SFCCs.
75
The Differential Flaps Setting (DFS) operates the outer flap independently from inner flaps to optimize cruise performance..
TRUE
76
In normal law, the maximum pitch attitude protection is indicated by
2 pair of green horizontal bars.
77
On the PFD, after the 1st engine start what symbols appear within the artificial Horizon
The maximum side stick deflection box and the side stick order symbols.
78
In normal law, the maximum bank angle protection is indicated by
2 pair of green bars at 66 degrees.
79
When both pilots press the SIDESTICK takeover pb
The last pilot pressing the pb gets the priority.
80
When the F/O presses and maintains the takeover pb
The CAPT can reactivate his/her sidestick immediately by pressing and holding his/her takeover pb.
81
When the F/O presses his/her SIDESTICK takeover pb for more than 30s and releases it
The CAPT’s sidestick is deactivated. To reactivate it, one of the sidesticks take over pb must be pressed. (40 seconds according to FCOM)
82
Several braking modes exist on the A350. How many..
Normal, Alternate, Emergency, Parking Brake.
83
You can use the parking brake as ultimate means of braking..
TRUE
84
The runway-overrun warning/protection (ROW/ROP) are part of the functions related to runways.
TRUE
85
During the rollout the ROP function computes in real time the LD taking in account current flight parameter and runway conditions selected by the crew. If a runway overrun is detected
The ROP function triggers the alerts. If the auto brake is active, the ROP function automatically activates maximum braking
86
The A-SKID function is available in emergency braking..
FALSE
87
In accordance with the shown PFD lower part, the landing gear is
In transit up.
88
In accordance with the PFD lower part, the landing gear is
In transit down.
89
The emergency braking mode uses the alternate network.
TRUE
90
Two accumulators (one GREEN and one YELLOW) supply the alternate braking network
TRUE
91
In normal braking mode, the wheel brakes are
Controlled individually.
92
In alternate braking mode, with the accumulator pressure at 1700 psi
The same functionalities as in normal braking mode are available but powered by the accumulators only.
93
In alternate braking mode, the A-SKID is available as long as the accumulator pressure is above 1600 psi..
TRUE
94
In emergency braking mode
The A SKID is lost; The brake pressure is automatically limited to 1130 psi; The guaranteed number of brake pedals applications is at least 6 times.
95
You can use the park brake as ultimate braking mode. The brake pressure is limited to 1600 psi to avoid tire burst.
FALSE
96
In accordance with the shown WHEEL MORE SD page, the wheel brake
is released (vertical amber strips)
97
In accordance with the shown WHEEL MORE SD page, the brake status indicates
A residual braking on one wheel.
98
Where can you check the pressure applied on the left and right brakes
X100 PSI indicator.
99
The memo AUTO BRK OFF indicates that A/BRK
Is deselected.
100
On the WHEEL SD page, AUTO BRK indicates that the A/BRK
Is failed.
101
A-SKID has failed. The ANTI SKID sw is set to OFF. In accordance with the shown SD extract, select the correct wheel SD page..
ALTN system with A SKID Amber
102
At low speed, the Heading control function (HCF) compensates any crosswind effect or NWS offset..
TRUE
103
The Yellow hydraulic system has failed. You can vacate the runway
With the backup steering function thanks to the conversion of the flight crew steering inputs into differential braking.
104
The GREEN hydraulic system is failed. Select the good WHEEL SD page.
G SYS BRK ALTN and NWS is operative.
105
The two BRAKES CTL systems have failed. In accordance with the shown WHEEL SD page
The Emergency braking mode automatically activates, without A-SKID and A/BRK.
106
The avionics network is composed of
Two independent and redundant networks.
107
Failure of a single or multiple switches on only one network
Has no operational effect.
108
The failure of a single switch on only one network
Has no operational effect.
109
In the case of single CRDC failure
There is no operational effect.
110
IfallPRIMShavethesameoperationcapability,whichPRIMis the master, and in what mode do the other 2 PRIM operate in
Master is the first to be electrically supplied the others are slave 1 and slave 2.
111
What is the Onboard Information System (OIS)
A system that provides software applications for flight operations, maintenance and cabin activities.
112
The Fuel Tank Inerting Systems (FTIS) provides a fully automatic protection against fuel tank fire and explosion..
TRUE
113
What is the engine feeding logic
The center tank pumps deliver fuel preferentially to the engines because they produce more pressure than the wing tank pumps.
114
On the shown Fuel SD page, the TOTAL FU indicates
The total fuel used by the engines and the APU.
115
On the shown Fuel SD page, ALL ENG FU indicates
The total fuel used by the two engines if the fuel used by the APU is not available.
116
On the shown CRUISE SD page, the FU indicates the fuel used by each engine..
TRUE
117
During a manual transfer, you can transfer manually fuel from a wing tank to the center tank.
TRUE
118
In accordance with the shown MEMO, refueling is in progress (REFUEL PNL DOOR OPEN)
FALSE
119
For gravity transfer from the wing tanks to the center tank, the fuel is
Manually transferred via the refuel gallery.
120
In accordance with the shown FUEL SD page, the fuel leak detection is still operative.
FALSE (FOBFU) – BLOCK = 0
121
In electrical emergency configuration, one main pump is available in each wing tank. But when the slats are extended, engines are fed by gravity..
TRUE
122
The APU can get fuel from only the left and center Tanks
FALSE
123
How many Fuel Quantity Management Systems does A350 have
2
124
How many wing tank fuel pumps in the A350 fuel system
4
125
Is the fuel transfer to the center tank from the wing tanks, done by pumps or gravity
Gravity
126
How long would it take to jettison 60,000kg of fuel
60 minutes
127
Can you jettison fuel without entering a value in the FMS FUEL and LOAD page
Yes.
128
Fuel Jettison stops when
✔ A, B and C are correct
✔ (A) The gross weight reaches the Jettison final gross entered in the FMS.
✔ (B) The flight crew stops by switch off any of the two jettison pb-sw.
✔ (C) Fuel on board reduces to10.000kgs, if no jettison final gross weight was entered in the FMS Fuel & load.
129
Battery, engine generator or external power can supply electrical power to APU
TRUE
130
The APU GEN pb-sw allows to disconnect manually the APU generator from the electrical network
TRUE
131
On the ECAM, the memo APU BLEED indicates that
APU provides bleed air.
132
In accordance with AIR panel and the BLEED SD page, the APU bleed feeds the air conditioning system
TRUE.
133
The APU can be shutdown from outside the aircraft with
The APU SHUTOFF sw on the Maintenance Nose Gear Panel, or the APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN sw on the external refuel panel.
134
To start the APU, you have to press
The MASTER SW pb-sw and the START pb.
135
To stop the APU, you have to press
The MASTER SW only.
136
In accordance to the APU panel, the APU is
Ready to start.
137
What causes an APU emergency shutdown without cooling period
APU FIRE pushbutton switch on the overhead panel; APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN sw on the external refuel panel; The APU SHUT OFF sw on the Maintenance Nose Gear Panel.
138
The APU cannot supply back up electrical power throughout the whole envelope.
FALSE. (It can, up to 43000’)
139
The different air sources of the bleed system are
The APU, the engines & the HP ground carts.
140
The bleed air system supplies air to the Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS)
TRUE
141
The bleed air system supplies air to
The engine start system, The air-conditioning system, The cabin pressurization system, The wing anti-ice, The engine anti-ice, and the fuel tank inerting system.
142
The APU can supply bleed air for pressurization and air conditioning in flight, up to 22500 ft., with 2 packs running.
TRUE. (with SINGLE pack operation it would be up to 25000’)
143
The APU can supply bleed air for engine start in flight up to 25000 ft..
TRUE
144
What Altitude can the APU provide air conditioning up to a single pack
25000’ (with 2 pack operating it would be up to 22500’)
145
On the A350 two HP ground sources can be connected.
TRUE
146
In normal operation, the crossbleed valve interconnects or isolates the left and the right air systems if
XBLEED selector is in AUTO.
147
The temperature of FWD cargo compartment is regulated with
Air from the cabin, the mixer unit and the trim air system.
148
The temperature of the BULK cargo compartment is regulated with air form the cabin and from an electric heater..
TRUE
149
The AFT cargo compartment is ventilated only with cabin air..
TRUE
150
On the shown VENT panel, select the correct pb-sw to stop the recirculation fans.
CAB FANS
151
When the DITCHING pb-sw is pressed
It closes all valves below the flotation line.
152
According to the BLEED SD page and the ENGINE START PANEL, the correct statement is
The APU BLEED supplies the PACKS and the engine bleeds are closed.
153
The aircraft is in flight. In accordance with the shown panels, select the correct statement.
✔ A bleed leak occurs.
✔ The engine 1 bleed valve is closed.
✔ The crossbleed valve automatically opens.
154
The engine bleed air ensures internal engine cooling
TRUE
155
In normal operation, the crossbleed valves interconnects or isolates the left and right air system if
XBLEED selector is set to AUTO
156
The RAM air inlet opens when the differential pressure is lower than
2 PSI
157
At low engine thrust which engine compressor supplies the bleed system..
The HP
158
On takeoff the APU will provide air conditioning
TRUE (if APU bleed ON)
159
Each engine-driven generator provides
AC power at variable frequency.
160
When all Engine driven Generators are lost, the RAT is manually extended.
FALSE. (RAT extension is automatic in this case)
161
On the EMER ELEC PWR PANEL, the RAT MAN ON pb
Extends the RAT.
162
The electrical system has 2 Electrical Power Distribution Centers
EPDC side 1 and EPDC side 2. For each side, the emergency network is composed of 1 AC EMER 230V bus bar, 1 AC EMER 115v bus bar, 1 DC EMER 28v bus bar.
163
In case of a generator overload, the Electrical Load Management Function (ELMF) automatically sheds the non- essential commercial electrical loads..
TRUE
164
In case of a generator overload and not sufficient ELMF shedding, the Electrical Network Management Function (ENMF) sheds groups of loads..
TRUE
165
The Electrical Network Management Function (ENMF) controls the automatic reconfiguration of the network..
TRUE
166
The two engine-driven generators are lost on the same side. The APU GEN replaces both generators.
TRUE
167
What NORMAL BUSBARS are NOT displayed on ELEC SD page
AC ETOPS 1/2 and HOT 1/2
168
How many batteries connect to the electrical network.
4
169
How many batteries provide DC28V electrical power to the aircraft
4
170
The APU generator supplies the elec network with AC230V at a constant frequency of
400Hz
171
What EMERGENCY bus are not displayed on ELEC SD page
EVAC 1/2 & EMER HOT bus 1/2
172
The emergency generator supplies
230v.
173
How is AC EMER 1 supplied with the emergency generator NOT operating
In that case, a static inverter (STAT INV) supplies the AC EMER 1 115v power from the BAT EMER 1
174
The Transformers Rectifiers (TRs) convert
AC 230V into DC28V Power
175
Both hydraulic systems (GREEN and YELLOW) generate and supply hydraulic power to the following components
Answer A, B and C are correct (Flight control surfaces, Brake accumulators re inflate, Slats and flaps)
176
The A350 has two hydraulic systems (GREEN and YELLOW). The correct statement is
They are identical and independent. Engine driven and electrical pumps can supply each hydraulic system.
177
The hydraulic power generation has two engine driven pumps per engine and
Each engine has one GREEN pump and one YELLOW hydraulic system.
178
For redundancy purpose, flight control surfaces are powered by GREEN or YELLOW systems or by electrical backup..
TRUE
