AC 2 Final Exam Flashcards

(157 cards)

1
Q

What are the ABCDEs of skin cancer?

A

Asymmetry
Border irregularity
Color
Diameter at least 1/4 in.
Evolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an actinic keratoses?

A

Premalignant lesions
More common in men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?

A

Cancer of epidermis
Metastasis common
Can be related to chronic skin damage
Most common in people with darker skin
Looks scaly, slightly red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a basal cell carcinoma (BCC)?

A

Basal cell layer of epidermis
Metastasis rare
Genetic, chronic irritation
Starts as small fleshy bumps
Looks shiny, red, elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What’s a melanoma?

A

Pigmented cancer arising in melanin producing epidermal cells
Highly metastatic
Genetic, excessive UV exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 4 types of skin cancer?

A

Actinic keratoses
Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is skin cancer/lesion treated?

A

Electrodesiccation and curettage (dig out)
Surgical excision (margins of 5 cm are best)
Mohs (for high risk or large BCC)
Cryosurgery (freezing area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What kind of diagnostic study is done for scabies?

A

Scraping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is contact dermatitis managed?

A

Obtain hx to identify causative agent
Avoidance therapy (once cause identified)
Steroid to suppress inflammation
Cool/moist dressings over topical steroids and increase absorption
No occlusive dressing with steroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

A scaling disorder related to dermal inflammation
Abnormal growth of epidermal cells in the outer skin layers
Autoimmune rx, lifelong with exacerbation & remissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the physical cues of scabies?

A

Shows up in folds, warm, moist areas
Pruritic
Blisters (small, red)
Can mimic contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is herpes zoster (singles) in eye a medical emergency?

A

It can lead to blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the characteristics of stage 1 pressure ulcer?

A

Redness that does not blanche when pressed
Reversible damage with the removal of pressure and shear force
Irregular erythema
Induration
Boggy or firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the characteristics of stage 2 pressure ulcer?

A

Damage that includes epidermis, dermis, or both
Shallow ulcer, blister or abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the characteristics of stage 3 pressure ulcer?

A

Injury to SubQ tissue
Goes to the underlying fascia, but not through
May have undermining
Deeper crater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the characteristics of stage 4 pressure ulcer?

A

Injury to the tissue that goes through the fascia
Includes structural visibility involvement: muscle, bone, tendon/ligament
May have osteomyelitis or septic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is a pressure ulcer unstageable?

A

When unable to determine the depth of tissue damage due to necrotic tissue covering wound bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can you prevent pressure ulcers?

A

Frequent repositioning, avoid over sedation
Barrier cream if incontinent
Pressure reduction with mattresses/cushion
Assessment
Adequate nutrition & hydration (30-35kcal/kg, 1-1.5g/kg protein, 1mL/kcal fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Norton scale is used to

A

Identify risk of pressure ulcer
Less the number, higher the risk
Scale of 5 to 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is pressure ulcer treated?

A

Pain control
Keep what is wet wet and what is dry dry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What prophylactic treatment should be given to a patient who is on continuous opioid analgesic?

A

Treat constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why can pain assessment in older adults be difficult?

A

Due to multiple chronic conditions
High incidence of cognitive impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How can you assess pain in cognitive impaired patients?

A

Baseline information (VS, agitation, ability to walk, stand, move, eating pattern, appetite, sleep pattern, elimination habits, etc.)
Talk with family or caregivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some behavioral symptoms that indicates pain?

A

Tense body language
Sad facial expression
Fidgeting
Persistent verbalizations
Verbal outbursts
Wandering, tearful, delusions, hallucination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What kind of pain is easily controlled with short acting analgesics?
Acute pain
26
What kind of pain is associated with post-op, procedural, traumatic injuries?
Acute pain
27
PCA pump is used for this type of pain
Acute pain
28
What is the characteristic of chronic pain?
Persists at fluctuating intensity
29
What are some manifestations of chronic pain?
Depression Eating, sleep disturbances Impaired function
30
What kind of pain is opioids, NSAIDs less effective?
Neuropathic pain
31
How is chronic pain treated?
Basal pain meds + different therapies for pain spikes Predictable spikes: short acting agent prior to event Unpredictable spikes: have short acting readily available
32
According to the WHO analgesic ladder, what kind of pain meds can you give for mild pain (1-3/10)?
Aspirin Acetaminophen NSAIDs Coanalgesics
33
According to the WHO analgesic ladder, what kind of pain meds can you give for moderate pain (4-6/10)?
Codeine Hydrocodone Oxycodone Nonopioid analgesic Coanalgesics
34
According to the WHO analgesic ladder, what kind of pain meds can you give for severe pain (7-10/10)?
Morphine Oxycodone Hydromorphone Fentanyl Nonopioid analgesics Coanalgesics
35
What is the maximum mg of acetaminophen per day?
4000mg
36
Demerol (meperidine) can cause ____ in older adults
Tremors and seizures
37
What are some non-pharmacologic pain treatment?
Massage Yoga Music Aromatherapy Acupuncture Hypnosis Hot/cold packs
38
What are some examples of coanalgesics?
Antidepressants Anticonvulsants Corticosteroids Etc
39
What are the 5 important elements of the WHO 3-step model of analgesic dosing?
By mouth By the clock By the ladder For the individual With attention to detail
40
What does hospice care do?
Management of pain and control of symptoms At home or free standing hospice facility Hospice pays for meds for comfort measures Individualized plan of care
41
What is the eligibility for hospice care?
Prognosis of 6 months or less (however benefit is not limited to 6 months)
42
Hospice services include
Physician, nursing care Medical appliances and supplies Drugs for management and comfort Homemaker and home health aide services Short term inpatient and respite care Counseling Bereavement services
43
Can palliative care be part of hospice?
Yes
44
What is the difference between hospice and palliative care?
Similar; both focuses on comfort and symptom management. Hospice is more of individual, while palliative cares patient and family as unit Quality of life, not quantity
45
What are the 5 stages of dying according to Elisabeth Kubler-Ross?
Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance
46
What are the common symptoms at the end of life?
Dyspnea Constipation Fatigue Anorexia and cachexia Cough N/V Anxiety Delirium
47
What medications are used to manage EOL dyspnea?
Opioids Bronchodilators Diuretics
48
What non-pharmacologic treatments are used to treat EOL dyspnea?
Humidified O2 Counseling Pursed lip breathing Energy conservation Fans, HOB elevation Music/massage
49
How is anorexia & cachexia treated during EOL?
Dietary consultation Medications (appetite stimulant?) Parenteral/enteral nutrition Odor control Counseling
50
How is stomatitis/dysphagia treated during EOL?
Social activity of eating Treat infections, obstructions and reflux Diet modifications Benefit vs. burden of feeding tubes Oral hygiene Oral lubricants
51
How is EOL fatigue treated?
Meds (steroids, antidepressants, EPO, blood transfusion) Nonpharm (rest, conserve energy, PT/OT)
52
How is EOL N/V managed?
Anticholinergics Steroids Benzodiazepines Antinausea drugs (zofran, granisetron)
53
When should antinausea meds administered when managing EOL N/V?
Before symptoms occurs
54
How is EOL cough treated?
Chest PT Humidification Elevate HOB Suction Cough suppressants
55
How is EOL anxiety managed?
Antidepressants Benzodiazepines
56
What are some s/s of death?
Dehydration Decreased urine output Cold & mottled extremities VS changes Respiratory congestion including respiratory bubbling Changes in breathing patterns Confusion Decreased/lack of swallowing reflex
57
What are some psychological/spiritual symptoms of death?
Fear of abandonment, dying process, unknown Nearing death awareness Withdrawal from family, friends, cargivers
58
What is the nurses' role in EOL?
Know your own feeling about death and EOL issues Start discussion early Make sure patient and family is communicating Listen
59
What are some nursing cares at the end of life?
Pain/symptom relief Skin integrity Bowel/bladder care Oral care, ice chips, eye care
60
What does possible melanoma look like?
Asymmetrical Well-defined border Color can be dark with fleck of other colors Diameter more than 6-7mm Can be elevated
61
How is Mohs done?
Local anesthesia Cut some out, look in the microscope. If more cancer cells in the area, cut more. Repeat until cancer cell gone
62
What is the palliative care priority?
Pain management
63
Does RA cause pain with activity that improves with rest?
No. It's quite the opposite
64
Can a person with osteoporosis lose height?
Yes
65
Prednisone long-term use can cause
Fractures
66
What medication is given to RA patients when all the treatment fails?
Methotrexate
67
What are some post-op knee replacement care?
Early ambulation - can be full weight bearing Pain management CPM (knee in neutral position)
68
What medication is used to manage gout pain?
NSAIDs
69
What supplements are needed for elderly?
Vitamin A, C, D Calcium
70
Why is community resources good for cancer patients and for grief support?
Let their feelings out without judgement, feeling validation, can get tips from other people who have been through a same/similar situation, trauma bond
71
How is pernicious anemia managed?
B12 injection monthly then oral B12
72
What's included in low cholesterol diet?
More greens Lean meat Chicken, turkey, fish Limit red, fatty meat
73
What should you do when you are infusing T-PA but the patient starts getting confused?
Stop infusion May be a sign of bleeding
74
What education is needed for pt with PVD?
Good shoes Skin care to prevent ulcers Dry between toes Foot care
75
When can we give Alteplase (t-PA)?
Ischemic stroke BP < 185/110 Within 4.5 hours of onset No active bleeding
76
What are some symptoms of cataract?
Painless, blurred vision Decrease in ability to perceive color
77
When can you expect for your vision to be improved after the cataract surgery?
On the day of surgery
78
Can otitis media cause N/V?
Yes, because it's affecting middle ear
79
Can heating pad help with earache?
Yes
80
Does cataract surgery require general anesthesia and an overnight hospital stay?
No; it's just some eyedrops to numb and they do surgery. You are awake
81
How long should you hold your breath after inhaling albuterol?
10 seconds
82
What are some a/e of captopril when used the first time?
Orthostatic/postural hypotension Hyperkalemia Low BP
83
What is the simple test used to immigrants at Ellis Island to check for heart failure?
Walking up the steps
84
According to the Heart Failure Core Measure Set, what should be done for the patient with HF before discharge?
ACE inhibitors Cardiac diet (no added salt, limit Na to 2g/day) ECHO for EF
85
What's the purpose of Alzheimer's meds?
Improve symptoms
86
What is the main reason for fall in elderly?
Muscle weakness
87
What diagnostic tool is used for COPD pt with cough?
Spirometry used over x-ray
88
Does COPD every get better?
No. They can only hope for improved QOL. Bronchodilators help with this goal
89
Is there a vaccine for herpes zoster?
Yes; Recombinant zoster (shingles) vaccine
90
Herpes zoster can cause some
Neuralgia
91
What can pt with dermatitis put on their skin to prevent exacerbation from hot, dry, air/heat?
Emollients
92
What diagnostic test is used to diagnose CLL?
Bone marrow aspiration
93
What kind of therapy is used for CLL?
Targeted therapy We don't want to expose too much
94
What are some causes of iron deficiency anemia?
Lack of iron consumption Bleeding Low hemoglobin
95
How does A. fib compromise cardiac output?
Atrium don't have time to fill, so ventricle can't pump adequate blood throughout the body -> decreased perfusion
96
What kind of food should you give to pt with Parkinson's?
Soft, thickened food No finger foods (too hard)
97
What activity/movement can help Parkinson's pt with ambulation?
Marching in place
98
Why are deadbolts sometimes necessary in Alzheimer's patients?
Safety risk
99
An elderly woman was possible raped and comes to the ER. The nurse must call the poilice immediately
False. Talk to manager first, follow the policy/facility protocol If not, pt will lose in court
100
Why do we not give prophylactic antibiotic to neutropenic patients?
Due to risk of antibiotic resistance
101
What do you need to monitor in patients who is getting radiation therapy to sites containing bone marrow?
Infection; can lower WBC
102
NSAIDs should be avoided in elderly due to risk of
Kidney impairment
103
Can you give sublingual morphine to a dying patient who can't swallow?
Yes Sublingual does not require swallowing Benefit vs. risk
104
What kind of breathing is a sign of death?
Cheyne-Stokes
105
Can fentanyl patches cause respiratory suppression/depression in elderly?
Yes
106
What are the 4 cardinal symptoms of Parkinson's?
Tremors Postural instability Bradykinesia Muscle rigidity
107
What is the priority assessment when someone presents to the ED with complaints of stroke?
Onset of time; when was the last time you were normal? To see if we can start t-PA or not
108
What is the main complication of A. fib?
Stroke r/t blood clot
109
How do you treat scabies?
Permethrin cream
110
What is the name of the rash caused by heat and skin/skin friction? Often occurs under the breast or in the axilla
Intertrigo (type of dermatitis)
111
Adjunctive (additional) drugs used for pain include
Antidepressants, anticonvulsants, corticosteroids
112
What are the signs of PVD?
Brown discoloration, redness, itching and burning
113
What is the most common type of skin cancer?
Basal cell carcinoma
114
How do you know if tamsulosin is working?
Able to pass urine Tamsulosin is for BPH
115
What are some interventions for acute HF?
Fluid restriction Diuretic Monitor VS, edema Low sodium diet
116
What is the best COPD prevention?
Smoking cessation
117
What is the most common cause of skin cancer?
Sun damage
118
Other than ABCDEs of skin cancer, what are some more signs of skin cancer?
Open sore that doesn't heal for 3 weeks Spot/sore that burns, itches, stings, crusts or bleeds
119
Which skin cancer metastasis easily/commonly?
Squamous cell carcinoma
120
What skin condition is caused by contact with an irritant/allergen and results in cell-mediated immune reaction?
Contact dermatitis
121
How is psoriasis treated?
Topical steroids Topical tar UV light
122
How is shingles treated?
Antivirals Pain management
123
What does an elevated BNP indicate?
Ventricular stretch Usually with FVO
124
What are some signs of FVO?
Edema, SOB, crackles, tachycardia
125
What are some signs of right sided HF?
Ascites Edema JVD
126
When does palliative care begin?
When someone has a terminal diagnosis
127
What are the 7 factors of geriatric syndrome?
Immobility Falls Constipation Urinary incontinence Delirium Polypharmacy Frailty
128
What indicates high risk of fall during TUG test?
If patient takes 12 seconds or more
129
Where does nutrition assessment start?
Mouth
130
What is the most difficult symptom in BPH?
Nocturia
131
What BPH medication decreases usable testosterone/decrease production to reduce prostate size?
Finasteride
132
What OTC supplement/med is commonly used in BPH?
Saw palmetto
133
What should you do if there's increased bleeding after TURP?
Increase fluid through cath to flush out & stop bleeding
134
How does Parkinson's progress?
Unilateral, pill rolling tremor -> bilateral tremor, mask like face -> postural instability -> akinesia -> completely dependent
135
How is Parkinson's diagnosed?
By exclusion
136
What's the big s/e of Levodopa?
Orthostatic hypotension
137
Thrombolic stroke is caused by
Atherosclerosis
138
What type of stroke occurs frequently during activity?
Hemmorhagic
139
What's the most important nursing care for post-op endarterectomy of TIA?
Maintain BP (BP too high -> rupture) Bleeding (enlarged neck, deviated trachea, respiratory distress)
140
What's the FAST assessment?
Facial drooping Arm weakness Speech difficulty Time to call 911
141
What's the ABCS of heart health to prevent stroke?
Aspirin when appropriate BP control Cholesterol management Smoking cessation
142
What is the nursing care priority for HF patient?
Fluid volume management Monitor urine output, BP/HR, LOC, temp of extremities
143
L. sided HF is treated with
ACE inhibitors ARBs
144
Concerning weight change in HF
+ >2lbs overnight + >5lbs from goal weight - > 5lbs from goal weight
145
When is chemical cardioversion used?
When pt hemodynamically stable Adenosine 6/12 mg
146
When is electrical cardioversion used?
When pt hemodynamically unstable When we can't use chemical (upcoming ablation) Synchronized to deliver electrical current on the R wave
147
What is Sick Sinus Syndrome?
Dysfunctional SA node to HR fluctuates from bradycardia to tachycardia and vice versa
148
What are the physical assessment findings of PAD?
Cool temp Absent hair growth Ulcer on lower leg Intermittent claudication Muscle atrophy
149
Where's the PVD ulcer usually located?
Foot; upper foot ulceration
150
In which venous condition would you NOT elevate lower extremities?
Arterial; away from the body
151
A patient is on ACE inhibitor, Beta blocker, and diuretic. You notice pt's HR and BP are low. What medications will you hold?
Hold ACE inhibitor and Beta blocker But give diuretic
152
Chronic bronchitis (blue bloaters) s/s
Overweight Cyanotic Elevated Hgb Peripheral edema Rhonchi and wheezing
153
Emphysema (pink puffers) s/s
Older and thin Severe dyspnea Quiet chest (not much air movement) Hyperinflation & flatten diaphragms in CXR due to trapped air
154
DEXA scan is used to diagnose
Osteoporosis
155
What are the B symptoms?
Fevers Night sweats Unintentional weight loss Infections
156
What's a big thing in multiple myeloma?
Bone pain
157
How is multiple myeloma diagnosed using blood test?
C: elevated calcium R: renal insufficiency A: anemia B: bone lesion