ABDOMEN EMRCS Flashcards
(95 cards)
A 53 year old man undergoes a reversal of a loop colostomy. He recovers well and is discharged home. He is readmitted 10 days later with symptoms of vomiting and colicky abdominal pain. On examination he has a swelling of the loop colostomy site and it is tender. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
A-Haematoma
B-Intra abdominal adhesions
C-Anastomotic leak
D-Anastomotic stricture
E-Obstructed incisional hernia
Theme from September 2011 Exam
In this scenario the most likely diagnosis would be obstructed incisional hernia. The tender swelling coupled with symptoms of obstruction point to this diagnosis. Prompt surgical exploration is warranted. Loop colostomy reversals are at high risk of this complication as the operative site is at increased risk of the development of post operative wound infections.
Acute incisional hernia
Any surgical procedure involving entry into a cavity containing viscera may be complicated by post operative hernia
The abdomen is the commonest site
The deep layer of the wound has usually broken down, allowing internal viscera to protrude through
Management is dictated by the patients clinical status and the timing of the hernia in relation to recent surgery
Bowel obstruction or tenderness at the hernia site both mandate early surgical intervention to reduce the risk of bowel necrosis Mature incisional hernias with a wide neck, and no symptoms, may be either left or listed for elective repair
Risk factors for the development of post operative incisional hernias include; post operative wound infections, long term steroid use, obesity and chronic cough
Theme: Abdominal stomas
A. End ileostomy
B. End colostomy
C. Loop ileostomy
D. Loop colostomy
E. End jejunostomy
F. Loop jejunostomy
G. Caecostomy
For each of the following scenarios, please select the most appropriate type of stoma to be constructed. Each option may be selected once, more than once or not at all.
A 56 year old man is undergoing a low anterior resection for carcinoma of the rectum. A primary anastomosis is planned.
Loop ileostomy
Theme from April 2014 Exam
Colonic resections with an anastomosis below the peritoneal reflection may have an anastomotic leak rate (both clinical and radiological) of up to 15%. Therefore most surgeons will defunction such an anastomosis to reduce the clinical severity of an anastomotic leak. A loop ileostomy will achieve this end point and is relatively easy to reverse.
Theme: Abdominal stomas
A. End ileostomy
B. End colostomy
C. Loop ileostomy
D. Loop colostomy E. End jejunostomy F. Loop jejunostomy G. Caecostomy
For each of the following scenarios, please select the most appropriate type of stoma to be constructed. Each option may be selected once, more than once or not at all.
A 23 year old man with uncontrolled ulcerative colitis is undergoing an emergency sub total colectomy.
The correct answer is End ileostomy
Following a sub total colectomy the immediate surgical options include an end ileostomy or ileorectal anastomosis. In the emergency setting an ileorectal anastomosis would be unsafe.
Theme: Abdominal stomas
A. End ileostomy
B. End colostomy
C. Loop ileostomy
D. Loop colostomy E. End jejunostomy F. Loop jejunostomy G. Caecostomy
For each of the following scenarios, please select the most appropriate type of stoma to be constructed. Each option may be selected once, more than once or not at all.
A 63 year old women presents with large bowel obstruction. On examination she has a carcinoma 10cm from the anal verge.
The correct answer is Loop colostomy
Large bowel obstruction resulting from carcinoma should be resected, stented or defunctioned. The first two options typically apply to tumours above the peritoneal reflection. Lower tumours should be defunctioned with a loop colostomy and then formal staging undertaken prior to definitive surgery. An emergency attempted rectal resection carries a high risk of involvement of the circumferential resection margin and is not recommended.
Theme: Appendicitis
A. Colonoscopy
B. MRIAbdomen
C. Appendicectomy
D. AbdominalCTscan
E. Barium enema
F. Exploratory laparotomy
G. Conservative management with intravenous antibiotics H. Re-assure and discharge
I. Abdominal ultrasound scan
Please select the most appropriate management option for the following patients. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 24 year old man presents with a 10 day history of right sided abdominal pain. Prior to this he was well. On examination he has a low grade fever and a mass palpable in the right iliac fossa. The rest of his abdomen is soft. An abdominal USS demonstrates matted bowel loops surrounding a thickened appendix.
The correct answer is Conservative management with intravenous antibiotics
This man is likely to have an appendix mass. There is no history suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. These are usually managed without surgery, especially in the absence of peritoneal signs. Broad spectrum antibiotics are required. In the past an interval appendicectomy was performed. This is rare now and in most cases the process resolves with fibrosis of the appendix.
Theme: Appendicitis
A. Colonoscopy
B. MRIAbdomen
C. Appendicectomy
D. AbdominalCTscan
E. Barium enema
F. Exploratory laparotomy
G. Conservative management with intravenous antibiotics H. Re-assure and discharge
I. Abdominalultrasoundscan
Please select the most appropriate management option for the following patients. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 22 year old man presents with a 48 hour history of right iliac fossa pain. On examination he has a low grade pyrexia and is tender with voluntary guarding in the right iliac fossa. His blood tests reveal a WCC of 13 and a CRP of 6. A urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes.
Appendicectomy
This is a typical history for acute appendicitis and in a young male, few differentials would be compatible with this history and signs. Whilst inflammatory markers may be raised this is by no means universal. Further imaging will delay treatment and is unlikely to alter the eventual surgical outcome.
Theme: Appendicitis
A. Colonoscopy
B. MRIAbdomen
C. Appendicectomy
D. AbdominalCTscan
E. Barium enema
F. Exploratory laparotomy
G. Conservative management with intravenous antibiotics H. Re-assure and discharge
I. Abdominalultrasoundscan
Please select the most appropriate management option for the following patients. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 63 year old man presents with a 48 hour history of right iliac fossa pain. On examination he has a low grade pyrexia and is tender with some voluntary guarding in the right iliac fossa. Some of his blood tests are reproduced below:
Hb 8.1 WCC 13.8 Platelets 438 Albumin 22 CRP 24
The correct answer is Abdominal CT scan
This man’s investigations point to a more longstanding disease process (Hb and albumin), right sided colonic cancer being the most likely. For this reason a CT scan is a sensible option as it will adjust the surgical planning.
Theme: Acute abdominal pain
A. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Perforated appendicitis
D. Mesenteric infarction
E. Small bowel obstruction
F. Large bowel obstruction G. Pelvic inflammatory disease
H. Mesenteric adenitis I. Pancreatitis
J. Noneoftheabove
Please select the most likely cause of abdominal pain for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 75 year old man is admitted with sudden onset severe generalised abdominal pain, vomiting and a single episode of bloody diarrhoea. On examination he looks unwell and is in uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Although diffusely tender his abdomen is soft.
The correct answer is Mesenteric infarction
In mesenteric infarction there is sudden onset of pain together with vomiting and occasionally passage of bloody diarrhoea. The pain present is usually out of proportion to the physical signs.
Theme: Acute abdominal pain
A. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Perforated appendicitis
D. Mesenteric infarction
E. Smallbowelobstruction
F. Largebowelobstruction G. Pelvic inflammatory disease
H. Mesenteric adenitis I. Pancreatitis
J. Noneoftheabove
Please select the most likely cause of abdominal pain for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 19 year old lady is admitted with lower abdominal pain. On examination she is diffusely tender. A laparoscopy is performed and at operation multiple fine adhesions are noted between the liver and abdominal wall. Her appendix is normal.
The correct answer is Pelvic inflammatory disease
This is Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome in which pelvic inflammatory disease (usually Chlamydia) causes the formation of fine peri hepatic adhesions.
Theme: Acute abdominal pain
A. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Perforated appendicitis
D. Mesenteric infarction
E. Smallbowelobstruction
F. Largebowelobstruction G. Pelvic inflammatory disease
H. Mesenteric adenitis I. Pancreatitis
J. Noneoftheabove
Please select the most likely cause of abdominal pain for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 78 year old man is walking to the bus stop when he suddenly develops severe back pain and collapses. On examination he has a blood pressure of 90/40 and pulse rate of 110. His abdomen is distended and he is obese. Though tender his abdomen itself is soft.
The correct answer is Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
This will be a retroperitoneal rupture (anterior ones generally don’t survive to hospital). The debate regarding CT varies, it is the authors opinion that a systolic BP of <100mmHg at presentation mandates immediate laparotomy.
Theme: Management of splenic trauma
A. Splenectomy
B. Angiography
C. CT Scan
D. Admit for bed rest and observation E. Ultrasound scan
F. Splenic conservation G. MRIoftheabdomen
Please select the most appropriate intervention for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 7 year old boy falls off a wall the distance is 7 feet. He lands on his left side and there is left flank bruising. There is no haematuria. He is otherwise stable and haemoglobin is within normal limits.
The correct answer is Ultrasound scan
This will demonstrate any overt splenic injury. A CT scan carries a significant dose of radiation. In the absence of haemodynamic instability or other major associated injuries the use of USS to exclude intraabdominal free fluid (blood) would seem safe when coupled with active observation. An USS will also show splenic haematomas.
Theme: Management of splenic trauma
A. Splenectomy
B. Angiography
C. CT Scan
D. Admit for bed rest and observation E. Ultrasound scan
F. Splenic conservation G. MRIoftheabdomen
Please select the most appropriate intervention for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 42 year old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident. A FAST scan in the emergency department shows free intrabdominal fluid and a laparotomy is performed. At operation there is evidence of small liver laceration that has stopped bleeding and a tear to the inferior pole of the spleen.
Splenic conservation
As minimum damage, attempt conservation.
Theme: Management of splenic trauma
A. Splenectomy
B. Angiography
C. CT Scan
D. Admit for bed rest and observation E. Ultrasound scan
F. Splenic conservation G. MRIoftheabdomen
Please select the most appropriate intervention for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
An 18 year old man is involved in a road traffic accident. A CT scan shows disruption of the splenic hilum and a moderate sized perisplenic haematoma.
The correct answer is Splenectomy
Hilar injuries usually mandate splenectomy. The main risk with conservative management here is that he will rebleed and with hilar injuries this can be dramatic.
Theme: Gastrointestinal bleeding
A. Haemorrhoids
B. Meckels diverticulum C. Angiodysplasia
D. Colonic cancer
E. Diverticular bleed
F. Ulcerativecolitis
G. Ischaemic colitis
Please select the most likely cause of colonic bleeding for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all
A 73 year old lady is admitted with a brisk rectal bleed. She is otherwise well and the bleed settles. On examination her abdomen is soft and non tender. Elective colonoscopy shows a small erythematous lesion in the right colon, but no other abnormality.
A n g io d y s p la s ia
Angiodysplasia can be difficult to identify and treat. The colonoscopic stigmata are easily missed by poor bowel preparation.
Theme: Gastrointestinal bleeding
A. Haemorrhoids
B. Meckels diverticulum C. Angiodysplasia
D. Colonic cancer
E. Diverticular bleed
F. Ulcerativecolitis
G. Ischaemic colitis
Please select the most likely cause of colonic bleeding for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all
A 23 year old man complains of passing bright red blood rectally. It has been occurring over the past week and tends to occur post defecation. He also suffers from pruritus ani.
Haemorrhoids
Classical haemorrhoidal symptoms include bright red rectal bleeding, it typically occurs post defecation and is noticed on the toilet paper and in the toilet pan. It is usually painless, however, thrombosed external haemorrhoids may be very painful.
Theme: Gastrointestinal bleeding
A. Haemorrhoids
B. Meckels diverticulum C. Angiodysplasia
D. Colonic cancer
E. Diverticular bleed
F. Ulcerativecolitis
G. Ischaemic colitis
Please select the most likely cause of colonic bleeding for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all
A 63 year old man presents with episodic rectal bleeding the blood tends to be dark in colour and may be mixed with stool. His bowel habit has been erratic since an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair 6 weeks previously.
The correct answer is Ischaemic colitis
The inferior mesenteric artery may have been ligated and being an arteriopath collateral flow through the marginal may be imperfect.
Theme: Surgical signs
A. Rovsing’s sign
B. Boas’ sign
C. Psoas stretch sign D. Cullen’s sign
E. Grey-Turner’ssign F. Murphy’ssign
G. None of the above
Please select the most appropriate eponymous abdominal sign for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
Severe acute peri-umbilical bruising in the setting of acute pancreatitis.
The correct answer is Cullen’s sign
Cullens sign occurs when there has been intraabdominal haemorrage. It is seen in cases of severe haemorrhagic pancreatitis and is associated with a poor prognosis. It is also seen in other cases of intraabdominal haemorrhage (such as ruptured ectopic pregnancy).
Theme: Surgical signs
A. Rovsing’s sign
B. Boas’ sign
C. Psoas stretch sign D. Cullen’s sign
E. Grey-Turner’ssign F. Murphy’ssign
G. None of the above
Please select the most appropriate eponymous abdominal sign for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
In acute cholecystitis there is hyperaesthesia beneath the right scapula.
The correct answer is Boas’ sign
Boas sign refers to this hyperaesthesia. It occurs because the abdominal wall innervation of this region is from the spinal roots that lie at this level.
Theme: Surgical signs
A. Rovsing’s sign
B. Boas’ sign
C. Psoas stretch sign D. Cullen’s sign
E. Grey-Turner’ssign F. Murphy’ssign
G. None of the above
Please select the most appropriate eponymous abdominal sign for the scenario given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
In appendicitis palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain in the right iliac fossa.
The correct answer is Rovsing’s sign
Rovsings sign elicits tenderness because the deep palpation induces shift of the appendix (which is inflamed) against the peritoneal surface. This has somatic innervation and will therefore localise the pain. It is less reliable in pelvic appendicitis and when the appendix is truly retrocaecal
Theme: Surgical access
A. Gridiron
B. Lanz
C. McEvedy
D. Midline abdominal E. Rutherford Morrison F. Battle(abdominal) G. Lower midline
Please select the most appropriate incision for the procedure required. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 78 year old lady is admitted with a tender lump in her right groin. It is within the femoral triangle and there is concern that there may be small bowel obstruction developing.
The correct answer is McEvedy
This is one approach to an obstructed femoral hernia. It is possible to undertake a small bowel resection through this approach. Recourse to laparotomy may be needed if access is difficult.
Theme: Surgical access
A. Gridiron
B. Lanz
C. McEvedy
D. Midline abdominal E. Rutherford Morrison F. Battle(abdominal) G. Lower midline
Please select the most appropriate incision for the procedure required. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 45 year old woman with end stage renal failure is due to undergo a cadaveric renal transplant. This will be her first transplant.
Rutherford Morrison
This is the incision of choice for the extraperitoneal approach to the iliac vessels which will be required for a renal transplant.
Theme: Surgical access
A. Gridiron
B. Lanz
C. McEvedy
D. Midline abdominal E. Rutherford Morrison F. Battle(abdominal) G. Lower midline
Please select the most appropriate incision for the procedure required. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A slim 20 year old lady is suffering from appendicitis and requires an appendicectomy.
The correct answer is Lanz
Either a Lanz or Gridiron incision will give access for appendicectomy. However, in the case described a Lanz incision will give better cosmesis and can be extended should pelvic surgery be required eg for gynaecological disease.
Theme: Hernias
A. Littres hernia
B. Richters hernia C. Bochdalek hernia D. Morgagnihernia E. Spigelian hernia F. Lumbar hernia G. Obturator hernia
Please select the type of hernia that most closely matches the description given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 73 year old lady presents with peritonitis and tenderness of the left groin. At operation she has a left femoral hernia with perforation of the anti mesenteric border of ileum associated with the hernia.
The correct answer is Richters hernia
When part of the bowel wall is trapped in a hernia such as this it is termed a Richters hernia and may complicate any hernia although femoral and obturator hernias are most typically implicated.
Theme: Hernias
A. Littres hernia
B. Richters hernia C. Bochdalek hernia D. Morgagnihernia E. Spigelian hernia F. Lumbar hernia G. Obturator hernia
Please select the type of hernia that most closely matches the description given. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A 22 year old man is operated on for a left inguinal hernia, at operation the sac is opened to reveal a large Meckels diverticulum.
Littres hernia
Hernia containing Meckels diverticulum is termed a Littres hernia.