AAAAAAAAAAh Flashcards

AAAAAAAAAAAh (94 cards)

1
Q

What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?

A

Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord, while the PNS consists of the nerves outside the CNS.

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2
Q

Name the types of glial cells.

A
  • Schwann cells
  • Oligodendrocytes
  • Microglial cells
  • Astrocytes

These cells support and protect neurons in the nervous system.

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3
Q

What are the main components of a neuron?

A
  • Cell body
  • Axon
  • Dendrites
  • Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  • Synapse

Neurons are specialized cells that transmit nerve impulses.

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4
Q

What is the marker for excitatory synapses?

A

vGLUT1

This marker is used to identify excitatory synapses in the nervous system.

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5
Q

What is the marker for inhibitory synapses?

A

GAD65

This marker is indicative of inhibitory synaptic activity.

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6
Q

What is double staining used for?

A

To detect antibodies

Primary antibodies must be from different animals, and secondary antibodies must be different colors.

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7
Q

List the phases of the cell cycle.

A
  • Interphase
  • Mitotic phase

Interphase includes G1, S, and G2 phases.

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8
Q

What are stem cells?

A
  • Unspecialized
  • Renew themselves
  • Differentiate into more specialized cells

Stem cells have the unique ability to develop into various cell types.

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9
Q

What are radial glial cells?

A

Neuronal stem cells during development

They can differentiate into neurons, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells.

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10
Q

What does adult neurogenesis refer to?

A

The generation of new neurons in adult brains

In rodents, it occurs in the subependymal zone (SEZ/SVZ) and the subgranular zone (SGZ).

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11
Q

What does calcium imaging measure?

A

Intracellular concentration of calcium ions

This measurement correlates well with neuron activity.

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12
Q

What is Fura-2?

A

A chemical calcium indicator

It has calcium chelating and folate sites.

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13
Q

What does GECI stand for?

A

Genetically Encoded Calcium Indicators

These are fluorescent proteins that fuse with calmodulin.

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14
Q

What are optogenetic tools?

A
  • Channelrhodopsin
  • Halorhodopsin

These tools are used to manipulate neuronal activity with light.

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15
Q

What is the difference between sufficiency and necessity in optogenetics?

A
  • Sufficiency: Use channel to activate neuron
  • Necessity: Use halo to inactivate neuron

This distinction helps to determine the role of specific neurons in behavior.

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16
Q

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

A

DNA -> RNA -> Protein

This describes the flow of genetic information within a biological system.

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17
Q

What is a nucleotide composed of?

A
  • Sugar
  • Base

Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids.

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18
Q

What is the structure of DNA?

A

Double-stranded and linked by phosphodiester bonds

DNA sequences are written from 5’ to 3’.

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19
Q

What are histones?

A

Basic proteins that package DNA into nucleosomes

Histones play a crucial role in the organization of chromatin.

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20
Q

What is the difference between DNA and mRNA?

A
  • DNA: Double-stranded, deoxyribose sugar, thymine
  • mRNA: Single-stranded, ribose sugar, uracil

mRNA is synthesized from DNA during transcription.

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21
Q

What are mRNA modifications?

A
  • 5’ cap
  • 3’ poly-A tail
  • RNA splicing

These modifications are important for mRNA stability and translation.

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22
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

Stable, heritable alterations in gene expression without changes to DNA sequence

It involves mechanisms like histone modification and DNA methylation.

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23
Q

What is histone methylation?

A

Modification of histones that can activate or repress transcription

This process is dependent on histone acetyltransferases (HAT) and histone deacetylases (HDAC).

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24
Q

What are euchromatin and heterochromatin?

A
  • Euchromatin: Active form of chromatin
  • Heterochromatin: Inactive form of chromatin

The distinction is based on their transcriptional activity.

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25
What is the function of cFOS?
An immediate early gene involved in neuronal activity transcriptional regulation ## Footnote It is often used as a marker for neural activity.
26
What is the role of CREB?
A transcription factor key in plasticity and memory formation ## Footnote CREB binds to cAMP response elements (CRE) and is activated by phosphorylation.
27
What are the components of a protein?
* Amino group * Carboxyl group * R chain ## Footnote Proteins are made of polypeptides composed of amino acids.
28
What is the structure of microtubules?
Composed of 13 polymers of alpha-tubulin and beta-tubulin ## Footnote Microtubules are critical for maintaining cell shape and intracellular transport.
29
What is the role of tau protein?
Stabilizes microtubules in axons ## Footnote Abnormal tau aggregation is linked to neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer's.
30
What is the function of kinesins?
Motor proteins that transport cargo along microtubules from - to + ## Footnote They are involved in anterograde axonal transport.
31
What is the function of dyneins?
Motor proteins that transport cargo along microtubules from + to - ## Footnote They are involved in retrograde axonal transport.
32
What is treadmilling?
A phenomenon where one end of a microfilament grows while the other end shrinks ## Footnote This process maintains a constant length of the filament.
33
What is cotranslational translocation?
Insertion of proteins into the ER as they are being synthesized ## Footnote This process involves the signal recognition particle (SRP).
34
What are the functions of the Golgi apparatus?
* Post-translational modification * Protein sorting ## Footnote The Golgi apparatus processes and packages proteins for secretion or delivery to other organelles.
35
What is the orientation of lipids and proteins during synthesis in the ER?
The same side of the membrane always faces the cytoplasm. ## Footnote The other side initially faces the lumen of the ER and is only exposed on the cell surface if the vesicle fuses.
36
What are the two faces of the Golgi apparatus?
* Cis face: Rough ER * Trans face: Plasma membrane
37
What is one of the main functions of the Golgi apparatus?
Synthesize carbohydrate/sugar chains in preparation for their biological functions at the cell surface.
38
What is the role of mannose-6 phosphate receptors in the Golgi apparatus?
Diverts tagged hydrolases to endosomes and lysosomes.
39
What is the pH maintained in lysosomes?
Low pH of 4-5 is maintained by ATPase proton pump.
40
What is the difference between phagocytosis and endocytosis?
* Phagocytosis: Extracellular organisms * Endocytosis: Macromolecules
41
What are the components of the ubiquitin-proteasome system?
* E1: Ubiquitin-activating enzyme (ATP dependent) * E2: Ubi-conjugating enzyme * E3: Ubiquitin-protein ligase
42
What does Lys48 ubiquitination lead to?
Degradation of the substrate by the 26S proteasome.
43
What are the four essential steps of vesicle transport?
* Step 1: Budding * Step 2: Movement/Diffusion * Step 3: Tethering * Step 4: Fusion
44
What are coat proteins responsible for during vesicle transport?
Induce the formation of a vesicle and bind cargos and SNARES.
45
What is the role of Rab GTPase in vesicle transport?
Active Rab binds to GTP; inactive Rab binds to GDP.
46
What is the primary function of synaptic vesicles?
Hold neurotransmitters (NTs).
47
What is the process of docking in neurotransmitter release?
Docking is the process where synaptic vesicles attach to the presynaptic membrane.
48
What are the steps involved in the synthesis of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation?
* Step 1: Glycolysis * Step 2: Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA * Step 3: Kreb Cycle * Step 4: Respiratory electron transport chain
49
What is the main product of glycolysis?
2 pyruvates, 2 ATP, and 2 NADH.
50
What are reactive oxygen species (ROS)?
Free radical and non-free radical oxygen intermediates.
51
What is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?
* Apoptosis: Planned cell death * Necrosis: Unexpected cell death leading to inflammation.
52
What is phagocytosis?
Ingestion of large particles such as bacteria and dead cell remnants.
53
What is the function of gap junctions?
Act as channels between cells for direct chemical communication.
54
What are the two main functions of tight junctions?
* Gate: Permeability barrier * Fence: Restricts intermixing of plasma membrane domains.
55
What are astrocytes and their main functions?
Glial cells that wrap around blood vessels and ensheathe synapses, involved in neurotransmitter modulation.
56
What is angiogenesis?
Formation of new blood vessels from pre-existing endothelial cells.
57
What triggers astrogliosis?
Abnormal increase in the number of astrocytes due to neuronal destruction.
58
What neurotransmitter is taken up by EAAT in astrocytes?
Glutamate.
59
What is the role of PDGF in pericyte recruitment?
PDGF from endothelial cells is sent and received by pericytes for BBB stabilization ## Footnote PDGF stands for Platelet-Derived Growth Factor, which plays a crucial role in blood vessel development and stabilization.
60
What is a tripartite synapse?
A synapse consisting of a presynaptic neuron, postsynaptic neuron, and an astrocyte ## Footnote Tripartite synapses allow for modulation of neurotransmitter release by astrocytes.
61
What is the function of EAAT in relation to glutamate?
EAAT takes up glutamate and either processes it through the TCA cycle or converts it into glutamine via glutamine synthetase ## Footnote EAAT stands for Excitatory Amino Acid Transporter.
62
What is potassium spatial buffering?
A process that removes K+ from the extracellular space using KIR channels ## Footnote KIR channels are potassium inward rectifier channels that help maintain potassium homeostasis.
63
Why is the rapid removal of neurotransmitters and ions important?
To prevent interference with future synaptic activity and to regulate neuronal excitability ## Footnote This process is crucial for maintaining the proper function of synaptic transmission.
64
What is the astrocyte-neuron lactate shuttle?
A mechanism where lactate released by astrocytes from glycolysis serves as a metabolic substrate for neurons ## Footnote This process underscores the metabolic cooperation between astrocytes and neurons.
65
What defines the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
The unique properties of the microvasculature of the CNS that regulate movement of molecules, ions, and cells ## Footnote The BBB is formed by a neurovascular unit including endothelial cells, neurons, and astrocytes.
66
What are tight junctions in CNS endothelial cells?
Structures that limit paracellular flux and restrict the passage of small water-soluble agents ## Footnote Tight junctions are crucial for maintaining the integrity of the BBB.
67
What is the role of microglia in the CNS?
They act as tissue macrophages, providing immune defense and clearing foreign objects ## Footnote Microglia constitute 7-10% of cells in the CNS and are derived from primitive hematopoiesis.
68
What is synaptic pruning?
A natural process where the brain eliminates extra or weak synapses, occurring during early childhood and adulthood ## Footnote Insufficient or excessive pruning can lead to neurodevelopmental disorders.
69
What is the significance of astrocytes in synaptic pruning?
Astrocytes identify weak synapses and send signals for microglia to initiate phagocytosis ## Footnote The process involves C3 and C3b molecules binding to microglia to trigger their activation.
70
What are the proposed solutions to increase the conduction velocity of action potentials?
Enlarging axon diameters and myelination ## Footnote Larger diameters reduce internal resistance, while myelin insulates axons and enhances current flow.
71
What is the composition of myelin sheath?
40% water, 70-85% lipids, and various proteins including myelin basic protein (MBP) ## Footnote Myelin is crucial for efficient electrical conduction in axons.
72
What distinguishes electrical synapses from chemical synapses?
Electrical synapses transmit signals rapidly and bidirectionally, while chemical synapses involve neurotransmitter release and are slower ## Footnote Electrical synapses occur at gap junctions, whereas chemical synapses involve a sequence of events including receptor binding.
73
What are the two main types of neurotransmitter receptors?
Ionotropic and metabotropic receptors ## Footnote Ionotropic receptors directly control ion channels, while metabotropic receptors activate intracellular signaling pathways.
74
What is the function of agonists and antagonists in pharmacology?
Agonists bind to receptors and activate them, while antagonists bind and inhibit their function ## Footnote These compounds are used in research and therapeutic strategies.
75
What is the role of protein kinases in cellular signaling?
They phosphorylate proteins, rapidly changing their function ## Footnote Nearly 3% of the genome is dedicated to controlling the phosphorylation state of proteins.
76
Describe the glutamate-glutamine cycle.
Glutamate is released, taken into postsynaptic receptors, reuptaken into EAAT, converted to glutamine, and then transported back to neurons ## Footnote This cycle is crucial for recycling neurotransmitters in the CNS.
77
What distinguishes AMPA receptors from NMDA receptors?
AMPA receptors require only glutamate for activation, while NMDA receptors also require glycine and depolarization ## Footnote NMDA receptors are involved in synaptic plasticity and memory functions.
78
What are the three subgroups of G protein-coupled receptors?
Group I = Gq, Group ⅔ = Gi ## Footnote Group I consists of Gq which represents 1/5 of the subgroups while Group ⅔ encompasses Gi which includes everything else.
79
What type of receptors are most central excitatory synapses composed of?
Excitatory AMPA and NMDA receptors ## Footnote AMPA receptors mediate stronger EPSCs, while NMDA receptors produce longer and slower EPSCs.
80
Which neurotransmitter is used by half of the inhibitory synapses in the spinal cord?
Glycine ## Footnote Most other synapses utilize GABA.
81
What type of receptor is GABA_A?
Ionotropic ## Footnote GABA_A receptors are subject to allosteric regulation.
82
What substances can bind to GABA_A receptors to potentiate GABA binding?
* Benzodiazepines * Steroids * Barbiturates ## Footnote These substances enhance the effect of GABA at the GABA_A receptor.
83
What type of receptor is GABA_B?
Metabotropic ## Footnote GABA_B receptors can act as autoreceptors to inhibit release and postsynaptically induce slow hyperpolarization.
84
What are P2X receptors?
Ionotropic receptors with 3 subunits and 2 transmembrane domains ## Footnote They are involved in gustation, mechanosensation, and pain.
85
What is the function of adenosine receptors A1 and A2A?
A1 is Gi, A2A is Gs ## Footnote Both types are found throughout the brain and peripheral tissues.
86
True or False: Serotonin crosses the blood-brain barrier.
False ## Footnote However, tryptophan can cross the BBB.
87
What is the precursor to serotonin?
Tryptophan ## Footnote Tryptophan is converted to serotonin through several enzymatic steps.
88
What is the role of the 5HT3 receptor?
Ionotropic ## Footnote It is involved in various functions including circadian rhythms and emotional states.
89
What is the primary location of dopamine in the brain?
Corpus striatum ## Footnote The substantia nigra contains most of the dopamine receptors.
90
What are the two types of dopamine receptors?
* D1-like (D1 and D5) * D2-like (D2, D3, D4) ## Footnote D1-like receptors are associated with Ga signaling, while D2-like receptors are linked to Gi/O signaling.
91
What neurotransmitter is norepinephrine also known as?
Noradrenaline ## Footnote It influences sleep wakefulness, arousal, and eating behavior.
92
What are the three families of adrenergic receptors?
* a1 * a2 * B ## Footnote Each family has subclasses with distinct signaling properties.
93
What is the primary function of ATP in the nervous system?
It is a signaling molecule ## Footnote ATP cannot be stored and plays a critical role in neurotransmission.
94
What are neuron peptides derived from?
Proprotein precursors ## Footnote They are released from synapses in response to various signals and signal through GPCRs.