ABA Advanced Keywords Flashcards
1
Q
statistical test that compares categorical data; labels rather than numbers
A
Chi square
2
Q
statistical test that compares 3 or more means
A
ANOVA
3
Q
statistical test that compares 2 means of same study subjects at 2 different different times
A
paired t-test
4
Q
statistical test that compares 2 means of 2 different study subject groups
A
unpaired t-test
5
Q
statistical test that compares 2 means
A
t-test
6
Q
musculocutaneous: motor
A
arm flexion
7
Q
musculocutaneous: sensory
A
lateral forearm
8
Q
median nerve: motor
A
lateral deviation of wrist, grip of thumb/index/middle finger
9
Q
median nerve: sensory
A
medial palm, including thumb/index/middle fingers
10
Q
ulnar nerve: motor
A
medial deviation of wrist, grip of 4th/5th digits
11
Q
ulnar nerve: sensory
A
lateral aspect of hand including 4th/5th digits
12
Q
radial nerve: motor
A
arm/wrist extension
13
Q
radial nerve: sensory
A
extensor surfaces of arm/hand
14
Q
initial dose of dantrolene for MH
A
2.5 mg/kg
15
Q
causes of increased SID
A
- dehydration
- chloride loss (aggressive NG sxn)
- “increase in unmeasured ions”
16
Q
causes of decreased SID
A
- free water excess
- excessive normal saline
- severe diarrhea
- lactic acidosis, DKA
17
Q
components of qSOFA score
A
- RR > 22
- AMS
- SBP < 100
18
Q
TEG: treatment for prolonged R
A
FFP
19
Q
TEG: treatment for prolonged K
A
cryo
20
Q
TEG: treatment for decreased MA
A
platelets
21
Q
TEG: treatment for teardrop configuration
A
antifibrinolytics
22
Q
amount and pressure of full O2 tank
A
700 L at 2,200 psi
23
Q
amount and pressure of full nitrous tank
A
1,590 L at 750 psi
-constant psi until 3/4 empty, so doesn’t start falling until <400L gas remain
24
Q
How do you know how much nitrous is left?
A
must weigh cylinder
25
lab values associated with hyperparathyroidism
non-anion gap metabolic acidosis
- hyperchloremia
- renal bicarb loss (low bicarb on labs)
- high Ca
26
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: alkalosis
curve shifts left (tighter)
27
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: hypothermia
curve shifts left (tighter)
28
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: decreased 2,3-DPG
curve shifts left (tighter)
29
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: carboxyHgb
curve shifts left (tighter)
30
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: methemoglobin
curve shifts left (tighter)
31
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: acidosis
curve shifts right (offloads easier)
32
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: hyperthermia
curve shifts right (offloads easier)
33
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: fetal Hgb
curve shifts left (tighter)
34
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: increased 2,3-DPG
curve shifts right (offloads easier)
35
effect on oxyHgb dissoc. curve: hypercarbia
curve shifts right (offloads easier)
36
morphine equivalents: intrathecal to epidural
1 mg intrathecal = 10 mg epidural
37
morphine equivalents: epidural to IV
1 mg epidural = 10 mg IV
38
morphine equivalents: IV to PO
1 mg IV = 3 mg PO
39
hemophilia A affects factor __
hemophilia A = factor VIII
40
hemophilia B affects factor __
hemophilia B = factor IX
41
name the four predictors of MG postop resp failure
1. dz duration > 6 yrs
2. pyridostigmine daily dose > 750 mg
3. FVC < 2.9
4. other chronic lung dz
42
LAD:
- what part of heart affected
- what leads affected
- anterior, anteroseptal
| - leads V1-6
43
LCx:
- what part of heart affected
- what leads affected
- lateral, posterior wall
| - leads 1, AVL, V5-6
44
RCA:
- what part of heart affected
- what leads affected
- inferior, midseptal
| - leads II, III, AVF
45
harsh systolic murmur heard using diaphragm at 2nd/3rd intercostal space when pt is supine; may disappear during inspiration
pulmonic stenosis
46
low holosystolic or mid-systolic decrescendo murmur heard during inspiration with diaphragm at L sternal border at 3rd interspace
tricuspid regurg
47
continuous machine-like murmur heard best at L upper sternal border
PDA
48
low-pitched diastolic rumble best heard over PMI during exhalation
mitral stenosis
49
blowing pan diastolic murmur heard best at L/R sternal borders at 3rd/4th intercostal interspace while pt sitting up and leaning forward; use diaphragm
aortic regurg
50
harsh systolic ejection murmur, can radiate to carotids
aortic stenosis
51
CRPS associated with previous minor injury
CRPS I
52
CRPS associated with previous nerve injury
CRPS II
53
borders of femoral triangle
```
superior = inguinal ligament
medial = adductor longus
lateral = sartorius (if sartorius twitch only, move needle laterally)
```
54
where do most myxomas arise from
left atrium (70%)
55
pacer indications
- second degree type II AV block
- third degree block
- symptomatic brady
- refractory SVT
56
CVP waveform: loss of a wave
afib
57
CVP waveform: canon a wave
AV dissociation
58
CVP waveform: tall c and v waves, loss of x descent
tricuspid regurg
59
CVP waveform: tall a and v waves, minimal y descent
tricuspid stenosis
60
CVP waveform: tall a and v waves, steep x and y descent, M or W config
RV ischemia, pericardial constriction
61
CVP waveform: exaggerated X descent, attenuated y descent
tamponade
62
best lead for detecting P waves, arrhythmias
lead II
63
most sensitive lead for MI detection
V4
64
minimum inflation of tourniquet
systolic + 50
65
lab changes after 3 days at high altitude
- resp alkalosis
- PaO2 50-65
- bicarb loss in CSF after 2-4 days
66
local anes administration: order of most to least systemic absorption
IV > tracheal > intercostal > caudal > epi > brachial plexus > femoral/sciatic > subQ
67
What reverses dabigatran (NOAC)?
idarucizumab
68
Name the 3 nerve blocks/locations required for awake intubation
1. glossopharyngeal = palatoglossal folds
2. superior laryngeal = injection at horn of hyoid, or pledget in pyriform sinus
3. recurrent laryngeal = transtracheal injection
69
possible causes of increased peak pressure, normal plateau pressure
kinking
plugging
bronchospasm
70
possible causes of increased peak pressure, increased plateau pressure
```
tension pneumo
atelectasis
pulm edema
pneumonia
bronchial intubation
```
71
causes/indications of distributive shock
due to decreased SVR: septic shock, anaphylaxis, neurogenic shock
- usually decreased CVP, decreased or normal CO, increased PAOP
72
what two drugs can improve SSEPs
1. etomidate
| 2. ketamine
73
what's the main problem with hydroxyethyl starches
coagulopathy:
- dilution
- reduced factor VIII, vWF
- reduced glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
74
labs seen with hyperaldosteronism
high Na, low K, reduced renin
| -tx: cortisol, K repletion
75
EKG findings with hypoK
- prolonged PR interval, incr P wave amplitude
- ST depression
- T wave flattening/inversion
- prominent U waves
76
lung resection postop resp risk assessment components and cutoffs
1. O2 usage: VO2 max > 15 mL/kg/min
2. spirometry: predicted postop FEV1 < 30%
3. O2 delivery: DLCO < 40%
77
If lung resection postop resp risk assessment doesn't meet criteria, what can you do?
consider split function testing (to see which lung contributes more)
- occlusion of PA to lung being resected must result in PAs < 35 or PaO2 > 45
78
issues with old blood after storage
- excess H+, K+
| - progressively less 2,3-DPG, so has less O2-releasing capacity
79
main mechanism of acupuncture analgesia (in theory)
stimulation of type I/II afferent nerves or A-delta fibers in muscles => send impulses to anterolateral tract of cord => release of enkephalin, dynorphin
- prevents pain messages from ascending in spinothalamic tract
80
What are the 3 types of von Willebrand dz? Anything special about them?
types 1-3, with 3 being worst (total deficiency; recessive)
| **type 2b: desmopressin will cause drop in plts, so use factor concentrate to tx preop instead**
81
treatment for cyanide tox
1st. hydroxycobalamin (FIRST), then
- sodium thiosulfate (sulfur donor; can excrete via kidneys)
- amyl nitrate: converts Hgb => metHgb that binds CN
- bicarb to help with acidosis
82
lab values with cyanide tox
- anion gap metabolic acidosis
| - increased PaO2, SvO2 (can't use the O2 present)
83
What can happen with high dose NTP
cyanide tox:
- normal ferrous (Fe2+) iron in RBCs => ferric (Fe3+)
- SNP becomes unstable with extra electron, so breaks into 5 CN- molecules
- inactivates cytochrome oxidase => stops oxidative phosphorylation (so you're in anaerobic resp)
84
Indications for dialysis
```
Acidemia
Electrolytes
Ingestions
Overload
Uremia
```
85
Name some conditions that cause reduced FRC
```
Pregnancy
Ascites, Advanced age
Neonates
GA
Obesity
Supine
```
86
What issue does echothiophate cause?
inhibits butyrylcholinesterase
| - sux lasts longer
87
What happens to MAC at advanced age?
after age 40, MAC decreases 6% per decade
88
initial treatment of airway fire
First: extubate + stop flow of gases at same time
2. remove flammable materials from airway
3. saline in airway
89
Tx for long QT syndrome issues
- IV mag
- replace K, Ca
- avoid amiodarone
90
umbilical _______ gas: assesses maternal side
| umbilical _______ gas: assesses fetal side
umbilical venous = assesses maternal side
| umbilical arterial gas = assesses fetal side
91
what happens to protein C in pregnancy
(c)resistance to protein C
92
what happens to protein S in pregnancy
decreaSsssssed level of protein S
93
What factors increase with pregnancy?
Hypercoagulable, so decreased PT/APTT
- fibrinogen
- factors VII, IX, X, XII, vWF
94
What factors decrease with pregnancy?
- factor XI
- factor XIII
- antithrombin 3
- tPA
95
What are the four parts of SIRS
1. temp >38 or <36
2. HR > 90
3. RR > 20 or PaCO2 < 32
4. WBC > 12,000 or < 4,000
96
What pulm measurements are generally unchanged in elderly?
1. TLC
| 2. PaCO2
97
most common bugs associated with later VAP
late VAP is > 72 hrs after tubing = more virulent
- MRSA
- Pseudomonas
- Acinetobacter
98
Name some risk factors for VAP
- paralytics
- witnessed aspiration
- enteral feeding
- prolonged intubation
- extremes of age
99
What's the WHO analgesic ladder for cancer pain?
1. non opioid +/- adjuvant
2. weak opioid for mild/mod pain (tramadol, codeine)
3. strong opioid for moderate/severe pain
100
What's the point of the Cochrane collaboration?
conducts systematic reviews and meta-analyses of healthcare interventions/diagnostic tests
101
What does it mean to quench MRI?
loss of superconductivity + release of He gas
- MCC: intentional shutdown for life-threatening emergency
- if tube is blocked/disconnected, lethal amts of helium can escape into scanner
102
What metals are safe for MRI?
- aluminum
| - brass
103
What nerves are covered with popliteal block, and what is your goal?
tibial > common peroneal
- tibial: plantar flexion, inversion
- peroneal: dorsiflexion, foot eversion
104
If doing a pop block and get foot eversion, what do you do?
redirect medial (you're getting common peroneal instead)
105
If doing a pop block and get foot semimembranosus twitch, what do you do?
redirect lateral
106
If doing a pop block and get local biceps femoris twitch, what do you do?
redirect medial
107
____: can be missed in axillary block, but can supplement medial to brachial artery in antecubital fossa
median nerve
108
_____: runs lateral to biceps tendon in antecubital fossa
radial nerve
109
SSEPs monitor what part of spinal cord?
Dorsal columns
110
MEPs monitor what part of spinal cord?
Corticospinal tract
111
____ = primary determinant of local anesthetic potency
lipid solubility
112
____ = primary determinant of speed of onset of local anesthetic
pKa
113
What does higher frequency ultrasound probe mean in terms of:
- resolution
- depth
higher frequency probe = lower resolution, deeper penetration
114
What happens to K+ for each 0.1 decrease in pH?
plasma K+ increases by 0.6
115
Formula for how many mEq sodium are needed to correct a deficit
Na+ dose = weight * 0.6 * (desired # - actual #)
116
safe dose of epi per kg
5 mcg/kg
117
What can you use in pts that need to go on bypass but have HIT type II (immune)?
Hirudin, bivalirudin
118
What's the p50 for normal adult Hgb?
25 mm Hg
119
MOA argatroban
direct thrombin inhibitor
120
MOA -irudins
direct thrombin inhibitors
121
MOA abciximab
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
122
MOA eptifibatide
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
123
MOA tirofiban
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
124
MOA fondaparinux
anti-Xa antagonist
125
MOA -xabans (apixaban, rivaroxaban)
anti-Xa antagonist (factor Xa inhibitors)
126
Alpha-1 receptor activity
```
Mydriasis
BronchoC
VasoC
Uterine ctx
GI/GU sphincter ctx
Inhibition of insulin secretion and lipolysis
+inotrope
```
127
What adrenergic Rs are in the heart?
Alpha-1 Rs
| Beta-1 Rs
128
What do alpha-2 Rs do?
Inhibits adenylyl cyclase
At CNS level:
Sedation
Reduced sympathetic outflow
Peripheral vasoD
129
What does stimulation of Beta-1 Rs do?
+chronotrope
+dromotrope
+inotrope
130
What does stimulation of beta-2 Rs do?
BronchoD
VasoD
Uterine relax
Insulin release, lipolysis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis
Basically opposite of alpha-1 stimulation
131
MOA dabigatran
direct thrombin inhibitor
