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A350 Questions edited Flashcards

1
Q

What are WX settings for TO?

A

The AUTO mode is the default mode of the weather radar. The AUTO mode is adapted and optimized for all
flight phases. The flight crew can temporarily use the manual modes if needed, depending on the operational
context.

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2
Q

Cockpit adjustable seats?

A

The CAPT and F/O seats are electrically powered in order move horizontally and vertically.
Manual controls enable crew to adjust the recline, the vertical and the horizontal position and the lumbar &
override the electrical controls, if necessary.
The third occupant’s seat is similar to CAPT and F/O seats but can only be adjusted mechanically.
The fourth occupant’s seat is a folding seat, and cannot be adjusted.

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3
Q

What controls the pack?

A

The Air System Control Unit (ASCU) controls the pack. There is one ASCU per pack. The ASCU is a dual-lane
controller.

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4
Q

What controls the pack?

A

The Air System Control Unit (ASCU) controls the pack.

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5
Q

What happens in case of pack overheat in
flight?

A

When the pack overheats the fault light in the PACK pb sw comes on. (Associated with the following ECAM
alert: AIR PACK 1(2) OVHT).
On the ground the active pack valve of a pack will automatically close, if the associated pack overheats.

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6
Q

When do pack valves close?

A

The active pack valve of a pack will automatically close, if:
There is not sufficient upstream pressure, or
The FIRE pb-sw of the associated engine is pressed, or
The associated PACK pb is set to OFF, or
The associated pack overheats, and the aircraft is on ground, or
There is a leak detection, or
The onside engine starts.

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7
Q

How many pack valves are there on each pack?

A

For each pack, there are two pack valves. Only one is active, the other is in standby.

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8
Q

Bulk Cargo Ventilation?

A

The bulk cargo compartment has a heating system.
Some air from the cabin recirculates into the bulk cargo compartment for ventilation and temperature control.
An electrical heater heats the air that flows into the bulk cargo compartment.
Two isolation valves (manually controlled using the BULK ISOL VALVES pb-sw on the CARGO AIR COND pane)
permit the isolation of the bulk cargo compartment.

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9
Q

Cargo Extraction Valve SD PAGE EXAMPLE?

A

There’s a CARGO EXTRACTION FAN INDICATION and CARGO ISOLATION VALVE INDICATION showing extraction
valve closed

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10
Q

If an OCU fails, what happens?

A

If one OCU (Outflow valve Control Unit) fails the other one takes over the control of the two outflow valves.

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11
Q

If an OCU fails, what happens?

A

If one OCU fails the other one takes over the control of the two outflow valves.

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12
Q

Outflow valves close in AUTO?

A

The two outflow valves close when the cabin altitude exceeds 14 000 ft in automatic mode (15 000 ft in manual
mode).

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13
Q

When do the outflow valves close in MANUAL
mode?

A

The two outflow valves close when the cabin altitude exceeds 15 000 ft in manual mode.

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14
Q

Pressurisation SD picture shown

A

it is manual cab alt, man cab v/s, man sys status

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15
Q

Fire extinguishers in Cargo Hold?

A

There are 3 (2 on the-900) fire extinguisher bottles that can discharge extinguisher agent in the forward OR
aft/bulk cargo compartment.

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16
Q

Where is a toilet smoke indication shown?

A

If the SDF detects smoke in any lavatory, the SMOKE LAVATORY SMOKE ECAM alert is triggered, and the Flight
Attendant Panel (FAP) displays an associated cabin smoke alert.

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17
Q

If the spoilers auto stow during during alpha
protection or go-around, when will they be
available again?

A

Once retracted, the speedbrakes remain retracted, even if the conditions have disappeared. To extend the
speed brakes again, the SPEED BRAKE lever must first be set to the retracted position for at least 5 s .

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18
Q

When do spoilers extend in RTO?

A

RTO ground spoilers fully extend when the thrust levers are at idle and the speed is greater than 72 kt.
If the ground spoilers are not armed, they will automatically extend when the reversers are selected and the
speed is greater than 72 kt.

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19
Q

Picture of sidestick priority light.

A

The Captain presses their sidestick pb. The PRIORITY LEFT callout is triggered. (The CAPT light comes on, only if
the First Officer moves their sidestick.)

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20
Q

When does PITCH TRIM appear?

A

The pitch trim display is displayed on ground, before takeoff and after landing.
After takeoff, it disappears when the aircraft is 50 ft above the runway.
After landing, it is displayed when the aircraft speed is below 30 kt
For touch and go, it will be displayed as soon as one of the following occurs:
The engine levers are moved out of idle
Spoilers are disarmed
Flaps are retracted one step
The flight crew presses the PITCH TRIM sw.

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21
Q

Rudder trim. What happens with the AP
engaged to the reset PB?

A

The RUDDER TRIM selector and RESET pb are not active with the autopilot engaged.

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22
Q

On the F/CTL More SD Page, on the rudder
actuators, what does an amber Y mean?

A

The power supply of the associated actuator is failed. The Y hydraulic power supply is failed. (OR SWITCHED
OFF)

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23
Q

When does the rudder trim position appear on
the Slats/Flaps Display:

A

The rudder trim position appears:
-When the flight crew moves the rudder trim pos via the RUDDER TRIM selector,
-When the flight crew presses the RESET pb (displayed 10 s after the 0° trim reached)
-In the case of failure of one engine (The indication remains displayed for the remainder of the flight)
-In flight, or on ground with a speed above 65 kt and when the rudder trim position exceeds ±1°(The indication
remains displayed 10 s after the position goes below ±1°)
-On ground with a speed below 65 kt, and when the rudder trim position exceeds ±0.4°.

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24
Q

PFD in direct

A

USE MAN PITCH TRIM - The flight controls are in direct law.

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25
In normal law, when at 40 deg bank, what happens when stick released?
When the bank angle is above 33 °, The bank angle returns to 33° if the sidestick is at neutral (positive spiral stability is restored)
26
When the backup control is active, the flight crew controls the aircraft via?
When the backup control is active, the flight crew controls the aircraft via: -The sidesticks -The rudder pedals -The pitch trim switch
27
What does Slat/Alpha Lock do?
The slat alpha/speed lock function inhibits slats retraction to zero at a high Angle-Of-Attack (AOA), and/or at a very low speed. If the slat alpha/speed lock function is active: A pulsing A. LOCK message appears in the Flap/Slat display of the PFD The PFD indicates the VLS that corresponds to the actual slats/flaps position.
28
Fuel Collector Cells
Each wing tank contains a collector cell that has a fuel capacity of approximately 1 800 kg (3 970 lb). The collector cell, that is at the lowest point of the wing tank, is permanently filled by gravity to keep the fuel pumps inlets immersed. This design provides low or negative "g" protection to feed the engine.
29
When does the APU fuel pump run?
The APU can be fed by the APU feed pump, that operates automatically, if required (starts to run when the APU is started, and stops when the APU is shutdown)
30
Fuel Feed on Take-off?
The main wing tank pumps run continuously. After takeoff, the center tank pumps start running a few minutes after the flight crew moves the FLAPS lever to 0.
31
When will standby wing fuel pumps operate automatically?
In normal operation, when the center tank is empty, the standby pumps run continuously.
32
How do you manual control the centre tank pumps?
CTR TK FEED pb - Manual control of the center tank pumps is activated.
33
If ECAM asks for it, how do you transfer fuel from Wing to Centre Tank?
By selecting L(R) TK XFR pb sw ON. Fuel transfers by gravity from the wing tank to the center tank, via the refuel gallery.
34
Is fuel gravity fed through the wing to centre tank or pumped?
However, the flight crew can initiate a manual gravity transfer, via the FUEL overhead panel, as requested by ECAM procedures. 3 000 kg of the wing tank fuel cannot be transferred to the center tank.
35
Hydraulic systems run at what pressure?
The normal operating pressure of each hydraulic system is approximately 5 000 PSI.
36
HYD heat exchanger is cooled by?
Each hydraulic system has one hydraulic heat exchanger in each wing fuel tank.
37
What will make the Green ELEC Hyd pump operate?
The GREEN electric pump operates automatically to reinflate the green braking accumulator, when the ACCU REINFLATE pb is pressed.
38
(Picture of HYD SD showing green rectangle to the RHS) What is it?
The fluid level is within normal range. The normal filling range is displayed in green on the right hand side of the reservoir.
39
With engine bleed off is EAI still available?
Each engine has its own anti-ice system, with an independent hot bleed air source.
40
What parts of the engine are covered by engine anti-ice?
Each engine has its own anti-ice system, with an independent hot bleed air source to anti-ice the engine air inlet.
41
When is ANTI-ICE on engine?
When the flight crew sets the applicable ENG ANTI ICE pb to ON, the engine anti-ice valves of the selected engine open.
42
If the EAI valve lose power, what happens
Each valve is electrically-controlled and pneumatically-actuated. The valve opens, if it loses its power supply.
43
When is Wing and Engine Antice automatic?
NEVER. When the flight crew sets the applicable ENG ANTI ICE pb to ON, the engine anti-ice valves of the selected engine open.When the flight crew sets the WING ANTI ICE pb to ON, both wing anti-ice valves open.
44
For Wing Anti Ice
When the flight crew sets the WING ANTI ICE pb to ON, both wing anti-ice valves open. Each valve is electrically-controlled and pneumatically-actuated. The valve closes, if it loses its power supply.
45
Water / waste anti-ice. How does it work?
The water lines are automatically heated to prevent ice formation, which could lead to damage and/or obstruction of the water lines. Water lines heating is monitored and controlled by three Ice Protection Control Units (IPCU).
46
What does Amber WING A-ICE indication on BLEED SD mean?
Wing anti-ice is commanded off but remains on Wing anti-ice is commanded on but the associated valve remains abnormally closed An abnormal pressure is detected.
47
How do you access the MFD soft keyboard?
In the case of a total or partial loss of the KBD, the flight crew can use a soft keyboard as a backup.When the KCCU keyboard is inoperative: To edit an entry field, the flight crew clicks on the entry field in order to display the soft keyboard. To manually enter data in a list, the flight crew performs the following sequence: Select the list. Press one time the KBD key to display the soft keyboard.
48
When is the Video SD automatically displayed?
The VIDEO SD page automatically displays the video image of the cockpit door entry area, if: The emergency cockpit access is requested, or In flight, the routine cockpit access is requested, and the ECAM displays the CRUISE page. If the VIDEO SD page is not automatically displayed, the flight crew can press the VIDEO pb on the ECP.
49
How to select ETACS
The flight crew can manually display the ETACS camera view: On the PFD, via the TAXI pb on the EFIS CP. On the VIDEO SD page, via dedicated controls on the ECP.
50
When is AVAIL shown on Display Cycle pb?
Due to a change in the standard display configuration, the flight crew can change the display of one of the onside DU.
51
OIS Offside is selected by Captain.
The OIS VIEW OFFSIDE pb enables the CAPT or the F/O to see, on the onside OIS, what is displayed on the offside OIS.
52
When FO OIS ON CENTER is presses, what moves where?
When F/O presses on the F/O OIS ON CENTER pb, the F/O OIS display on the center lower DU. The F/O MFD is automatically transferred to the F/O outer DU. This outer DU also displays a second MFD which can only provide FMS functions.
53
If the center upper ECAM fails?
If the center upper DU fails, the CDS automatically displays the ECAM on the center lower DU.
54
If Capt or FO inner DU fails?
If the CAPT(F/O) inner DU fails, the CDS automatically displays the EFIS on the CAPT(F/O) outer DU.
55
Green BAR on PFD?
When the FDs are engaged the yaw bar is displayed during takeoff or landing roll. The yaw bar only appears in RWY and ROLL OUT.
56
DECEL on the PFD below the speed scale. What does it mean?
The autobrake is active, and the aircraft decelerates. Appears below the speed scale, when the aircraft deceleration rate reaches at least 80 % of the selected deceleration.
57
Pic of PFD V/S scale with verti speed shown with amber box around it? What does this mean?
The vertical speed is based on ADRs data only, and no longer combined with IRs data, or There is a time lag between the vertical speed that appears on the PFD, and the actual vertical speed of the aircraft.
58
Which modes allow Interactive ND?
The interactive functions of the ND are only available in ARC, PLAN, or ROSE-NAV mode.
59
Weather is displayed in ND & VD when in which modes?
The weather display on the ND is available in ARC mode and in all ROSE modes.
60
Difference between primary and secondary failure on ECAM
Primary BOXED, Secondary ASTERISKED
61
To display Normal Checklist?
The flight crew can access the CHECKLIST MENU page, via: -The C/L MENU key on the keyboard of the KCCU -The selection of the C/L MENU in the MFD system menu -The C/L MENU button on a CHECKLIST page.
62
When is SD page system boxed blue?
The title of a SD page appears as follows: In a blue box, when the flight crew manually displays the SD page
63
How do you recall deferred items?
When DEFRD pb pressed, the DEFERRED PROCEDURES page disappears from the WD.
64
What does Magenta Take-off inhibit mean?
The ECAM inhibits the alerts that are not necessary, in order to enable the flight crew to focus on and perform their takeoff tasks.
65
How can you access the notepad
To open the NOTE PAD, the flight crew has to: -Press the [NOTEPAD] key on the KCCU, or -Click on the NOTE PAD area, or -Press the [ENT] key when the cursor is over the NOTE PAD area.
66
Normal Brakes are powered by?
In normal braking mode: The YELLOW normal hydraulic system supplies hydraulic power to the MLG wheels 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 8. The GREEN normal hydraulic system supplies hydraulic power to the MLG wheels 5, 7, 9, 10, 11, and 12. [SIM ONLY A350-900 In normal braking mode: The YELLOW normal hydraulic system supplies hydraulic power to the front MLG wheels The GREEN normal hydraulic system supplies hydraulic power to the rear MLG wheels.] NB the accumulators do not in normal braking mode.
67
A/B arming description for BTV basic brake mode (MED)
The basic autobrake mode arms when: The flight crew presses the A/BRK pb The aircraft is in flight No BTV exit is selected Normal or alternate braking modes are available on all wheel groups.
68
Link between NWS and tiller/rudder pedal/autopilot
Each STEER CTL receives electrical demand from: The steering handwheels (tillers) The rudder pedals The autopilot during automatic landings The Steering Disconnect Panel (SDP). Then, the active STEER CTL computes and sends electrical commands to the hydraulic equipment of the steering system.
69
When is N/W STEER DISC amber on WD?
The NWS is disconnected (at least one engine is running)
70
What does an amber arc over a wheel signify?
The amber arc indicates the hottest wheel brake when the brake temperature exceeds 300 °C. (The green arc indicates the hottest wheel brake if the hottest brake temperature exceeds 100 °C but not 300°)
71
Which lights have a memo when switched off in flight.
The aircraft is in flight, and the BEACON or STROBE sw is set to OFF.
72
Power Source of Cabin Emergency Lights?
All cabin emergency lights (except the emergency slide lights) have an independent power supply: The Emergency Power Supply Units (EPSUs). A battery pack supplies the emergency slide lights.
73
How many EPSU?
There are 8 Emergency Power Supply Units (EPSUs): One for each door.
74
How long do EPSUs maintain power if aircraft supply not available?
The internal battery pack of the EPSU automatically takes over the power supply of the cabin emergency lights for at least 10 min.
75
Emergency Exit lights in ARM position.
The cabin emergency lights (except the emergency slide lights) are on if the aircraft is no more electrically powered.
76
What target is BTV aiming for on a dry or wet runway?
Ground speed is approximately 10 kt, approximately 60 m (200 ft) before the selected exit.
77
If you are at a position of 32S, engines running, how long to do full IRS alignment?
The alignment during engine start or while engines are running is possible. A complete alignment lasts between 5 and 17 min, depending on the aircraft latitude: From graph - 6 mins
78
How do you do a full IR reset?
To perform a new complete alignment with the IR already ON, the flight crew must perform the following actions, in the following sequence: To turn off the IR, the flight crew must set the IR mode selector to OFF for more than 5 s. Then set the IR mode selector to NAV.
79
Which of the following is prioritised by the ADIRU when working out position?
The aircraft position function of each ADIRU provides the aircraft systems with the most accurate position that is available, using the following priority: The consolidated GPIRS position
80
Where and what is the ISIS?
INTEGRATED STANDBY INSTRUMENT SYSTEM (ISIS) There are two ISIS, one displays a SFD and one displays a SND . Each ISIS can operate in any mode. However, one SFD is always displayed. They are on both sides of the main instrument panel.
81
When does the RAD ALT become live?
The RAs operate below 5 500 ft AGL.
82
How long does PAX OXY last?
The fixed oxygen system for the cabin provides oxygen to the cabin (passengers and cabin crew), and to the crew rest compartments for a minimum of 45 min.
83
When is X-bleed Valve shut in auto?
Normally closed. Open at eng start, on ground when both eng & APU off, on ground when ground source used. When APU bleed valve selected open, in case any engine bleed air system is closed, in case any pack is declared inop.
84
HP Bleed Valve on SD page?
At low engine thrust air is bled from the HP compressor, through the HP valve. Green Inline=The HP valve is open.
85
How many waste tanks are installed?
The toilet waste is stored in two storage tanks.
86
What is true about D-ATIS?
The flight crew can receive ATIS reports: Manually, when they click on the SEND REQUEST button of the D-ATIS/LIST page The flight crew then clicks on the UPDATE button to manually update the ATIS information. Automatically, when they select the AUTO UPDATE option on the D-ATIS/LIST page.
87
Which doors are monitored, but not shown on the doors SD page?
The Doors and Slides Control System (DSCS) main functions of the DSCS are to: -Monitor and display on the DOOR/OXYGEN SD page the status of: The passenger doors, The escape slides, The cargo doors, The cockpit escape hatch, The external access door to the forward avionics bay. -Monitor the status of the two internal access doors to the forward and aft avionics bays.
88
CABIN PRESSURE WARNING LIGHT?
Flashes red, when: the aircraft is on ground, the related slide is disarmed, the differential cabin pressure is above 0.036 PSI, both engines are OFF.
89
If the Cockpit Door Locking System fails, what happens?
The CDLS electrically locks and unlocks the cockpit door. If the CDLS fails, the door unlocks but remains closed.
90
Cockpit door toggle switch?
CKPT DOOR SW Unlocks the door, as long as the flight crew maintains the UNLOCK position. When the flight crew releases the switch, it goes back to the NORM position.
91
Bulk Cargo Door?
The bulk cargo door is on the left hand side of the aircraft. The ground crew can manually open or close the bulk cargo door with one of the door handles that are in the interior and on the exterior of the aircraft.
92
What hydraulic systems are used to close and lock the cargo doors?
Both the forward and aft cargo doors open outward and upward. They are mechanically locked, and hydraulically operated by the yellow hydraulic system.
93
When is the FADEC powered?
The accessory gearbox operates the FADEC alternator to supply the FADEC when N3 is above 8 %. On ground, with the ENG MASTER lever set to OFF, the electrical network of the aircraft supplies the FADEC for 15 min. When the flight crew sets the ENG FADEC GND PWR pb to ON, the electrical network of the aircraft supplies the FADEC for 15 min.
94
Is reverse thrust electrically or hydraulically engaged?
The Electric Thrust Reverser Actuation System (ETRAS) operates and locks the translating cowls.
95
How does FADEC work on manual engine start?
During a manual start, the FADEC uses both igniters when the flight crew sets the ENG MASTER lever to ON.The FADEC automatically stops the ignition at the end of the start sequence, when N3 reaches approximately 50 %.
96
During the start sequence, what closes the start valve?
When N3 reaches 48 %, the FADEC closes the engine start valve (in Flight: if the FADEC previously opened it)
97
Earliest autopilot engagement
The autopilot can be used with the following minimum values: At takeoff- At least 5 s after lift-off
98
Autoland Crosswind limit
Maximum crosswind: 30 kt
99
Tailwind Limit for take-off and landing?
15 KT
100
What is VLE?
Maximum speed with the landing gear extended (VLE/MLE): 250 kt ( Same for all gear speeds)
101
Wiper Speed Limit?
230 KT
102
Max altitude APU Bleed to assist engine start APU?
Max altitude to assist engine start - 25 000 ft
103
At what altitudes can the APU provide electrical power
The electric generator of the APU can operate in the entire flight envelope.
104
What is the maximum altitude with 2 packs for the APU bleed?
Dual pack operating ceiling 22,5000 (single pack 25000)
105
APU Max EGT when running?
Maximum EGT for APU running: 680 °C
106
What are engine starter cycle limitations?
Maximum continuous starter operation is 5 min: -Two consecutive cycles of 3 min maximum, plus one additional cycle of 1 min, with a run down to zero N3 and wait 30 s between each cycle, or -One 5 min cycle. Wait 30 min after the last cycle to allow the starter to cool.
107
Which EXT electric should be powered on first, EXT1 or EXT2?
In order to avoid electrical reconfigurations: When two electrical powers are available, connect EXT PWR 2 before EXT PWR 1.
108
Which position for Nav Light Switch?
Set to NAV 1 the NAV sw, as required, to turn on the navigation lights (NAV LT 2 is used only when NAV LT 1 fails).

A350 (1 decks)

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