AAB/Jarr imm/sero Flashcards
(521 cards)
1
Q
Person makes ab, immunized/infection, memory
ie. rubella immunization
A
active immunity
2
Q
ab transferred to, no memory
ie. neonatal syphilitic IgG ab titer
A
passive immunity
3
Q
1st line, immediate
nonspecific, no memory
skin,acid,PMNs, NK
A
Natural, innate
4
Q
Takes time
specific, memory
T/B cells (cytokines,ab)
A
Adaptive, acquired,anamnastic
5
Q
Two parts to adaptive, acquired immunity
A
cellular, humoral
6
Q
Kind of immunity…
viral,fungal, intracellular
tcell/lymphokines
type 4 delayed
A
cellular
7
Q
type of immunity
bacteria,phagocytosis,extracellular
type 1(immediate)
type 2(ADCC,complement)
type 3 immune complex
A
humoral
8
Q
4 things that make antigens more immunogenic
A
large
complex
protein/polysaccharide
foreign
9
Q
4 subclasses of IgG
A
IgG 1,2,3,4
10
Q
Immunoglobulin with highest concentration
A
IgG
11
Q
Concen immunoglobulins high to low
A
G, A, M-D, E
12
Q
Largest antibody
A
IgM
13
Q
Pentamer, Jchain, fixes complement the best,
1st to appear in neonates
A
igM
14
Q
Immunoglobulin on mature cells
A
IgD
15
Q
Immunoglobulin type 1 hypersensitivity, histamines
A
IgE
16
Q
Monoclonal ab made by
A
immunizing mouse
combining spleen cells w/myeloma cells
17
Q
Hybridoma
A
plasma cell fused w/myeloma cells,
make monoclonal abs
18
Q
Most circulating lymphoid cells are… and are…%
A
Tcells, 80%
19
Q
5 T cell surface markers
A
CD…2,3,4, 8,25
20
Q
CD4 surface markers are…
and release…
A
T helper, cytokines
21
Q
CD3 surface markers are
A
associated w/TCR
22
Q
CD2 surface markers
A
rosette w/SRBCs
23
Q
2 Tcell surface markers that are regulatory cells that suppress immune response
A
CD4,25
24
Q
CD8 is
A
cytotoxic
25
3 surface markers on B cells
CD 19,20,21
26
2 markers for NK cells
CD 16,56
27
cells that nonspecifically kill virus infected and tumor cells
NK
28
Normal T:B cell ratio
8:1
29
Normal T helper:Tcyto ratio
2:1
30
AIDs T helper:Tcyto
1:2
31
which pathway initiated by immune complexes (IgG/IgM)
classical
32
What consists of 21 proteins that controls inflammation, activates phagocytosis, opsonizes
Enhances ability of antibody, phagocytic cells to clear microbes/damaged cells, promotes inflammation and attack pathogen cell membrane
complement
33
In complement what is the major chemotatic agent
C5a
34
classical complement proteins and order of binding
C: 1,4,2,3
35
Most abundant complement protein in both pathways
C3
36
Alternative complement is activated by
lipopolysaccharides, polysaccharides
Pathogen surface
37
Proteins involved in alternative pathway
C3
Factors B/D, H/I
Properdin
38
complement proteins of MAC
C56789
39
Name of soluble ag+ab forms lattice and visibe precipitate forms
precipitation
40
Double diffusion(ouchterlony),
Single diffusion (radial),
Immunoelectrophoresis,
Immunofixation
All are what kinds of rxns
precipitation
41
antigen excess is called
postzone
42
antibody excess is called
prozone
43
IgE mediated, histamine, mast cell activation
(Bee sting,hay fever,asthma) all are what type of hypersensitivity rxns
Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate
44
Complement mediated cytolysis initiated by ag-ab
Transfusion rxn,AIHA, Hashimoto, Goodpasture all are what type of hypersensitivity rxn
Type 2, ab-dependent cytotoxicity
45
IgG at soluble ag, immune complexes damage tissue
RA, SLE, serum sickness all are what type hypersensitivity
Type 3 immunie complex
46
Type 2 is
antibody dependent
47
Type 1 is
anaphylatic, immediate
48
Type 3 is
immune complex
49
Type 4 is
delayed
50
Ag specific Tcell:
TB skin tests, contact dermatitis, poison ivy, GVHD all are what type of hypersensitivity
Type 4 delayed
51
Two skin tests for allergy
RIST,RAST
52
What test for IgE
ELISA
53
Eos/IgE in what type of hypersensitivity
Type 1, anaphylatic, immediate
54
natural active immunity seen in
infection
55
natural passive immunity seen in
maternal ab
56
2 primary lymphoid organs
thymus
bone marrow
57
What type of immunity with skin,mucous,BF
natural
58
what kind of immunity with vaccines
specific immunity
artificial active
59
adaptive immunity w/ab is called
humoral immunity
60
immunity inside infected cells
cell mediated
61
Plasma protein that activates complement system of innate not involving antibodies, alternate
properdin
62
enzyme that catalyzes destruction of cell walls of bacteria
lysozyme
63
signal protein release by cells due to virus
interferon
64
Subtance that stimulates cell locomotion/migration
chemotactic factor
65
Cell that kills tumor cells nonspecifically
NK
66
Have receptors that are specific for a tumor/microbe
cytotoxic cells
67
Combines to larger carriers to elicit immune response but doesn't elicit on its own
hapten
68
Enhances immune response
adjuvant
69
molecule that can elicit an immune response
immunogen
70
3 secondary lymphoid organs
spleen,tonsils,lymph nodes
71
Which 2nd lymph organs respond to antigens by making lymphocytes and plasma cells
lymph nodes contain WBCS
spleen makes WBCs,ab
72
cell that specifically kills tumor cells/virally infected
needs exposure
T cytotoxic
73
cell nonspecifically kills tumor
innate/no need exposure
NK
74
Phagocytosis is main function of what cell
PMNs
75
Genes that control expresson of HLA antigens are called
MHC
major histocompatibility complex
76
3 Class I gene products
HLA
A,B,C
77
5 Class II gene products
present antigen outside of the cell of T lymphs
HLA
D-M,O,P,Q,R
78
Ab increases during convalescence phase(symptoms disappear, return to normal)
IgG
79
Ig...best precipitin
soluble ag/specific ab
IgG
80
Ig..best agglutinin
IgM
81
has 4 subclasses
IgG
82
Ig...dimer
IgA
83
2 Ig...monomer
IgG, E
84
Ig...pentamer
IgM
85
2 Ig have Jchain
IgM, A
86
complement are heat...
labile
87
complement acts as an...
and end result of complement is...
opsonin
cell lysis
88
Which ab bind complement
IgG/M
89
First component to bind to immunoglobulin in recognition phase of complement
can bind bacteria,ab,CRP
C1q
90
Proteases of complement that don't bind/aren't active
Clr/s
91
Complement component that is chemotactic and anaphylatoxic
Mediator of inflammation and
is released to recruit phagocytes
C5a
92
Factor B,D and properdin is in what pathway
alternate
93
IgG ab binds/attaches to rbc and is reversible is called
sensitization
94
clumping ag w/ab after sensitization is called
agglutination (IgM best)
95
Antigen in agglutination inhibition is...
which is bound to
Pt serum
ab reagent
96
Positive test for aggulutination inhibition
no aggglutionation
PT has antigen(in serum) and reagent ab is bound to serum/antigen so it can't react with indicator
97
Negative test for agglutination inhibition
agglutination
PT doesn't have antigen in serum, and reagent ab isn't bound thus reacting w/indicator
98
Two examples of agglutionation inhibition tests
hemaggutination inhibition (rubella)
latex agglutination inhibition (viruses)
99
complement fixation positive test is
no hemolysis
no C available, complement is fixed, not available to combine w/indicator (SRBC coated w/antiSRBC)
100
when complement finds/attaches to antibody-antigen complex
complement fixation
101
complement fixation negative test
hemolysis:
no antibody in serum and complement not bound, attaches to indicator/SRBC+antiSRBC and lyse
102
What type of rxn/test is ab-ag combined in presence of complement to see if hemolysis occurs
detects IgM ab w/sheep RBC/antiSRBC/hemolysin
complement fixation (CF)
103
...quantitatively determines the level of an antigen. Antibody is incorporated into liquefied agar and allowed to gel. The antigen is added to small wells and radiates throughout the antibody-containing medium, leaving a precipitate throughout the gel. The amount of diffusion is quantified.
radial immunodiffusion (RID)
OR
single immunodiffusion
104
single immunodiffusion also called
radial immunodiffusion (RID)
105
Rxn where diffusion occurs and a ring of precipitate forms on an agar plate with ab where serum/standards are added
Radial immunodiffusion(RID)
Single immunodiffusion
106
... ... is an agar gel immunodiffusion.
It is a special precipitation reaction on gels where antibodies react with specific antigens forming large antigen-antibody complexes which can be observed as a line of the precipitate.
In...both the antibody and antigen are allowed to diffuse into the gel.
After application of the reactants in their respective compartments, the antigen and the antibody diffuse toward each other in the common gel and a precipitate is formed at the place of equivalence.
Double Immuno-diffusion
107
Another name for double diffusion
Ouchterlony
108
Test used to determine relationship between ag-ab
Ab is added around ab well and diffussion occurs with precipitation bands
Concentration and rate of diffusion dictates location of bands
Used to id ab w/autoimmune disorders
double diffusion/ouchterlony
109
Double diffusion pattern that fuse together is
identity
110
double diffusion pattern that intersect are
nonidentity
111
double diffusion patterns that parially intersect are
partial identity
112
Test where ab-ag diffuse thru agar after serum proteins are electrophoresed on agar
immuno-electrophoresis (IEP)
113
Serum IEP can detect
monoclonal gammopathies
114
urine IEP can dectect
Bence Jones protein or free light chains
115
In this method the sample goes through a complex process called electrophoresis. This process singles out the different proteins in your blood. A dye is used to bind to the proteins and stain them.
This method "fixes" certain proteins into place with antibodies and then washes away the others before staining them. On a computer screen, these proteins form a pattern of bands. Peaks and valleys in the bands may mean that you may be making too many or too few of certain proteins. The band pattern is specific for certain diseases.
Immunofixation
116
protein electrophoresis plus immuno-precipitation is called
immunofixation
117
Immunofixation is used to classify
monoclonal gammoopathies/determine heavy and light chains
118
name of test where ab-ag migrate toward each other and forms precipitate
rapid migration of the antibody and antigen out of their respective wells towards one another to form a line of precipitation
countercurrent
immunoelectrophoresis
CIE
119
Two examples of RIA, radioimmunoassay
RIST:
radio-immunosorbent test
RAST: radioallergosorbent test
120
Which RIA measures total IgE
RIST
radio-immunosorbent test
121
which RIA measures IgE to specific allergens
RAST
radio-allergosorbent test
122
Which test is a sanwhich tecnique with ab on solid
PT serum added
enzyme labeled ab
enzyme substrate
EIA/ELISA
enzyme immunoassay
123
HIV/Serum HcG/hepatitis mreausred by
EIA/ELISA
124
EMIT measures
enzyme multiplied immunoassay
small molecules like drugs, hormones
The enzyme multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT) is one of the more common drug screening platforms.
125
Positive EMIT is
color
A change in absorbance is measured at 340 nm by a spectrometer
In this enzyme immunoassay (EIA), NAD is reduced to NADH when it reacts with the enzyme G6PD.
126
Negative EMIT is
no color
127
Test where insoluble complexes reflects scattered light
nephleometry
128
FTA-ABS STANDS FOR...
TESTS FOR...TO...
FTA-ABS
Fluorescent
Treponemal
Antibody
ABS: absorption
presence of antibodies to Treponema pallidum
129
Type of immunohistochemistry technique that utilizes fluorophores to visualize various cellular antigens such as proteins.
Immunofluorescence (IF)
130
ANA and FTA-Abs can be tested with
immuno-fluorescence
fluorescein labeled ab
131
Positive FPIA
reduction of polarized light
Inverse proportion, light hits analyze and is not polarized anymore
132
negative FPIA
increased polarized light
Inverse proportion, light still polarized
133
FP-IA stands for
Fluorescence polarization immunoassay
134
Time frame to test for infectious disease
acute and convalescent specimens 2weeks apart
135
Clinically sig titer for infectious disease is
4-fold or 2 tube rise
136
Ability of test to detect very small amount of a substancwe
sensitivity
137
ability of test to give positive result if PT has the disease-less false neg
sensitivity
138
ability of test to detect substance without interference from cross reacting substances
specificity
139
ability of test to give neg result if PT does not have disease-less false pos
speficity
140
Name of principle where if person has ab to virus, the virus on the RBCs added will be neutralized and inhibit agglutination
hemaaglutination inhibition
Ag are on rbcs
141
a substance in the blood of persons with syphilis responsible for positive serological reactions for syphilis
an antibody (such as IgE in humans) that mediates hypersensitive allergic reactions of rapid onset
reagin
142
fusing B lymphs w/a plasma myeloma cell is how you make
monoclonal ab
143
binding strength of single site
single antigenic determinent + individual ab
affinity
144
total binding strength, multivalent ag-b
avidity
145
reproducible technique for quantitation of a single protein, and is also applicable in a protein mixture.
The quantitation is based on measuring the height of the precipitate peak.
one dimensional
single electroimmuno-diffusion
146
one dimensional
single electroimmunodiffusion also called
rocket electrophoresis
LAUREL
In rocket immunoelectrophoresis, antigen migrates in an electric field in a layer of agarose containing an appropriate antibody.
147
fluorochrome that gives minimal false reading and is green
fuorescein
(isothiocyanate)
148
fluorochrome gives off red at 580nm
tetra-methyl
rhodamine isothicyanate
149
...tests are an indirect method in that they detect biomarkers that are released during cellular damage that occurs from the syphilis spirochete.
They are screening tests, very rapid and relatively simple, but need to be confirmed with...
Nontreponemal
confirm with treponemal tests
150
....tests look for Syphillis antibodies that are a direct result of the infection thus, IgG, IgM and to a lesser degree IgA.
Treponemal
151
The nontreponemal antigen in syphilis is
cardiolipin
152
The VDRL antigens are
cardiolipin and lecithin
153
Nontreponemal antibody
reagin
154
...is a fundamental process utilized to facilitate the aggregation of small particles in a liquid or solution to form larger clusters, known as flocs.
Flocculation
155
VDRL
venereal disease research laboratory
156
Ab-ag rxn in VDRL test is what type
flocculation
The VDRL test doesn’t look for the bacteria that cause syphilis. Instead, it checks for the antibodies (reagins) your body makes in response to antigens produced by cells damaged by the bacteria.
157
Which requires heat inactivation, VDRL or RPR
VDRL
158
In VDRL, each serum sample must be heat-inactivated for...minutes at ...prior to testing.
If heat-inactivation occurs more than four (4) hours prior to testing, reheat the serum for an additional ...minutes at...
Heat inactivate for 30 min at 56C
If >4hrs, reheat 10min at 56C
159
antigens for RPR
cardiolipin + charcoal
The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test uses the same antigen as VDRL, but the antigen is bound to a carbon particle to allow visualization of the reaction without a microscope.
160
reactive RPR forms
black clumps
161
two nontreponemal tests/reagin tests
VDRL/RPR
162
Reiter strain serves as a ....
in FTA-ABS
Fluorescent
Treponemal
Antibody
ABS: absorption
absorbent, removes nonspecific ab
163
In FTA-ABS, what strain is used with serum after absorbed off
Nichols
FTA-ABS test system employs nonviable T. pallidum (Nichols strain) cells as a substrate (antigen).
164
Name of test
1.)Absorb ab, Reiter
2.)Add Nichols as a substrate to serum
3.)label, fluorescein
FTA
fluorescent treponemal ab absorption
165
most sensitive tests for syphillis
FTS-ABS and EIisa
166
MHA-TP...
Detects...
Microhemagglutination-
Treponema pallidum
detects antibodies
167
Less likely to be reactive in primary,secondary syphillis in which test
MHA-TP
Micro agglutination
168
Test name that detects treponemal ab
remove nonspecific ab w/sorbent, react serum w/Nichols strain of pallidium, add fluorecein label
FTA-ABs
fluorescent treponemal ab absorptoin test
169
Test you add live treponemes to PT serum
TPI
treponema pallidium immobilization test
170
positive TPI
treponemes immobilized
171
MHA-TP used to detect
ab to T.pallidium
172
in MHA TP what is PT serum added to
SRBCs sensitized w/T.pallidum
173
positive MHA TP
agglutination, ab
174
TP-PA
Treponema pallidum particle agglutination
Used to confirm and
uses what kind of particles
gellatin
175
Which microflocculation test is screen for CSF syphillis
VDRL
176
Whici microflocculation test for syphillis does not require heat
RPR
177
Virus that causes infectious mononucleosis
EBV
epstein barr virus
178
What does the screen for EBV test for
heterophile ab
179
What is a positive rxn for EBV using the screening rapid diff slide test
greater agg in kidney absorbed cells
180
What are the indicator cells for the EBV screen rapid diff slide test
Sheep, RBCs
181
What is the confirmation test for EBV
Tests for ab such as ELISA, CLIA
182
In chemiluminescent immunoassay test/CL-IA to confirm EBV, what stage of infection is it when there is a presesnce of IgG/IgM + anti-VCA in absense of anti-EBNA
current or recent
183
anti-VCA IgM/IgG
anti-EA
anti-EBNA all are antibodies to what virus
EBV
184
Anti-EBNA and IgG anti-VCA w/out IgM anti-VCA indicate what stage of infection of EBV
past
185
Name 5 streptococal ag
streptolysin, streptokinase
DNase: deoxyribo-nuclease B
NADase
Hyaluronidase
186
Streptozyme test:
Kind of rxn..
tests for...
reagent used..
A two-minute slide
hemagglutination test
tests for all strep abs
SRBC w/5bstrep ag
187
Name of specific neutralizaton test for antibody made in group A strep infection
Strep enzyme that is neutralized by PT serum/ab
Anti-DNase B test
188
What is a positve rxn in the anti-DNase B test
green color
If anti DNase present it will neutralize the reagent and green color won't change to clear
189
Test name where strep abs prevent the lysing of group O rbcs by neutralizing
Ab will bind ag and keep it from lysing
Anti-streptolysin O neutralization test
190
What indicates presence neutralizing ab in the anti-strepolysin O neutralizing test
Dilution of last tube shows no hemolysis
Ab will bind ag and keep it from lysing
191
Name of reciprocal of dilution of last tube in anti-streptolysin O neutralization test
Todd units
192
What is used to screen for HIV-1 ab
ELISA
193
2 ways to Confirmation for HIV
Western blot
Nucleic acid testing
194
Name of retrovirus that attackes CD4 cells
HIV-1
195
Cause of CMV
herpes virus
196
Testing for CMV
ELISA
197
HepB serology involved in acute phase
HBsAg, HBeAg
198
Hep B serology involved in early recovery
anti-HBc IgM
199
Hep B serology involved in recovery, immunity
anti-HBc total
anti-HBs
anti-HBe
200
Hep A serology recent infection
anti-HAV IgM
201
Order of Hepatitis B ag/ab
HBsAg, HBeAg
antiHBc, antiHBe, antiHBs
202
Paul Bunnell heterophil ab test uses what type of rbc
sheep
203
Paul Bunnell heterophil ab used to detect
ab from IM
204
Forssman ab are absorbed by what kind of kidney antigen
guinea pig
205
Davidsohn diff test uses what kind of rbc
sheep and horse
206
Which antigen is the somatic antigen used to determine antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria
O
207
which antigen is the flagellar antigen
H
208
Widal test tests for what
Salmonella typhi
209
An elevated O titer in the Widal test indicates
increase in agglutinins to S.typhi
210
Weil-Felix test detects ab to
Rickettsia
211
Proteus,OX19-2, agglutination all have to do with what organism
rickettsia
212
What kinds of strains are OX19 and OX2 antigens
strains of Proteus vulgaris
213
Widal(typhoid) and Weil-Felix (Rikettsial) detect
febrile agglutinins
Febrile (warm) agglutinins are active at normal body temperatures.
214
Francisella tularensis will cross react with
Brucella abortus
franci-ella sounds like bruc-ella
215
To diagnose aspergillosis, titer must be
1:512
216
cryptococcal antigen test is replacing what test...
India in
Cryptococcal neoforman fungal CSF
217
What inferes w/crytococcal antigen latex agg test
RF
218
autoimmune disease where IgM/IgG ab are directed against Fc portion of human IgG
RA
219
What type of hypersensitivity is RA, what is formed
Type 3
immune complexes
220
what does screening test, RF assay for RA detect
serum IgM
221
Confirmatory test for RA
anti-CCP
cyclic citrullinated peptide
Cyclic citrullinated peptides are circular proteins that contain citrulline. When inflammation is present, the body converts the amino acid arginine to the amino acid citrulline.
222
Screen test for autoimmune dieases
ELISA
223
Two tests for ANA are
ELISA
IIF
indirect immunofluorescence
224
Antinuclear antibodies are seen in what conditions
SLE
Sjogrens
Scleroderma
RA
Mixed. Connective tissue disease
225
In IIF for ANA what cells are fixed to a slide
HEp2 cells
226
Disease where autoab to myelin sheath of nerves/myelin basic protein
Myelin is an insulating layer, or sheath that forms around nerves, including those in the brain and spinal cord
MS
227
In MS, what kind of bands are in CSF but not in serum
oligoclonal IgG
228
Disease name in hyperthyroidism
Graves Disease
229
Disease where autoab are directed against TSH receptors (TSH-R)
Graves, hyperthyroidism
Less TSH means thyroid makes more T3/T4
230
In Graves disease what are TSHs and T3/T4 levels
Low TSH
Increased T3/T4
231
TPO...
High levels indicate both...
TPO:
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPOAb)
High levels of these antibodies are seen in both Graves and Hashimoto's
232
TR-Ab...
Sign of...
TRAb:
Thyrotropin/TSH receptor ab (TRAb).
These antibodies can be a sign of Graves' disease.
233
TSI...
Seen in...
thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin
High levels of TSI in the blood can indicate the presence of Graves’ disease
TSIs are antibodies that tell the thyroid gland to become more active and release excess amounts of thyroid hormone into the blood.
234
TSHR ab...
Seen in...
Autoantibodies (Ab) against the thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSHR) are frequently found in Graves
235
3 ab elevated in Graves
TSHR-ab/TR-Ab
TSI
TPO
236
Graves disease symptoms
anxious
weight loss
goiter
237
Name of disease with hypothyroidism
Hashimotos thyroiditis
238
Tg/Tg-Ab...
Sign of...
Thyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb)
Hashimotos thyroiditis
239
Autoab made against thyroglobulin
Thyroglobulin antibodies (TgAb). High levels of these antibodies are a sign of this disease.
thyroglobulin helps make T3/T4, decreased equals less T3/T4
Hashimotos thyroiditis
240
In Hashimotos, what are the TSH levels
increased TSH
241
In Hashimotos, what ab are present
TPO
Tg/Tg-Ab
242
Symptoms of Hashimotos
Tired
Weight gain
intolerance to cold
243
A type of cancer that develops in the lymph system and has Reed-Sternberg cells
Hodgkin lymphoma, also called Hodgkin disease
244
IM
Burkitts, Hodgkin's
Carcinoma
Lymproloferative all associated with
EBV
245
is an aggressive non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma, worse prognosis than Hodgkins
Burkitt lymphoma (BL)
246
Lab finding in IM
Lymphocytosis>50%
20% atypical
Hetetophile ab
Ab EBV ag
247
Name of ab formed against Forssman ag (discovered in guinea pig tissue)
Forssman hetetophile ab
248
Name of test screens for hetetophile ab using titer of ab
Incubated with sheep RBC
Highest dilution of agglutination
Paul Bunnell test
249
Paul Bunnell test titer needs to be
>56
250
Performed when Paul Bunnell is >56
David-sohn diff test
251
True false, Paul Bunnell diff between hetetophile ab
False
252
Test that diff hetetophile ab, uses sheep and horse RBC
Davidsohn diff test
253
Sig titer in Davidsohn
>224
254
2 EBV antigens in early acute phase
EAR, EAD
(restricted,nuclear)
(diffuse, nucleus, cytoplasm)
255
PT sero neg, lacks ab to VCA they are
Susceptible to EBV
256
Has IgM to VCA, EBNA absent
High IgG VCA is what stage of infection
Primary infection
257
Ab to EBNA, increased EA ab what stage of EBV
Reactivation
258
Ab to VCA and EBNA what stage
Past infection
259
Gliadin is also called
Gliadin is primarily found in major sources of gluten
260
Disease that is hypersensitive to gliadin/gluten
Celiac disease/sprue
261
2 HLA markers in all celiac
HLA-
DQ 2, 8
262
Disease where autoab directed against TSH receptors
Graves
263
Disease where autoab directed against basement mebrane of kidney and lungs
Goodpastures
264
Goodpastures disease has autoab against basement membrane of ...and...
kidney and lungs
265
Disease where autoab directed against thyroglobulin
Hashimotos
266
Disease where autoab directed against myeline sheath of nerves or myelin basic protein
MS
267
Disease where autoab directed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular joints
MG
myasthenia gravis
268
Disease where IgM autoab directed against Fc portion of IgG
RA
269
Disease where autoab directed against salivary duct,tear duct
SJogrens syndrome
270
ANA centromere pattern associated with
CREST
271
Nucleolar ANA pattern associated with these two diseases
Scleroderma
CTD connective tissue
272
SLE ANA patterns
Most suggestive: Homogenous(diffuse)
Peripheral(rim)
273
What is used in diagnosing, determining progression, choosing drugs, monitoring diseases
tumor markers
274
Tumor markers tested using
ELISA
275
AFP, Alpha Fetoprotein associated with these 3 cancers/organs
liver
ovary, testes
276
CEA, carcinoembryonic ag associated with this main one and two other cancer/organs
colon
breast
lung
277
CA 15-3 associated with this cancer/organ
breast
278
4 Breast tumor markers:
3 main...
1 general...
CA-15-3
BR 27-29
Estsrogen/Progesterone receptors
CEA
279
2 ovary tumor markers
CA 125
AFP
280
CA 125 what organ/tumor marker
ovary
281
CA 19-9 what organ/tumor marker
pancreas
282
2 testes/testicular markers
1 prostate
HCG
AFP
PSA
283
Beta-2 microglobulin marker for
MM, CLL
284
Disease with ineffective phagocytosis, defect in neutrophils thus recurrent bacterial infections
A rare heterogeneous condition described as a series of recurrent life-threatening infections. Defective phagocyte NADPH oxidase causes the disease. The ultimate result is the inability of phagocytes such as neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages to destroy certain microbes.
CGD
chronic granulomatous
285
Disease with impaired neutrophil function
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
286
T cell deficiency disease, no thymus
DiGeorge's syndrome
287
DiGeorge has no thymus
...
288
Decreased TH, TH/TS ratio/Tcell proliferation
HIV
289
Partial combined immunodef, thrombocytopenia at birth
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
290
Complete or marked def of T and B
SCID
severe combined immunodef
291
Name of test where dilute serum is added to latex coated AHG to detect ag against IgG
RF latex slide test
292
Which test...
detects IgM, positive doesn't agg, is a screen, and synovial fluid can be a source
RF factor latex
293
Anti-RNP indicates
Mixed connective tissue disease
294
Ab to proteins in centromere of chromosome indicates...
CREST
295
anti-dsDNA or anti-histone indicates these two diseases...
ANA pattern of...
SLE
drug induced lupus
Homogenous/diffuse
296
anti-ds DNA highly suggestive of...
has a ANA pattern of...
SLE
Homogeneous
Peripheral/rim
297
Anti-RNA, anti-ENA has what ANA pattern...
Associated w/most but not...
speckeled
not CREST
298
2 SLE pattern
peripheral/rim, homogenous/diffuse
299
Anti-I ab seen in present infections with what ogranism
Mycoplasma penumoniae
300
After infection with Myco pneumo, what forms
cold agglutinins
301
Acute/chronic infection HB ag
HBsAg, HBeAg
302
Vaccinated HB ab
anti-HBs
303
early recovery HB...
recovery HB...
early: antiHBcIgM
recovered: antiHBc,HBs,HBe
304
HSV that can cause urogenital infections/genital herpes...
which one more common in genital herpes
HSV 1,2
HSV 2 is 90% of genital herpes
305
HSV more related to sex, mom passing on, genital
HSV 2
306
HSV more related to oral, break in skin
HSV 1
307
HSV 3 is which virus
varicella zoster virus
308
How to type HSV with high specificity
ELIAA
309
Serotype HSV with
DFA
direct fluoresecent ab
310
Cause of chicken pox, spread thru respiratory, spreads to blood, skin and lays dormant in nerves
Varicella zoster virus
311
Latent varicella zoster turns into
Herpes Zoster, shingles
312
Serological test for VZV
ELIAA
313
CMV is diagnosed serologically by detecting
IgM and IgG ab
314
IgM ab with 4 fold increased in IgG indicates what stage of CMV
active
315
IgG, no IgM ab indicates what stage of disease in CMV
inactive
316
Which virus attacks monos/grans/lymphs/epis
is spread by STI, tranplant tissue, thru placenta
CMV
317
Why is indirect immunofluorescence not a great test for CMV
Has false positives
318
Screening test for immunity to rubella
IgG ab
319
Serological test for rubella, VZV, HSV, and T.gondii
ELIAA
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
320
Serological test for T.gondii is called
ELIAA
IgG, IgE
321
Mantoux skin/TB test type of hypersensitivity
Type 4 delayed
322
Type III rxn due to
immune complexes
323
Type II due to
antibody, transfusion, AIHA
324
Type I due to
anaphylactic
325
Ataxia telangiectasia
Louis bar
genetic, nervous, immune
ataxia
326
Brutons aggamaglobulinemia
sex linked immunodef, absense of plasma cells thus lack of ab made
327
Tcell subset enumeration by flow cytometry can be used in what syndrome
DiGeorge
they have no thymus, tcell def
328
West nile caused by
arbovirus, bite from mosquito (female culex) that feed on birds
329
Virus that Can attach immune cells, can make BBB more impermeable
WNV
330
Serologic method for WNV
IgM ab
331
Giardia common in
water, water parks, vegetables
332
Diagnositc forms of Giardia
in feces
infective is cyst
troph
333
Diagnosis Giardia thru 3 ways
fecal ag test, EIA/direct IFA
examine stool cyst/troph
biopsy troph
334
Lyme diease caused by vector/organism
ticks, Borrelia
335
2 step testing Serological testing for Lyme
1.)EIA
2.)Western blot
336
Tick that spreads B.Burgdorferi
Ixodes tick, deer
337
Which Borrelia is in US and causes lyme disease
B.Burgdorferi
338
Serological diagnosis of Lyme
ELISA
339
Crytosporidium parvum infectious stage
sporulated oocyst
340
How is C.parvum transmitted
oocyst is ingested from fecal contam food etc
diarrhea, AIDs
341
Testing for C.parvum
PCR, Antigen, NAAT
Stool not so sensitive, acid fast stain
342
Cryptococus
soil, pidgeon droppings
inhalation
narrow based budding
india ink, halos form
latex agg test for ag PCA
AIDs,lung infections, meningitis
343
Process tags foreign pathogens to be eliminated by phagocytosis
opsonization
344
process that cells takes in fluid along with dissolved small molecules
pinocytosis
345
process where person becomes protected against a disease thru vaccination
immunization
346
plasma glycoprotein that activates the complement system of the innate immune system
properdin
347
enzyme that catalyzes the destruction of cell walls of certain bacteria
lysozymes
348
signaling protein made and released by host cells in response to presence of several viruss
interferon
349
substances that stimulate cellular locomotion/migration
chemotactic factors
350
3 types of phagocytes in innate immunity that ingest/destroy damaged cells/bacteria in antigen independent fashion and all are from myeloid
macrophages (tissue monos)
Neutrophils/PMNs
Dendritic cells (DCs):
are antigen-presenting cells that capture, process, and present antigens to lymphocytes to initiate and regulate the adaptive immune response.
351
complement and acute phase reactants are part of the
innate immune system
352
In adaptive immunity, dendritic cells act as
APC
engulf and present to B/T cells
353
Which 3 classes of hypersensitivity are involved in humoral immunity of adaptive system
I
II
III
354
Immediate, IgE hypersensitivity
I
355
Immune complex hypersensitivity
III
356
ADCC, complement hypersensitivity
II
357
An antigen that ellicit a response from an organisms adaptive immune system
immunogen
358
ability of agent to elicit a immune response
immunogenicity
359
enhances immune response
adjuvant
360
this is recognized by the immune system, the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself
epitope
361
can combine to larger carrier to elicit immune/doen't elicit on its own;
smaller molecules that are antigenic but can't be immunogenic unless bound to larger molecule such as a protein
hapten
362
vaccination is a type of
artifical active immunity
363
two organs that respond to circulating antigens by filtering/producing lymphs and plasma cells
lymph nodes and spleen
364
T cells differentiate/are dependent in the...
B cells differentiate in the...
T cells...thymus
B cells..bone marrow
365
Main function of Thelper...
Two other functions..
-activate Bcells to secrete antibody
-help macrophages destroy/ingest
-activate cytotoxic Tcells
366
Ab production turned off by
Suppressor T cells
367
Small polypeptides given off by Tcells that regulate function of phagocytic cells
lymphokines
368
T cell that specificially kills tumor/virally infected cells
cytotoxic T cells, CD8
369
effector lymphs that nonspecifically destroy infected cells/cancer that don't need previous exposure, part of innate
NK
370
Two types of T helper cells
TH1
TH2
371
which T helper activates macrophages
TH1
372
which T helper activates B to make antibodies
TH2
373
Which T cell marker recognizes MHC 1 which is on most cells
CD8
374
Which T cell marker recognizes MHC 2 which are APC
CD4
375
Cells of innate that are antigen presenting
dendritic
376
Foreign body or molecule that will bind to specific antibody or T cells
antigen
377
The principal function of the... is to present antigen to T cells to discriminate between self (our cells and tissues) and nonself (the invaders or modified self).
MHC
378
Another name for epitope
determinant
379
reactive sites of an antigen
epitope/determinant
380
antibody whose production did not induce
heterologous antigen
381
Most potent antigen
protein
382
The 5 types of immunoglobulins are distinguished by their...
And is called ... ...which determines their antibody class
constant region of heavy chain
antigenic variation
383
Term when soluble antigen and soluble antibody form insoluble
precipitin
384
Best precipitin immunoglobulin
IgG
385
Term where one antibody binds many antigens
agglutinin
386
Best agglutinin immunoglobulin
IgM
387
When symptoms start to disappear and return to normal its called
covalescence
388
Immunoglobulin in convalescence phase
IgG
389
IgG has how many subclasses
4
390
Ig M and A have how many subclasses
2
391
Two immunoglobulins with J chains
IgM,IgA
392
Immunglobulin thought to function as antigentic receptor site on B cell surface
IgM
IgM is the first class of immunoglobulin made by B cells as they mature, and it is the form most commonly present as the antigen receptor on the B-cell surface.
393
Immunoglobulins in order of decreasing concentration
G>A>M>D>E
394
Immunoglobulin has ...light chains and ...heavy chains
2,2
395
Which region of the immunoglobulin binds to antigen
variable region
396
Which part has the disulfide bridge
constant region
397
proteolytic enzyme that fragments IgG into 3 fragments
papain
398
Fragment termed the antigen binding fragment after cleaved by papain
Fab
399
F(ab)2 is cleaved by
pepsin
400
Fc is which fragment of the ab molecule
crystallizable
401
Hinge region is between
CH1 and CH2
402
3 functions of complement
inflammation
mediates ag/ab reactions
defends against bacteria viruses
403
small peptide that is formed during complement activation causing increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, release of histamine from mast cells
anaphylatoxin
404
Plasma proteins normally in circulation that are heat labile and designated by letters and numbers
complement
405
Complement component in highest concentration in serum in both classical and alternative pathways
C3
406
All 3 pathways generate protease C3 convertase which binds to pathogen and generates...
...is the middle man, binds to C3 convertase to form C5 convertase; activates MAC
C3b
407
Ultimate goal of MAC/complement activation
cell lysis
408
3 things that affect ag-ab binding
1 that doens't affect
ph, temp, incubation time
enzyme concentration not part of it
409
Pathway that binds to pathogen surface, C3/B/D/properdin, MAC and cell lysis
alternate
410
Pathway that binds mannose on pathogen, immune complexes, opsonizes
MB-Lectin
411
Pathway that is ag-ab, starts with C1q then goes to 4,2,3; involves C5a; inflammation, chemotaxis, anaphlatoxin
classical
412
Place where optimal precipitation occures, forms lattice;
most ab is precipitated by the least of amt of ag
zone of equivalence
413
Precipitation can be converted to agglutination by increasing the size of the antigen (may be by adding beads etc and getting it to visibly agglutinate)
indirect agglutination
as opposed to direct where the antigen can agglutinate without adding anything
414
Movement of ag or ab to make ag-ab complexes in semi solid media
immuno-diffusion
diffusion=movement
415
Ag and ab BOTH free to move toward each other to form a precipitate
2 D diffusion
416
Ab added to center well, PT sera/stds in weels around center and diffusion results in bands of precipitation.
Identity of ab associated with autoimmune disorders
double diffusion
ouchterlony
417
Gull wing formation (looks like a seagull wing where precipitan line occurs in middle of ag-ag meet)
occurs when an abnormal protein is electrophoretically displaced from the normal position in what method
ag toward one electrode, ab toward other, meet in middle
CIE
countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis
418
Heavy and light chains in gammopathies and Bence Jones protein in urine in this method
immuno-electrophoresis
419
Immunoassay type requires step to separate bound from free label/wash
heterogenous
420
Immunoassay that doesn't require a wash step
homogenous
421
Electrophoresis+immunoprecipitation
consists of an electrophoresis phase and a fixation phase
After electrophoresis, this method applies antiserum directly to a plate w/strips of agar; antisera added, ag-ab precipitate, wash, stain
used for monoclonal gammopathies
immuno-fixation
422
EMIT is used for urine drugs of abuse where free drug binds to antibody blocking active site;
enzyme activity=amt free drug;
type of immunoassay is
homogenous
423
Type of assay where it's noncompetitive, heterogenous;
solid phase wells/ELISA plates/beads;
activity/absorbance of detection molecule directly proportional to amount of antigen
sandwich immunoassay
424
Energy source for fluorescence microscopes
mercury vapor lamp
425
Fluorochrome used to stain tissue/culture and id microbes with exceedingly bright fluorescence
biotin-avidin
426
In ELISA, what is attached to the solid phase...
ab/ag of unknown sample is added, ab specific for ag w/label is added and then washed
ab or ag
427
In ELISA AHG is conjugated with...
horseradish peroxidase
428
Two systems in complement fixation
Test: antibody in serum
Indicator: SRBC/antiSheep hemolysin
429
Indicator in complement fixation
SRBC which are sensitized by anti sheep hemolysin
430
When checking for anticomplementary factors when using controls for complement fixation there will be...
hemolysis=neg test
431
Positive control in complement fixation will show..
no hemolysis
432
Sydrome with tear/salivary glands affected, lymphocytic infiltration; can get bcell lymphoma
Sjogrens
433
autoantibodies SSA,SSB seen in
sjogrens synydrome(SS)
434
Condition that can turn into B cell lymphoma
Sjogrens syndrome
435
Progressive systemic sclerosis also called
scleroderma
436
SCL-70 antibodies seen in
SCLeroderma
437
mulitisystem disease, rashes, renal; malar rash (butterfly)
SLE
systemic lupus erthyematosis
438
SLE has ....and a ....ana pattern.
dsDNA, homogenous
439
CREST symtoms seen in
limited sclerosis
440
centromere ANA seen in
limited CREST
441
ab to RNP only seen in
mixed connective tissue
442
In Rhematoid arthritis, the antibody is Ig... against the Fc portion of Ig...
IgM against Fc of IgG
443
anti-CCP
cyclic citrullinated peptide
444
anti CCP seen in
RA
445
Screen for ANA..
follow up...
ELISA
IFA (indirect immunofluorescence)
446
In IFA, what cells are used in the interphase
Hep2 cells
447
ANA pattern with even staining of dsDNA...
indicative of...
homogenous, SLE/lupus
448
ANA pattern with nucleoli staining, RNA
Nucleolar
449
ANA pattern with SSA, SSB
speckled
450
ANA pattern with dots, CREST
centromere
451
Thyroid disease with autoantibodies against thyroid
Hashimotos
452
autoantibody in hashimoto
Tg-ab thyroglobulin
453
Thyroid disease with stimulating and blocking ab against TSH receptor
Graves
454
3 Antibodies against TSH-R
TSI, TRab, TSH-R ab
455
Distinguish Brutons agammaglobuneia versus transient hypoagammaglobunemia
Brutons agammaglobuneia:
<100mg/dL CD19 Bcell
transient hypoagammaglobunemia:
absense of mature CD19B cells
456
Xlinked, males immunodef dealing with CD19 B cells
brutons agammaglobulinemia
457
Leukemia versus lymphoma
leukemia blood, lymphoma tissue
458
Two conditions from sequalea of S.pyogens infection
rheutmatic fever
acute glomerlonephretitis
459
syphillis Stage with lesion/chancre
primary
460
syphillis stage thats contagious
secondary
461
syphillis stage thats noninfectious
latent
462
syphillis stage with scarring, CNS invovlement
late
463
Nontreponemal tests for...
Treponemal tests for...
cardilipins
proteins of T.pallidum
464
In EBV, presence of antiVCA and EA indicate
recent infection
465
In EBV, presence of only EBNA indicates
past infection
466
Two parasites water borne, diarhea
cryptosporidium, Giardia
467
Syphillis nontreponemal antigen and antibody produced to it
cardiolipin=ag
reagin=ab
468
cardiolipin and lecithin used in what test
VDRL
469
How often are the needles used to deliver VDRL antigen checked and the stability of the VDRL antigen suspension checked...
how many drops for antigen needle qualitative VDRL...
how many drops for saline needle quantitative VDRL...
daily
antigen qualitative 60drops/mL
saline quantitative 100drops/mL
470
Nontreponemal:
cardiolipin,lethicin
heat inactivation (to destroy complement)
CSF
VDRL
471
Nontreponemal
cardiolipin,
Plastic coated cards
RPR
472
Initial time/temp to heat inactivate VDRL...
Reheat time/temp to heat inactivate VDRL...
initial 30min @56C
reheat 10min @56C
473
VDRL:
serum:antigen...
small clumps, many free particle interp...
titer reactive/weak reactive perform...
report quant as...
3:1 more serum
-small clumps/many free: weakly reactive
-titer reactive/weak perform quantitative
-quantitation titer is highest dilution giving reactive result
474
RPR antigen needle drops...
RPR rotated at...for...
60 drops/mL
100rpm for 8 mins
475
False pos not caused by syphilis seen in what test
nontreponemal testing
476
antistreptolysin O (ASO) measures
ab to streptolysin O
477
antistreptolysin O slide test postive is..
antistreoptolysin O tube test pos is...
slide: agglutination
tube: no hemolysis
478
in antistreptolysin O tube test, a positive test is...
measured in...
positive is no hemolysis
last tube with no hemolysis in Todd units=neutralizing ab present
The unit in which the results of testing for antistreptolysin O (ASO) are expressed. It denotes the reciprocal of the highest dilution of test serum at which there continues to be neutralization of a standard preparation of the streptococcal enzyme streptolysin O
479
classic antistreptolysin O test the reagent is destroyed by...
destroyed by oxygen
480
Streptoccocal extracellular product that dissolves fibrin clots
Used to dissolve blood clots that have formed in the blood vessels
streptokinase
481
Heterophil ab test screens for...
Reported as...
EBV,IM
highest dilution w/agglutination
482
Paul Bunnell heterophil ab test uses
SRBCs
that agglutinate with heterohile ab from IM
483
Heterogenic antigen on tissue/organs(kidney) of guinea pig
Forssman antigen
484
What are absorbed by guinea pig kidney antigen
Forssman antibodies
485
What test differentiates the 2 types of heterophil ab
Davidsohn heterophil antibody test
486
Davidsohn heterophil ab test uses these two rbcs
sheep, horse
487
Antigen for somatic antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria...
Antigen for flagellar...
antigen for capsular...
Vi for...
O=somatic
H=flagellar
K=capsular
Vi=S.typhi
488
Somatic antigen O used in...
Elevated titer means increase in...to...
Widal
increase agglutinins to S.typhi
Widal Test is an agglutination test which detects the presence of serum agglutinins (H and O) in patients serum with typhoid and paratyphoid fever.
489
Weil-Felix detects ab to...
OX19/OX2 antigens used in this test are...
rickettsia
Proteus strains
490
Widal and Weil-Felix both detect...
Widal detects this organism...
Weil-Felix detects this organism...
both detect febrile agglutinins
Widal: S,typhi
Weil-Felix: Rickettsia
491
Cryptococcal antigen test is replacing...
Crytococcal antigen latex agg interferce by..
Ink ink
RF
492
RF latex:
uses PT serum with latex covered with...
Detects Ig...
Pos is...
Used to...
can use.. fluid
covered with AHG
detects IgM
pos is agglutination (not rbc, latex)
used to screen RA
synovial fluid can be used
493
ANA with antiRNP suggestive of
mixed connective tissue disease
494
Autoantigen of thyroid seen in Hashimotos
ab seen in Hashimotos
thyrogobulin
TgAb
495
Cold agg test incubates sample at...
cold reacting ab seen in...with anti...
4C
mycoplasma pneumoniea, anti I
496
Herpes simplex virus that is 90% of genital herpes, sex, mom/baby1
HSV 2
497
Herpes simplex that is mostly oral, break in skin
HSV1
498
Herpes simplex that cause urogenital infections
both 1/2 can
499
Used to serotype HSV...
High specificity to type HSV...
serotype: DFA
specificity: ELISA
500
Chicken pox caused by...
shingles caused by...
chicken pox varicella zoster
shingles Herpes zoster
501
Serological testing for HSV, VZV, Rubella, toxoplasma
ELIAA/ELISA
502
circular proteins that contain citrulline. When inflammation is present, the body converts the amino acid arginine to the amino acid citrulline.
cyclic citrullinated peptide
Cyclic citrullinated peptides are circular proteins that contain citrulline. When inflammation is present, the body converts the amino acid arginine to the amino acid citrulline.
503
Confirmatory test for RA
anti-CCP
504
CCP
cyclic citrullinated peptide
Cyclic citrullinated peptides are circular proteins that contain citrulline. When inflammation is present, the body converts the amino acid arginine to the amino acid citrulline.
505
Reed-Sternberg cells Seen in...
Hodgkin lymphoma, also called Hodgkin disease
506
Burkitt lymphoma is also called
(BL) is an aggressive non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma.
507
TSH another name
Thyrotropin
508
Thyrotropin also called
TSH
509
Electroimmunodiffusion is also called
Rocket immunodiffision
Ids single protein
510
SCL70 seen in
SCLeroderma
511
IgM and CCP antibodies seen in
RA
512
Sm and dsDNA antibodies seen in
SLE
513
RNP antibodies seen in
MCTD
Mixed connective tissue disease
514
SSA, SSB antibodies and Bcell lymphoma seen in
Sjogrens syndrome
515
CREST symptoms and centromere antibodies seen in
Limited scelerosis
516
Serological Test that's good for many viruses
ELISA
517
A rare genetic immunodeficiency that keeps a child's immune system from functioning properly. It also makes it difficult for a child's bone marrow to produce platelets, making a child prone to bleeding.
It occurs mostly in males.
Thrombocytopenia at birth
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
518
AntiDNase, AntiStreptolysin tube and complement are all
Neutralization tests
519
Anti streptolysin O tube and complement positive is, negative if
Positive: no hemolysis
Negative: Hemolysis
520
Ig with 4 subclasses
IgG
521
Ig with lowest concentration
E
