Abnormal psych Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
What is DSM-5-TR?
A
Published in 2022, it is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision.
2
Q
How many diagnostic categories are included in DSM-5-TR?
A
19 diagnostic categories.
3
Q
What approach does DSM-5-TR use for classifying disorders?
A
Categorical approach, where disorders are divided into types defined by a set of diagnostic criteria.
4
Q
What is the polythetic approach in DSM-5-TR?
A
Only needs to meet a certain number of symptoms, allowing for symptom heterogeneity in a diagnosis.
5
Q
What is the nonaxial assessment system in DSM-5-TR?
A
All medical and mental disorders are listed together with the primary diagnosis listed first.
6
Q
What does ‘OTHER SPECIFIED DISORDER’ indicate?
A
Used when a clinician wants to indicate reasons a client doesn’t meet criteria for a specific diagnosis.
7
Q
What is UNSPECIFIED disorder in DSM-5-TR?
A
Coded when the clinician does not want to indicate why the client does not meet symptoms of a specific diagnosis.
8
Q
What are cross-cutting symptom measures?
A
Assessment tools designed to evaluate symptoms that can span multiple disorders.
9
Q
What is WHODAS 2?
A
World Health Organization Disability Assessment Schedule version 2, used to assess adaptive skills and communication.
10
Q
What are the four factors outlined in the cultural formulation for assessment?
A
- Client cultural identity
- Client cultural conceptualization of distress
- Psychosocial stressors and cultural factors
- Cultural factors relevant to the relationship between client and therapist.
11
Q
What is a cultural formulation interview (CFI)?
A
A semi-structured interview designed to gather information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural context of presenting problems.
12
Q
What are cultural syndromes?
A
Clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by people in that culture.
13
Q
What is intellectual developmental disability?
A
Characterized by deficits in intellectual functioning, adaptive functioning, and onset during the developmental period.
14
Q
What are the four degrees of severity for intellectual developmental disability?
A
- Mild
- Moderate
- Severe
- Profound.
15
Q
What is the strongest predictor for all degrees of severity in intellectual developmental disability?
A
Low birth weight.
16
Q
What characterizes childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering)?
A
Disturbance in normal fluency and time pattern of speech inappropriate for the person’s age.
17
Q
At what age do symptoms of childhood-onset fluency disorder typically begin?
A
Between ages 2-7.
18
Q
What is the prognosis for children with childhood-onset fluency disorder?
A
65-85% of children recover, with severity at age 8 being a good predictor.
19
Q
What are the criteria for autism spectrum disorder?
A
- Persistent deficits in social communication
- Restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, and activities.
20
Q
What are the three levels of severity for autism spectrum disorder?
A
- Level 1
- Level 2
- Level 3.
21
Q
What are some associated features of autism spectrum disorder?
A
- Intellectual impairments
- Language abnormalities
- Motor deficits.
22
Q
What is the prevalence of ADHD in children?
A
Around 7.2%.
23
Q
What is the gender ratio for ADHD prevalence in children?
A
More prevalent in males than females (2:1).
24
Q
What are the three specifiers for ADHD?
A
- Inattentive
- Hyperactive
- Combined.
25
What is the course/prognosis for children with ADHD?
65-80% continue to meet criteria in adolescence.
26
What is specific learning disorder (SLD)?
Diagnosis when a person exhibits difficulty related to academic skills that persists for at least 6 months.
27
What are the subtypes of specific learning disorder?
* SLD with impairment in reading
* SLD with impairment in writing
* SLD with impairment in math.
28
What are tics?
Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic motor movements or vocalizations.
29
What characterizes Tourette's disorder?
Presence of at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics that have persisted for over one year.
30
What is the common associated symptom of Tourette's disorder?
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
31
What is behavioral pediatrics?
Branch of behavioral medicine concerned with psychological aspects of children's medical illnesses.
32
What is the impact of hospitalization on children?
Hospitalized children are at increased risk for emotional and behavioral problems.
33
What are delusions in the context of schizophrenia?
False beliefs that are firmly held despite evidence to the contrary.
34
What types of hallucinations are most frequent in schizophrenia?
Auditory hallucinations.
35
What are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
* Blunted emotional expression
* Anhedonia
* Asociality
* Alogia
* Avolition.
36
What is the criterion for delusional disorder?
Presence of one or more delusions lasting for at least one month.
37
What is grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior?
Several forms such as unpredictable agitation, markedly disheveled appearance, clearly inappropriate sexual behavior, or catatonia.
38
What are negative symptoms in schizophrenia?
Restriction on range and intensity of emotions and other functions, including:
* Blunted emotional expression
* Anhedonia
* Asociality
* Alogia
* Avolition.
39
What characterizes Delusional Disorder?
Presence of one or more delusions lasting for at least 1 month without significant impairment in overall psychosocial functioning.
40
What are the subtypes of Delusional Disorder?
* Erotomanic
* Grandiose
* Jealous
* Persecutory
* Somatic
* Mixed
* Unspecified.
41
What is required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
At least 2 active phase symptoms for at least one month, with at least one being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech.
42
What are the specifiers for schizophrenia?
* First episode, currently in acute episode
* First episode, currently in partial remission
* First episode, currently in full remission
* Multiple episodes, currently in acute episode
* Multiple episodes, currently in partial remission
* Multiple episodes, currently in full remission
* Continuous
* Unspecified.
43
What are some associated features of schizophrenia?
* Inappropriate affect
* Dysphoric mood
* Disturbed sleep pattern
* Lack of interest in eating.
44
True or False: There is evidence that individuals with schizophrenia have an increased risk of violent behavior compared to the general population.
False.
45
What is the lifetime prevalence range for schizophrenia?
0.3% - 0.7%.
46
What is the typical onset age range for schizophrenia?
Late teens to early 30s, with a peak during early-mid 20s for males and late 20s for females.
47
What factors contribute to a better prognosis in schizophrenia?
* Good premorbid adjustment
* Acute and late onset
* Female gender
* Presence of a precipitating event
* Brief duration of active-phase symptoms
* Insight into illness
* Family history of mood disorder
* No family history of schizophrenia.
48
What is the dopamine hypothesis regarding schizophrenia?
Attributes schizophrenia to elevated dopamine levels or oversensitive dopamine receptors.
49
What are the two categories of antipsychotic drugs?
* Traditional (first generation)
* Atypical (second generation).
50
What is the main liability of traditional antipsychotics?
Potential for severe side effects, including tardive dyskinesia.
51
What is the difference between Schizophreniform Disorder and schizophrenia?
Schizophreniform Disorder lasts at least one month but less than six months.
52
What defines a brief psychotic disorder?
Presence of 4 or more characteristic symptoms for at least 1 day but less than 1 month, with eventual return to premorbid functioning.
53
What is required for a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder?
One manic episode.
54
What are the characteristic symptoms of a manic episode?
* Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
* Decreased need for sleep
* Excessive talkativeness
* Flight of ideas
* Distractibility
* Increased goal-directed activity
* Excessive involvement in high-risk activities.
55
What is the lifetime risk of suicide for individuals with bipolar disorder?
20-30 times higher than the general population.
56
What is the average age of onset for bipolar disorder?
22 years.
57
What is the treatment for acute mania in bipolar disorder?
Antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone.
58
What characterizes Bipolar II disorder?
At least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode.
59
What defines cyclothymic disorder?
Numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms and numerous periods with depressive symptoms lasting for at least 2 years in adults.
60
What is required for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder?
At least 5 symptoms of a major depressive episode nearly every day for at least 2 weeks.
61
What is peripartum onset in relation to Major Depressive Disorder?
Onset of symptoms during pregnancy or within 4 weeks postpartum.
62
What are some associated features of Major Depressive Disorder?
* EEG abnormalities during sleep
* Sleep continuity disturbances
* Increased duration of REM sleep.
63
What is the prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder in the general population?
7%.
64
What are the genetic factors associated with depression?
1.5-3 times more among first-degree biological relatives.
65
What is the Catecholamine hypothesis?
Depression due to deficiency in norepinephrine.
66
What is the learned helplessness model?
A model suggesting depression results from prior uncontrollable negative events.
67
What is Lewinsohn’s behavioral theory of depression based on?
Operant conditioning
## Footnote
It posits that low rates of response-contingent reinforcement lead to extinction of behaviors and contribute to features of depression.
68
What does the learned helplessness model by Seligman emphasize?
Prior uncontrollable negative events
## Footnote
It suggests that individuals misattribute these events to internal, stable, and global factors.
69
What are the main factors in Rehm's self-control model of depression?
* Self-monitoring
* Self-evaluation
* Self-reinforcement
## Footnote
This model suggests that depressed individuals focus on negative events and outcomes.
70
What is the Beck depressive cognitive triad?
Negative, illogical self-statements about oneself, the world, and the future
## Footnote
It relates to how depression can distort a person's views.
71
What differentiates major depressive disorder (MDD) from adjustment disorder?
Adjustment disorder occurs only when MDD criteria are not met
## Footnote
MDD may also be distinguished from uncomplicated bereavement.
72
What treatment is often used for depression?
Combination of medications and psychotherapy
## Footnote
This approach is supported by research indicating effectiveness.
73
What are the three common classes of antidepressants?
* Tricyclics (TCAs)
* SSRIs
* Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
## Footnote
Each class has different effectiveness and side effect profiles.
74
What is the primary treatment for persistent depressive disorder?
Combination of antidepressant (especially SSRI) and CBT or interpersonal therapy
## Footnote
Treatment focuses on long-term management of symptoms.
75
What are the characteristic symptoms of premenstrual dysphoric disorder?
* Affective lability
* Irritability or anger
* Depressed mood or self-deprecating thoughts
* Anxiety or tension
## Footnote
Symptoms typically improve a few days after the onset of menses.
76
What is a significant risk factor for suicide?
Age
## Footnote
Rates have varied over time, with older adults showing high rates in recent years.
77
True or False: Females attempt suicide more often than males.
True
## Footnote
However, males are more likely to use lethal methods.
78
What are common early warning signs of suicidal thoughts?
* Threatening self-harm
* Writing or talking about suicide
* Seeking means to complete a suicide attempt
## Footnote
Recognizing these signs is vital for intervention.
79
What is the prevalence of panic disorder in adults?
2-3%
## Footnote
Females are twice as likely to be diagnosed compared to males.
80
What is a key treatment for panic disorder?
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) interventions with exposure
## Footnote
Panic Control Therapy (PCT) is also an effective brief treatment.
81
What differentiates agoraphobia from specific phobia?
Agoraphobia involves fear of multiple situations such as public transport or being outside alone
## Footnote
Specific phobia is typically related to a single situation.
82
What is the minimum duration for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) symptoms?
At least 6 months
## Footnote
Symptoms vary across age groups.
83
What is a common treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
Exposure and response prevention (ERP)
## Footnote
This is often combined with medications like SSRIs.
84
What defines reactive attachment disorder?
Inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers
## Footnote
It requires evidence of insufficient care.
85
What are the criteria for PTSD in adults and children over 6 years old?
* Exposure to actual or threatened death
* Presence of at least one intrusion symptom
* Avoidance of associated stimuli
## Footnote
Symptoms must last for more than 1 month.
86
What is a treatment approach for acute stress disorder?
Comprehensive cognitive behavioral intervention
## Footnote
This includes exposure, cognitive restructuring, and anxiety management.
87
What is the time frame for symptoms to remit in adjustment disorder?
Within 6 months after the termination of the stressor
## Footnote
Symptoms must be in response to identifiable psychosocial stressors.
88
What is EMDR?
Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing
## Footnote
May work due to exposure rather than eye movements
89
What is acute stress disorder?
Exposure to actual threatened death or serious injury
## Footnote
Symptoms last from 3 days to 1 month
90
What are the criteria for adjustment disorder?
Emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to identifiable psychosocial stressors
## Footnote
Symptoms must remit within 6 months after termination of stressor
91
What is prolonged grief disorder?
Intense yearning for the deceased and preoccupation with thoughts of the deceased
## Footnote
Death must have occurred at least 12 months ago (6 months for children/adolescents)
92
What are the symptoms required for prolonged grief disorder?
At least 3 of the following symptoms:
* Identity disruption
* Marked sense of disbelief about the death
* Avoidance of reminders of the deceased
* Intense emotional pain
* Difficulty reintegrating into relationships and activities
* Emotional numbness
* Feeling life is meaningless
* Intense loneliness
93
What is dissociative identity disorder?
Existence of 2 or more distinct personality states or experiences of possession
## Footnote
Consider cultural or religious beliefs in expression
94
What is dissociative amnesia?
Inability to recall important personal information, usually related to traumatic events
## Footnote
Not normal forgetfulness
95
What are the forms of dissociative amnesia?
Types include:
* Localized amnesia
* Selective amnesia
* Generalized amnesia
* Continuous amnesia
* Systematized amnesia
96
What characterizes somatic symptom disorder?
Presence of one or more somatic symptoms causing distress or significant disruption in daily life
## Footnote
Symptoms must be persistent, usually more than 6 months
97
What is illness anxiety disorder?
Preoccupation with having a serious illness despite absence or mild presence of somatic symptoms
## Footnote
High level of anxiety about health is present for at least 6 months
98
What is functional neurological symptom disorder?
Presence of symptoms related to disturbances in voluntary motor or sensory functioning without a recognized neurological or medical condition
## Footnote
Symptoms suggest serious neurological condition
99
What is pica?
Eating non-food items for at least 1 month
## Footnote
Must be inappropriate for developmental level
100
What are the types of anorexia nervosa?
Types include:
* Restricting type
* Binge/purge type
101
What are common associated features of anorexia nervosa?
Features include:
* Excessive exercise
* Self-induced vomiting
* Use of laxatives/diuretics
* Preoccupation with food
102
What is the primary treatment goal for anorexia nervosa?
Gain weight
## Footnote
May require hospitalization
103
What characterizes bulimia nervosa?
Binge eating and compensatory behaviors occurring at least once a week for 3 months
## Footnote
Binges are often triggered by stress or dysphoric mood
104
What is binge eating disorder?
Recurrent episodes of binge eating without purging, occurring at least once a week for 3 months
105
What is enuresis?
Voiding of urine into bed or clothes at least 2 times a week for 3 or more consecutive months
## Footnote
Diagnosis used only for individuals at least 5 years old
106
What is insomnia disorder?
Dissatisfaction with sleep quality or quantity with one of the following:
* Difficulty initiating sleep
* Difficulty maintaining sleep
* Early morning waking
## Footnote
Occurs at least 3 nights per week for at least 3 months
107
What characterizes narcolepsy?
Attacks of irrepressible need for sleep occurring at least 3 times a week
## Footnote
Requires episodes of cataplexy and a hypocretin deficiency
108
What is erectile disorder?
Marked difficulty obtaining or maintaining an erection during sexual activity for at least 6 months
## Footnote
Rule out medical conditions
109
What are the symptoms of genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder?
Challenges with:
* Vaginal penetration during intercourse
* Pain with penetration
* Anxiety about the pain
* Tensing of pelvic floor muscles
110
What is gender dysphoria in children?
Strong desire to be another gender plus at least 6 symptoms lasting at least 6 months
111
What is conduct disorder?
Persistent pattern of behavior violating basic rights of others or age-appropriate social norms
## Footnote
Requires at least 3 characteristic symptoms in the past 12 months
112
What is the difference between life-course-persistent and adolescence-limited types of conduct disorder?
Life-course-persistent type begins early and becomes increasingly serious, while adolescence-limited type reflects a temporary form of antisocial behavior
113
What are the criteria for substance use disorders?
At least 2 characteristic symptoms in a 12-month period including impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria
## Footnote
Addiction is not a diagnostic criterion
114
What is the primary treatment for alcohol use disorder?
Combination of psychotherapeutic interventions and medication
## Footnote
Medications include naltrexone or disulfiram
115
What are symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
Symptoms include:
* Autonomic hyperactivity
* Hand tremor
* Insomnia
* Nausea or vomiting
* Hallucinations
* Seizures
116
What is alcohol-induced neurocognitive disorder?
Significant decline in one or more cognitive domains interfering with independence
## Footnote
Linked to thiamine deficiency
117
What is a confabulatory type?
A type of memory error where a person creates false memories without the intention to deceive
## Footnote
Often occurs in conditions like Korsakoff syndrome.
118
What are anterograde and retrograde amnesia?
Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories, while retrograde amnesia is the loss of pre-existing memories.
119
What is confabulation?
Making up memories in an attempt to compensate for memory gaps.
120
What deficiency is linked to confabulation?
Thiamine deficiency.
121
What is the most common sleep disorder induced by alcohol?
Insomnia.
122
What are the effects of alcohol intoxication on sleep?
Immediate sedation with stage 3 and 4 sleep reduction and increased REM, followed by increased wakefulness.
123
What happens during alcohol withdrawal in terms of sleep?
Severe disruption in sleep continuity with vivid dreams.
124
List some other substance-induced disorders.
* Stimulant intoxication
* Stimulant withdrawal
* Sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic intoxication
* Sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic withdrawal
* Opioid intoxication
* Opioid withdrawal.
125
What are the required symptoms for opioid withdrawal?
* Dysphoric mood
* Nausea or vomiting
* Muscle aches
* Lacrimation or rhinorrhea
* Pupillary dilation
* Piloerection or sweating
* Diarrhea
* Yawning
* Fever
* Insomnia.
126
What are the symptoms of tobacco withdrawal?
* Irritability or anger
* Anxiety
* Impaired concentration
* Increased appetite
* Restlessness
* Depressed mood
* Insomnia.
127
What is a core feature of neurocognitive disorders?
Deficits in cognitive function.
128
What characterizes delirium?
Disturbance in attention and awareness developing in a short period of time, with fluctuating severity.
129
What are some high-risk groups for delirium?
* Older adults
* People with decreased cerebral reserve (dementia, stroke, HIV)
* Postcardiotomy patients
* Burn patients
* People with drug dependence experiencing withdrawal.
130
What medical conditions can cause delirium?
* Systemic infections
* Metabolic disorders
* Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
* Postoperative states
* Head trauma.
131
What is the treatment for delirium?
* Treat underlying cause of disorder
* Reduce agitated behaviors
* Adjust environment
* Psychosocial interventions.
* Medications.
132
What defines major neurocognitive disorder?
Dementia not only in the context of delirium, with evidence of decline from previous functioning.
133
What defines mild neurocognitive disorder?
Evidence of modest decline from prior functioning that does not interfere with daily activities.
134
What is the most common cause of dementia?
Alzheimer's disease.
135
What is required for a diagnosis of probable Alzheimer's disease?
Evidence of causative genetic mutation, clear decline in memory, and steady decline in function.
136
What is the role of cholinesterase inhibitors in Alzheimer's treatment?
To enhance memory and cognitive function due to low levels of acetylcholine.
137
What is the main feature of Cluster A personality disorders?
Odd or eccentric behavior.
138
Define paranoid personality disorder.
Thinking others have harmful motives, leading to distrust and suspicion.
139
What is schizoid personality disorder characterized by?
Detachment from relationships and a restricted range of emotions in social settings.
140
What defines borderline personality disorder?
Insatiable relationships, unstable self-image, and impulsivity beginning in early adulthood.
141
What is the biosocial model proposed by Marsha Linehan?
Emotion dysregulation due to excessive emotional vulnerability and exposure to invalidating environments.
142
What is the primary treatment for borderline personality disorder?
Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT).
143
What characterizes avoidant personality disorder?
Social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy with hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.
144
What defines dependent personality disorder?
Excessive need to be taken care of, leading to submissive and clinging behavior.
145
What is a key feature of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)?
Preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control over mental and interpersonal matters.
