Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ACE > ACE 02 Client Assessment 31% > Flashcards

ACE 02 Client Assessment 31% Flashcards

1
Q

Threes main types of joints

A
  1. Fibrous - little or no movement (synarthroidal)
  2. Cartilaginous - bones connected by cartilage. Little or no movement
  3. Synovial- most common, freely moveable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Uniplannaror uniaxial joints

A

Hinge joints
Allow movement in only one direction
Ankle and elbows are examples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

4 groups of movement that occur in synovial joints

A
  1. Gliding
  2. Angular
  3. Circumduction
  4. Rotation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Four angular movements

A
  1. Flexion - elbow fore arm to upper arm
  2. Extension - knee extension ( calf to back of thigh)
  3. Abduction -lift arm from middle line to the side
  4. Adduction - move arm from side to middle line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Axial skeleton protect which system?

A

Central nervous system (CNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 parts of nervous system

A

CNS - central nervous system

PNS - peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 categories of pns

A

Afférent (sensory)

Efferent (motor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fight or flight response

A

Sympathetic nervous system is activated when there is a stressor or an emergency, such as pain, anger, or fear.

Affects nearly every organ to stop storing energy and mobilize resource to respond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2 auto nerve systems

A

Sympathetic - stress

Parasympathetic- relax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Two types of musculotendinous receptor involved in muscular control and coordination

A

Golgi tendon organ (GTO)

Muscle spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Function of vestibular system

A

Sensory info related to position of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Anterior (ventral)

A

Toward the front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Three types of muscle tissue

A
  1. skeletal muscle (aka striated muscle)
  2. smooth muscle
  3. cardiac muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2 types of tendons

A
  1. Tendons of origin - typically less mobile

2. Tendons of insertion - usually more moveable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pairings of muscles - agonists and antagonists

A
  1. Agonist (aka prime mover) contracts
  2. Antagonist (aka opposing muscle) stretched

at a joint to create movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 general categories of skeletal muscle based on how quickly it contracts

A
  1. fast-twitch muscle fibres (aka type II muscle fibers)
  2. slow-twitch muscle fibres (aka Slow-oxidative; type I muscle fibres)
    -relatively more mitochondria
    -surrounded by more capillaries
    -higher concentrations of myoglobin
    -contract more slowly than fast-twitch fibres
    -create lower force outputs
    -more efficient than fast-twitch fibres
    &raquo_space; more resistant to fatigue
    » sustaining aerobic metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Two subtypes of fast-twitch fibers

A
  1. type IIx
    -aka fast-glycolytic fibers
    -limited capacity for aerobic metabolism
    -fatigue more easily than slow-twitch fibres
    cannot sustain more than few seconds.
  2. type IIa
    - used for strength and power activities
    - sustain effort longer than type IIx fibres up to 3 mins in highly trained athletes
    - highly adaptable
    - increase oxidative capacity to levels similar to slow-twitch fibres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

where does energy come from when muscle finer contracts?

A

primarily from a substance within the cell called adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Muscle contraction occurs when the brain and spinal cord director motor neurone to release?

A

a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Stretchability of collagenous fiber

A
  • relatively inextensible

- extension of about 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Stretchability of elastic fibers

A
  • stretched to more than 150% of original length do they reach tier rupture point
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two connective tissues that work together to support and facilitate joint movement?

A

Elastic fibers and collagen fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is tendon?

A
  • cord like tissues
  • connect muscles to bones
  • transmit force from muscle to bone producing motion
  • provide approximately 10% of resistance to movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is ligament?

A
  • support a joint by attaching bone to bone
  • various shapes (cords, bands, sheets)
  • greater mixture of elastic and fine collagenous fibres more than tendons
  • allows freedom of movement but also strong, touch and inextensible
  • contribute about 47% of total resistance to movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

3 categories of fascia

A
  1. superficial fascia - below skin
  2. deep fascia - under superficial fascia. tougher, tighter; direct related to flexibility and range of motion
  3. subserous fascia - support innermost body cavities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is fascia?

A
  • enable safe and effective transmission of forces throughout the whole muscle
  • provide lubrications between muscle fibres to change shape
  • ensures proper alignment of muscle fibres, blood vessels and nerves
  • contributes 41% of total resistance to join range of motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when is the best time to train flexibility

A

should be performed later in the day to decrease risk of injury to the disks and surrounding structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

4 posterior muscles that anchor the scapula

A
  1. trapezius
  2. rhomboid major
  3. rhomboid minor
  4. levator scapulae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

group of Four muscles at shoulder that is called the rotator cuff

A

SITS

S- Supraspinatus
I - Infraspinatus
T teres minor
S - Subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

deltoid muscle

A

large muscle that forms a cap over and around the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

sartorius muscle

A

longest muscle in the body crosses both the hip and the knee

-aka tailor muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

4 quadriceps muscles

A
  1. rectus femoris
  2. vastus lateralis
  3. vastus intermedius
  4. vastus medialis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Gluteus maximus function

A
  • acts as an extensor and rotator of the hip

- running, hopping, and jumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3 muscles of hamstring muscle group

A
  1. biceps fermoris
    semimembranosus
    semitendinosus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Muscle growth

A

aka chronic hypertrophy - strength gains experienced after a prolonged period of resistance training.

early gains in strength are attributed to changes in the nervous system not muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Type of resistance training that evokes most muscle hypertrophy

A

eccentric actions combined with high-velocity training promote greater increases in hypertrophy than concentric actions and slower-velocity training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is GTO (glory tendon organs) located?

A

between the muscle belly and its tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

can neutrons transmit impulse because they are connected?

A

no. neutrons are separated by small space called synapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

During ______ stretching, the activation of GTOs cause the muscle spindles to relax and, therefore, an increase in the stretch.

A

Static

after 7 to 10 seconds of low-force stretch, the increase in muscle tension activates a GTO response. Under GTO activation, muscle spindle activity within the stretched muscle is temporally inhibited, allowing further muscle stretching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

location of muscle spindles

A

parallel to the muscle fibres mostly in the muscle belly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When the muscle spindle’s reflex contraction occurs, it causes the antagonist muscle group to relax. This is known as __________.

A

Reciprocal inhibition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anterior (ventral)

A

toward the front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Posterior (dorsal)

A

toward the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

superior

A

toward the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

inferior

A

away from the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

medial

A

toward the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

lateral

A

away from the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

proximal

A

toward the attached end of the limb, origin of the structure, or midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

distal

A

away from the attached end of the limb, origin of the structure, or midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

superficial

A

external; located close to or on the body surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

deep

A

internal; located further beneath the body surface than the superficial structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

cervical

A

regional term referring to the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

thoracic

A

regional term referring to the portion of the body between the neck and the abdomen; also known as the chest (thoras)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

lumbara

A

regional term referring to the portion of the back between the abdomen and the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

plantar

A

the sole of bottom of the feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

dorsal

A

the top surface of the feet and hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

palmar

A

the anterior or ventral surface of the hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

sagittal plane

A

a longitudinal (imaginary) line that divides the body or any of its parts into right and left sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

frontal plan

A

a longitudinal (imaginary) section that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

transverse plane

A

aka horizonetal plane; imaginary line that divides the body or its parts into superior and inferior sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

crachium

A

arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

cephalo

A

head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

dermo

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

costo

A

rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

hemo, hemat

A

blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

ilio

A

illium; pelvic bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

myo

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

os, osteo

A

bone; osteomalacia - softening of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

pulmo

A

lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

thoraco

A

chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

abduction

A

motion away from the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

adduction

A

motion toward the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

flexio

A

decreasing angele between two bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

extension

A

increasing angle between two bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

pronation

A

of the forearm, rotating the hand the wrist from the elbow to the palm-down position (elbow flexed) or back (elbow extended)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

supination

A

of the forearm, rotating the hand and wrist from the elbow to the palm-up position (elbow flexed) or frward (elbow extended)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

opposition

A

thumb movement unique to primats and humans that follows a semicircle toward the little finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

agonist

A

aka prime mover, muscle that causes a desired motion.

antgonists are muscles that have the potential to oppose the action of the agonist.

e.g. shoulder flexion is the desired action, the should flexors are the agonists and the shoulder extensors are the antagonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

synergist

A

muscles assist the agonist in causing a desired action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

co-contraction

A

describes when the agonist and antagonists contract together and a joint must be stabilized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

types of muscular actions

A
  1. Static (Isometric) action - come from co-contraction, external force e.g. gracity
    > used in proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching techniques
    > balance and stabilization training
    > e.g. v-sit, hold at the top of a push-up
  2. Concentric (Shortening) action - muscle shortens and overcomes resistive force.
    > e.g. up phase of biceps curl with a dumbbell.
  3. Eccentric (Lengthening) action - muscle is producing force and is ‘lengthening, or returning to its resting length from a shortened position. slowering the descent of a weight.
    > e.g. biceps brachii act eccentrically int he return phase of a ciceps curl performed with a dumbbell.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

COG

A

Center of gravity

83
Q

static balance exercise often involve_____.

A

narrowing the base of support

84
Q

4 primary types of tissue are….

A
  1. muscular
  2. nervous
  3. connective
  4. epithelial
85
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four types of tissue found in human body?

  1. muscular
  2. nervous
  3. vascular
  4. epithelial
A

Vascular

86
Q

Which of the following movements takes place in the frontal plane?

  1. flexion at the elbow
  2. depression of the scapulae
A

depression of the scapulae

87
Q

Movements that take place in the frontal plane are…

A 
abduction
adduction
elevation
depression
inversion
eversion
88
Q

Does performing a cartwheel requires static balance?

A

No. Dynamic balance is the ability

89
Q

Is this statement true?

Joint mobility must never be attained by compromising joint stability.

A

True

90
Q

When looking to improve joint stability, open-chain exercises should be performed. True or false?

A

False.

In an open-chain exercise, the end of the chain fartherst from the body is free, such as in a seated leg extension. Open-chain exercises tend to involve more shearing forces at the joints, while closed-chain exercises tend to emphasize compression of joints, which helps stabilize the joints. Additionally, closed-chain exercises involve more muscles and joints than open-chain exercise, whic leads to better neuromuscular coordination and overall stability at the joints.

91
Q

Autogenic inhibition

A

relaxation response to an extreme stretch

GTO prevents from tearing, prevents muscle spindle response

92
Q

Reciprocal inhibition

A

neural mechanism that allows an antagonist to relax when agonist muscle is contracted

93
Q

Stretching techniques

A
  1. Static stretch 15-30s; 3 to 4 x

Passive stretch

94
Q

3 basic types of PNF (proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation) stretches

A
  1. hold-relax technique
    &raquo_space; after passive 10s pre-stretch
    &raquo_space; hold 6s so isometric muscle contraction occurs
    &raquo_space; relax muscle group and allows a passive stretch 30s
  2. contract-relax
    &raquo_space; after passive 10s pre-stretch
    &raquo_space; push against the force provided by the fitness pro so concentric muscle contraction occurs
    &raquo_space; relax muscle group and allows a passive stretch 30s
  3. hold-relax with agonist contraction
    &raquo_space; after passive 10s pre-stretch
    &raquo_space; hold 6s so isometric muscle contraction occurs
    &raquo_space; concentric action of the opposing muscle group is added during the final passive stretch
    &raquo_space; most effective since it utilises both reciprocal and autogenic inhibition

for each technique, partner provides a passive pre-stretch of 10 seconds as initial step.

95
Q

Neurological properties of Stretching

A

tissues change form in response to the force that’s placed upon them. Depends on:

  1. type of tissue
  2. amount of force
  3. temperature of tissue
96
Q

Passive stretch

A

3rd party adding force on the stretch

97
Q

stretch reflex

A

reflexive muscle contraction that occurs in response to rapid stretching of the muscle

98
Q

Dynamic Stretching

A

help athletes prepare for competition

99
Q

Ballistic stretching

A

stretch that incorporates bouncing type movements

100
Q

Active isolated stretching

A

original for surgery patients, follows a design similar to a traditional strength-training workout

stretch are never held for more than 2s.
stretch is then released, return to starting position
repeat several reps with each subsequent movement exceeding the resistance point by a few degrees

101
Q

What kind of stretching is more likely to result in plastic, or permanent, lengthening

A

low-force, longer-duration stretches at elevated tissue temperatures

102
Q

Practice of holding static stretch for 15 to 30 s appears to be the most effective for increasing range of motion

A

15-30s most effective to increase range of motion, repeated 3/4 times

103
Q

ADL

A

activities of daily living

104
Q

Bend and lift screen

A

squats - don’t tell client techniques

common issues:

  1. inward knees
  2. arched back
  3. heels lifted
105
Q

What does palms face backward when hands are positioned at the sides indicate?

A

internal (medial) rotation of the humrus and/ or scapular protraction

106
Q

What does an anterior pelvic tilt and forward torso lean during the hurdle step screen indicate?

A

tight stance -leg hip flexors and weak rectus abdominis and back extensors

107
Q

an inability to lay the back of the right thigh completely flat on the table during the thomas test indicate?

A

tightness of the right iliopsoas, which is preventing the hip from rotating posteriorly and inhibiting the thigh from being able to touch the table

108
Q

normal length of the hamstrings in the passive straight-leg (PSL) test indicated when the raised leg archives >= how many degrees of movement before the pelvis rotates posteriorly?

A

80 degrees

109
Q

Ability to externally rotate the forearms ? degrees to touch the mat indicates good mobility in INTERNAL (medial) ROTATORS?

A

90 degrees

110
Q

Ability to internally rotate the forearms ? degrees towards the mat indicates good mobility in EXTERNAL (lateral) ROTATORS?

A

70 degrees

111
Q

Objective of Internal and external rotation test

A

Test shoulder mobility

112
Q

What is the purpose of stability and mobility training?

A

Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations found through functional and postural assessments

113
Q

Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilisation screen would MOST likely be due to ______

A

scapulothoracic joint sttability

114
Q

An individual is using a resistance band to perform very short-duration (less than 2 seconds per stretch) hamstring stretches in sets of eight repetitions. What flexibility-training technique is this person using?

A

Active isolated stretching

Active isolated stretching follows a design similar to a traditional strength-training workout. Instead of holding stretches for 15 to 30 seconds at a point of resistance (i.e., mild discomfort), stretches are never held for more than two seconds. The stretch is then released, the body segment returned to the starting position, and the stretch is repeated for several repetitions.

115
Q

Barring structural differences in the skeletal system, a pronated ankle ________________.

A

Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur

Ankle pronation forces internal rotation at the knee and places additional stresses on some knee ligaments and the integrity of the joint itself. Additionally, as pronation tends to move the calcaneus into eversion, this may actually lift the outside of the heel slightly off the ground (moving the ankle into plantarflexion). In turn, this may tighten the calf muscles and potentially limit ankle dorsiflexion.

116
Q

The coupling relationship between tight __________ and __________ is defined as the lower-cross syndrome (LCS).

A

Hip flexors; erector spinae

Tight or overdominant hip flexors are generally coupled with tight erector spinae muscles, producing an anterior pelvic tilt. This coupling relationship between tight hip flexors and erector spinae is defined as the lower-cross syndrome.

A posterior pelvic tilt is caused by tightness in the rectus abdominis and hamstrings.

117
Q

Anterior pelvic tilt indicates… (butt towards the back)

A

Tight or overdominant hip flexors are generally coupled with tight erector spinae muscles. AKA Lower-cross syndrome (LCS).

muscles suspected to be lengthened: hamstrings, recturs abdominis

118
Q

posterior pelvic tilt indicates… (butt towards the front)

A

tightness in the rectus abdominis and hamstrings.

muscles suspected to be lengthened: hip flexors, erectors spinae

119
Q

An elevated shoulder may present with an overdeveloped or tight ___________, while a depressed shoulder may present with more forward rounding of the _______.

A

upper trapezius muscle

scapula

120
Q

When performing a shoulder screen and observing the client from a posterior view, a trainer notices an outward protrusion of the vertebral borders, but not the inferior angles, of the scapulae. What deviation is most likely being observed?

A

Scapular protraction

Why?

Noticeable protrusion of the vertebral (medial) border outward is termed “scapular protraction,” while noticeable protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward is termed “winged scapulae.”

121
Q

While performing the bend and lift screen on a new client you observe that the downward (eccentric) movement is initiated at the knees. What would you suspect is causing the compensation?

A

Quadriceps and hip flexor dominance

Movement initiated at the knees may indicate quadriceps and hip flexor dominance, as well as insufficient activation of the gluteus group.

122
Q

During the hurdle step screen, you observe that the client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt with a forward torso lean. What muscles should you suspect of being underactive or weak?

A

Rectus abdominis and hip extensors

If a client exhibits an anterior tilt with a forward torso lean, he or she likely has overactive or tight stance-leg hip flexors and underactive or weak rectus abdominis and hip extensors.

123
Q

During the Thomas Test, you observe that when the client holds the back and sacrum flat, the back of the lowered thigh touches the table, but the knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscle(s) should you suspect of being tight?

A

Rectus femoris

Why?

When a client is unable to flex the knee to 80 degrees, a personal trainer should suspect tightness in the rectus femoris, which does not allow the knee to bend.

124
Q

Reasons to stop a client while he or she is performing the sharpened Romberg test

A

During the sharpened Romberg test, the trainer should continue to time the client’s performance until one of the following occurs:

  1. the client loses postural control and balance,
  2. the client’s feet move on the floor,
  3. the client’s eyes open,
  4. the client’s arms move from the folded position, or
  5. the client exceeds 60 seconds with good postural control.
125
Q

A male client performs the stork-stand balance test and is able to hold the position for 46 seconds. How would you rate this client’s performance?

A

Good

126
Q

Which of the following postural deviations MOST LIKELY indicates that a client has medially (internally) rotated shoulders?

A

Anterior view: backs of hands are visible

Scapular protraction can also be identified from the anterior view. If the knuckles or the backs of the client’s hands are visible when the hands are positioned at the sides, this generally indicates internal (medial) rotation of the humerus and/or scapular protraction.

127
Q

objective of bend and lift screen

A

examine symmetrical lower-extremity mobility and stability, and upper-extremity stability during a bend and lift movement

128
Q

objective of hurdle step screen

A

examine simultaneous mobility of one limb and stability of the contralateral limb while maintain both hip and torso stabilization during a balance challenge of standing on one leg

129
Q

objective of shoulder push stabilization screen

A

examine stabilization of the scapulothoracic joint and core control during closed-kinetic-chain pushing movements

130
Q

objective of thoracic spine mobility screen

A

examine bilateral mobility of the thoracic spine. Lumbar spine rotation is considered insignification, as it only offers approximately 15 degress of rotation

131
Q

objective of thomas test

A

objective to assess the length of the muscles involved in hip flexion. usually assess the length of the primary hip flexors.

should not be conducted on clients suffering from low-back pain

132
Q

objective of passive straight-leg raise (PSL)

A

to assess the length of the hamstrings

> = 80 degress of movement before pelvis rotates is normal hamstrings length

133
Q

objective of Shoulder Flexion and Extension test

A

asses the degree of shoulder flexion and extension. should be performed in conjunction with Apley’s scratch test.

Shoulder flexion test: shoulders and hands touching/ nearly touching floor - good shoulder mobility.

Should extension tes: abe to extend the shoulders to 50-60 degress off the floor facing down: good shoulder mobility

134
Q

objective of internal and external rotation of Humerus

A

assess internal (medial) and external (lateral) rotation of the humerus at the shoulder joint. This test should be performed in conjunction with Apley’s scratch test to determine if the limitation occurs with internal or external rotation of the humerus

good mobility:
rotate arms back to touch the mat
rotate arms forward 70 degress or above

135
Q

objective of Apley’s scratch test

A

assess simultaneous movements of the shoulder firdle (primarily the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joints)

136
Q

objective of sharpened romberg test

A

assess static balance by standing with a reduced base of support while removing visual sensory information

137
Q

3 tests of Mcgrill’s torso muscular endurance test battery

A
  1. trunk flexor endurance test
  2. trunk lateral endurance test
  3. trunk extensor endurance test
138
Q

Estimate maximum heart rate (MHR)

A

220 - age
Deviation of app. +-12 beats bpm

Tanaka less deviation
208 - (0.7 x age)
Deviation closer to 7bpm

139
Q

Absolute strength

A

one-rep maximum (1-RM). greatest amount of weight that can be lifted one time.

140
Q

Relative strength

A

absolute strength/ body weight

141
Q

What is anaerobic power?

A

anaerobic power involves a single rep or event and represents the max amount of power the body can genreate

142
Q

What is anaerobic capacity?

A

anaerobic capacity represents the sustainability of power output for brief periods of time

143
Q

What tests are used to assess anaerobic power?

A

standing long jump test

vertical jump test

144
Q

What identifiable signs or symptoms that merit immediate test termination and possible referral to a qualified healthcare pro is related to poor perfusion?

A

Cyanosis

145
Q

What is claudication?

A

a condition in which cramping pain in the leg is induced by exercise, typically caused by obstruction of the arteries.

146
Q

Individuals who are short in stature may not be good candidates for which type of testing?

A

Step tests

147
Q

Which cardiorespiratory fitness tests uses the immediate post-recovery heart rate to assess a client’s fitness level?

A

YMCA submaximal step test

In step tests, fitness level is determined by the immediate post-exercise recovery heart rate (HR). In essence, the lower the exercising or recover HR, the higher the level of fitness.

148
Q

The risk of heart attack and sudden cardiac death during exercise among fitness facility members is _____ that of cardiac patients in a supervised rehabilitation program.

A

Triple

149
Q

Relative strength formular

A

absolute strenght/ body weight

150
Q

What test best measure sports skills on ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction , and accelerate again?

A

Pro agility test

151
Q

Which response would warrant immediate termination of exercise testing?

A

DBP diastolic blood pressure > 115mmHg OR
SBP > 250 mmHg

During the adminstration of any exercise test involving exertion, trainers must always be aware of identifiable signs or symptoms that merit immediate test termination and possible referral to a qualified healthcare pro, inc a signification drop (>10 mmHg) in SBP despite an increase in exercise intensity or an excessie rise in BP.

152
Q

Which assessment doe NOT use predicted maximal heart rate or predicated VO2 max, but instead provides an actual measured heart rate that corresponds to the client’s unique metabolic response to exercise?

A

Submaximal talk test for VT1

153
Q

Which of the following is the BEST tool for assessing lower-body muscular strength?

A

1-RM squat test

The 1-RM squat test is the only test in the provided responses that assesses lower-extremity strength

154
Q

When preparing a client for one-rep maximum strength test, what percentage of the client’s estimated 1-RM should the personal trainer encourage the client to use during the first warm-up set?

A

50%

155
Q

Which of the following tests measures an individual’s ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again?

A

Pro agility test

156
Q

After performing skinfold measurements with a male client, his body-fat percentage is calculated to be 26%. How would you rank this client in terms of body-fat percentage?

A

Obese

Why?

In males, a body-fat percentage of 25% or higher is considered obese.

157
Q

Question:

Which of these assessments measures a client’s muscular endurance?

A

Push-up test

Why?

The push-up test measures upper-body endurance, specifically of the pectoralis muscles, triceps, and anterior deltoids. Due to common variations in upper-body strength between men and women, women should be assessed while performing a modified push-up

158
Q

What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client’s health is considered at risk?

A

> 0.86

Why?

A female client’s health is considered at risk when her WHR is above 0.86. For men, that threshold is above 0.95.

159
Q

If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of someone performing that activity?

A

21 mL/kg/min

Why?

1 MET is equal to 3.5 mL/kg/min, so 6 METs = 6 x 3.5 mL/kg/min = 21 mL/kg/min

160
Q

Which of the following types of physiological assessment is contraindicated for a client with asthma?

A

Ventilatory threshold test

Why?

This type of testing is not recommended for:

Individuals with certain breathing problems [asthma or other chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)]Individuals prone to panic/anxiety attacks, as the labored breathing may create discomfort or precipitate an attackThose recovering from a recent respiratory infection

161
Q

You are performing the YMCA submaximal Step Test on a 40 year old, apparently healthy, female client who you have been working with for the past 4 weeks. After completing the 3-minute assessment you immediately have the client sit down and measure her heart rate for 1 minute. Her post exercise heart rate is recorded as 96 beats per minute. How would you classify this client’s cardiorespiratory endurance?

A

Good

Why?

Based on the data presented in Table 8-17, a woman between the ages of 36 and 45 who has a post-exercise heart rate of 96 beats per minute would be classified as having “Good” cardiorespiratory endurance. Lower heart rates following the test correlate with higher cardiorespiratory endurance (for both men and women). Conversely, higher heart rates suggest lower levels of cardiorespiratory endurance.

162
Q

How many cal per gram of carbohydrate?

A

around 4 cal per gram of carb

163
Q

How many cal per gram of protein?

A

around 4 cal per gram of protein

164
Q

How many cal per gram of fat?

A

around 9 cal per gram of fat

165
Q

Folic acid

A

aka Folate (vitamin B9)
named for its abundance in plant foliage (like green leafy vegetables)
crucial role during pregnancy.
-essential for production of DNA, red and white blood cell formation, neurotransmitter formation, and amino-acide metabolism.
Deficiency is relatively common, as folate deficiency early in pregnancy can be devastating for develping fetus.

166
Q

Choline

A

aka quasi-vitamin

-crucial role in neurotransmitter and platelet function and may help to prevent Alzheimer’s disease

167
Q

Loos of how much total body water may cause death?

A

20%

10% causes severe disorders.

As important as the oxygen people breathe.

Adults can survive up to 10 days without water; children 5 days.

168
Q

Water comprise how much % of body weight?

A

50- 70 %

169
Q

Diuretics increase excretion of water and electrolytes by the kidneys. What are examples of diuretics?

A

e.g. congestive heart failure meds, hypertension meds, coffee

170
Q

How many cal per gram of alcohol?

A

7 cal

171
Q

For weight maintenance, moderately active people are generally advised to consume about ______ times the calculated RMR?

A

1.550 times

172
Q

To lose weight and optimal long0term success and overall health, gradual weight loss of no more than __ to ___ pounds per week is best.

A

1 to 2 pounds per week.

2.2 - 4.4 kg per week.

173
Q

500 cal deficit per day (3,500 cal deficit a week) should lead to a loss of ___ pound in a week.

A

1 pound; 2.2 kg

174
Q

Tips to help people lose weight and maintained the loss for at least one year

A
  1. Control portions
  2. Be mindful - pay attention to what you eat. Don’t finish the plate if necessary. Do you eat when you are bored, stressed, sad?
  3. Exercise - Keep the metabolism up
  4. Check the scale - once a week
  5. Eat breakfast - less chronic diseases
  6. Monitor intake - highly effective and proven strategy
  7. Turn off the tube - being completely sedentary + eating
  8. Do not wait until tomorrow to get started and no cheating
  9. Know thy friend - obese people tend to have obese friends. Pairs of friends and siblings of the same sex seem to have the most profound effect. (perception of social norms).
  10. Be optimistic - perceived control, positive expectations, fighting spirit > more successful at changing behaviours.
175
Q

Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) ; IOM Food and Energy Board, 2005, recommend that approximately ___ to ___ cal come from carb, ____ to ____ from protein and ___ to ____ from fats

A

Protein: 10 - 35%
Fats: 20 - 35%
Carbs: 45 - 65%

176
Q

What is Glycemic index (GI)?

A

Gi ranks carbs based on their blood glucose response:
High GI foods break down rapidly, causing a large glucose spike. Good for refuelling and athletic performance.
Low-GI digested more slowly and smaller glucose increase. Better for weight loss and for people with diabetes.

177
Q

What is Glycemic load (GL)?

A

GL = GI x grams of carbs

accounts for GI as well as portion size.

178
Q

What is the vegetable proteins that is complete protein?

A

Soy.
Vegetable proteins are incomplete proteins. Vegetarians who eat limited amounts of animal products should be sure to consume a wide variety of high-protein vegetarian foods.

179
Q

What is obesity?

A

Obese: BMI >= 30kg/m2

Severely Obese: BMI >40 or BMI>35 with other high risk considitions

180
Q

What is Hypertension?

A

aka High Blood Pressure

Blood pressure: SBP >= 140mmHg, DBP >= 90mmHg

181
Q

Type 1 VS Type 2 Diabetes

A

Abnormal regulation of blood glucose.
Type 1: pancreas cannot secrete insulin
Type 2: cells decreased ability to respond to insulin

182
Q

Percentage of women and men over age of 50 suffering osteoporotic fracture

A

Women: 50%
Men: 20%

Calcium, Vitimin D, Vikitmin K reduce risk
Weight bearing physical activity decreases the risk

183
Q

Recommended physical activity for pregnant women

A

Pregnant women should aim to incorporate 30mins or more moderate intensity physical activity appropriate for pregnancy on most, if not all, day sof the week.

184
Q

how many additional calories per day is required for women who breast feed for weight maintenance?

A

500 additional cal per day

185
Q

Types of vegetarian

A

Lacto-ovo-vegetarian - no meat, fish, or poultry
Lacto-vegetarian - no eggs, meat, fish, or poultry
Vegan - any animal products, including dairy products such as milk and cheese

186
Q

Pros and Cons of vegetarian

A

Pros:
Lower rate of obesity, cardiovascular disease, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, prostate and colon cancer

Cons:
may include insufficient amounts of protein, iron, vitamin B12, vitamin D, Calcium and other nutrients

187
Q

What is quality protein ?

A

A main determinant of protein quality is whether a food contains all of the essential amino acids. Most meat-based products are higher-quality proteins because they have essential amino acids.

Plant proteins, other than soy, are incomplete proteins because they do not contain all 8-10 essential amino acids. However, complementary plant products (e.g. rice + beans) provide all essential amino acids.

188
Q

Slow weight loss definition

A

No more than 1 to 2 pounds (0.5 to 0.9kg) per week.

189
Q

Generally, digest time of carb, protein and fat are…

A

carbs: 1 hr
protein: 2 hrs
fat: 4 hrs

190
Q

Contributing to cell membrane function, making bile acids essential for fat absorption, metabolizing fat-soluble vitamins, and making vitamin D are all functions of which nutrient?

A

Cholesterol

Why?

Cholesterol, a fat-like, waxy, rigid four-ring structure, plays an important role in cell membrane function. It also helps to make bile acids (which are important for fat absorption), metabolize fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K), and make vitamin D and some hormones such as estrogen and testosterone.

191
Q

Which of the vitamins MUST be consumed in the diet?

A

Folate

Why?

Vitamins must be consumed through food with only three exceptions: vitamin K and biotin can also be produced by normal intestinal flora (bacteria that live in the intestines and are critical for normal gastrointestinal function), and vitamin D can be self-produced with sun exposure.

192
Q

A client who just found out she is pregnant asks what foods to eat to increase her intake of folic acid. What would be the BEST response?

A

Green leafy vegetables, organ meats, dried peas, beans, and lentils

Why?

These foods are the best sources of folate, or folic acid. Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetables are good sources of vitamin C; green leafy vegetables, fruit, dairy, and grain products are good sources of vitamin K; and milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts are good sources of choline.

193
Q

Which of the following minerals has a recommended dietary allowance (RDA) that is more than twice as high for women than it is for men?

A

Iron

Why?

The RDA for iron for women is 18 mg, while it is only 8 mg for men. Iron plays an essential role in hemoglobin formation, improves blood quality, and increases resistance to stress and disease. ACE Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, p. 165-166

194
Q

A client with which of the following conditions should receive comprehensive nutrition counseling before beginning an exercise program?

A

Diabetes

Why?

It is especially important for people with diabetes to balance nutrition intake with exercise and insulin or other medications in order to maintain a regular blood sugar level throughout the day. All individuals with diabetes who have not already had a comprehensive nutrition consultation prior to beginning an exercise program should be referred to a registered dietitian for an evaluation and nutrition education.

195
Q

A client who is also a high school soccer player is interested in using the glycemic index to guide him as he “refuels” after practices and matches. Which of the following would be the BEST snack choice?

A

Dried fruit

Why?

High-GI carbohydrates, including dried fruit, are best for refueling. Rye bread is a medium-GI carbohydrates, while oatmeal and strawberries are low-GI carbohydrates.

196
Q

A client just found out that she is hypertensive. Her doctor recommends that she change her eating habits. The fitness professional should suggest that in addition to reducing calories she should increase her red meat, poultry, and fish intake, as well as her vegetable intake to four or more servings per day.

A

FALSE

Why?

Multiple studies have shown that the DASH eating plan combined with decreased salt intake can substantially reduce blood pressure levels. The DASH plan is low in saturated fat, cholesterol, and total fat. The staples are fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products. Fish, poultry nuts, and other unsaturated fats as well as whole grains are encouraged. However, red meat, sweets, and sugar–containing beverages should be extremely limited.

197
Q

A client has a weight-loss goal of 40 pounds (18 kg). He is having a difficult time committing to his new eating and exercise habits and is frustrated that he has not seen a reduction in weight. He is interested in learning more about gastric-bypass surgery, so the fitness professional should refer him to physician for a consultation.

A

Why?

Weight-loss surgery is not recommended for the overweight or mildly obese person who is trying to lose 20 or 30 pounds. Although this client might qualify based on the amount of weight he wants to lose, only those who are committed to permanent lifestyle changes—including regular physical activity and a healthy diet—are considered good candidates for surgery.

198
Q

A new client is concerned that her family history of heart disease, combined with her poor diet, is increasing her risk of having a heart attack. The fitness professional should recommend that she get her cholesterol levels tested prior to designing an exercise program for her.

A

TRUE

Why?

Fitness professionals can play an important role in helping people minimize their cardiovascular risk by educating them about risk factors (including family history and poor dietary choices) and encouraging them to talk with their physicians about their own personal risk. It is important to emphasize the importance of keeping close tabs on risk factors, both for older adults who may have already developed one or more risk factors and for younger individuals who appear to be perfectly healthy.

199
Q

At the end of a cycling class, you hand out an article titled “Vitamins and their effects on the body during exercise.” This is outside of the scope of practice of an ACE Certified Fitness Professional.

A

FALSE

Why?

It is within an ACE Certified Fitness Professional’s scope of practice to use well-established guidelines to help individuals adopt healthful and appropriate nutrition habits. While it is outside the defined scope of practice to recommend, prescribe, sell, or supply nutritional supplements to clients, it is acceptable to provide “general nonmedical nutrition information” such as education about nutrients.

200
Q

You lead a workshop for gym members in which they discuss nutrients found in common household foods. This is within the scope of practice of an ACE Certified Fitness Professional.

A

TRUE

Why?

While it is outside the defined scope of practice to recommend, prescribe, sell, or supply nutritional supplements to clients, it is acceptable to provide “general nonmedical nutrition information” such as education about nutrients in particular foods or substances.

201
Q

What is the term for adequate intake in 50% of an age- and gender-specific group?

A

Estimated Average Requirement

Why?

The term for adequate intake in 50% of an age- and gender-specific group is Estimated Average Requirement, or EAR.

202
Q

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, how much sodium should be consumed on a daily basis for healthy adults?

A

Less than 2,300 mg

Why?

The Dietary Guidelines advise Americans to reduce sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg/day for the general population.

203
Q

How long does it take to see improvements of balance training?

A

Within a few weeks

204
Q

5 primary movements of ADL

A
  1. Bend and lift
  2. Single leg
  3. Pushing
  4. Pulling
  5. Rotational

ACE (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions