Acronyms Flashcards

Question

**NIC** ## Footnote A+

Answer 1

Network Interface Controller, *aka Network Adapters*

Answer 2

* **Serial Attached SCSI** *(Small Computer System Interface)* * High-performance Data Storage: SAS is primarily designed for enterprise servers, data centers, and high-performance workstations. It delivers fast, reliable, and scalable data storage access. / **Connecting Storage Devices**: SAS connects hard disk drives (HDDs), solid-state drives (SSDs), and even tape drives to a computer system using a serial point-to-point interface. * Formats of SAS utilize *specialized connectors* that are smaller & more versatile than older SCSI connectors types. * **SFF-8482**: Common for internal drives using a single connector for both data and power. * **SFF-8484**: Internal multi-lane connector, supporting multiple SAS lanes for higher bandwidth. * **SFF-8644**: External multi-lane connector used for connecting enclosures containing multiple drives.

Answer 3

Redundant Array of Independent Disks

Answer 4

* **Access Point** * An AP provides a link from a wired connection to a wireless connection within a network. *(Usually a RJ-45 cable connection from a switch or other ethernet connecting device)*

Answer 5

Sony and Phillips (audio) Digital Interface - The only digital audio output format.

Answer 6

* Light-Emitting Diode & Organic Light-Emitting Diode (display) * LED technology used for displaying the GUI/picture is strictly the backlight technology that shines through the LCD *(Liquid Crystal Display)* screen in front of it. Most common LED display devices contain a panel of tiny LEDs grouped together that emit their own individual light *(typically in RGB format)*. The LCD portion is made of a layer of liquid crystal molecules that are sandwiched between two polarizing filters. The intensity of the LEDs are controlled in tandem with the changing orientation of liquid crystals when an electric field is applied between the polarized filters that allow only a specific orientation of light to pass through. The LED backlighting passes through the LCD that manipulates it to form the color and picture that the end user can see. An LED screen is basically a hybrid-LCD display device. * OLED displays on the other hand operate in a fundementally different way. Each pixel is formed at the root through layers: The substrate as a base material, an anode operating as a positive electrode, organic layers that are emissive and conductive, and a cathode operating as a negative electrode. As an electric current flows between the anode and cathode, the organic layers become excited and emit light photons as they return to their normal state. RGB subpixels are combined in varying intensity to produce a wide spectrum of colors. * Key differences: OLEDs produce their own light at the pixel level which cuts out the need for any backlighting. LEDs cannot completely turn off individual pixels like OLEDs can. This means that LCDs by nature have some light leakage, even when displaying black, leading to less intense contrast. This is one key difference of display quality; OLEDs can produce "true-black" by the nature of design. Because of an OLED screens ability for self-illumination, they are thinner and lighter than LED displays. This also has led to the design of flexible displays too. *(Curved screens)* * Advantages of LED-hybrid devices: Lower cost, *(although this is quickly changing as manufacturing adapts)* can have a longer lifespan than OLEDs and are less sucseptible to "burn-in" from being on for extended periods of time. * Advantages of OLED devices: Superior picture quality because of deep blacks, a wider spectrum of coloration and faster response times. They have the ability to be designed with flexible displays, they are lighter and thinner, and can be viewed from much wider angles due to polarized filters being unnecessary by design. ## Footnote A+ Core 1

Answer 7

A **Media Access Control** (MAC) address is a unique *12-character alphanumeric identifier* that identifies a device connected to a network. MAC addresses are also known as physical addresses and are associated with a device's network adapter or network interface controller (NIC).

Answer 8

Tip Ring Sleeve - the legacy name for audio ports aka 3.5mm jack/mini-plug.

Answer 9

**S**imultaneous **M**ulti**T**hreading: the ability of a single physical processor to simultaneously ***dispatch instructions*** from more than one hardware thread context. Because there are two hardware threads per physical processor, additional instructions can run at the same time. ## Footnote A+ Core 1

Answer 10

Chip level MicroProcessing

Answer 11

* **Land Grid Array** & **Pin Grid Array** * Intel uses the LGA & AMD uses the PGA *(predominantly)*. * All CPU sockets use a **zero insertion force (ZIF)** modality of install. * **LGA** = Pins on socket, CPU goes on a hinged plate and then secured via lever/mechanism * **PGA** = Pins on CPU module, inserted into socket, aligned via pin 1 *(dictated by an arrow usually)* and uses a lever to secure it into place without the need for pressure applied.

Answer 12

Digital Video Broadcast Satellite - It is a means of receiving internet.

Answer 13

New Technology File System - Windows' native file system. Established in the early 1990s.

Answer 14

**C**onfidentiality **I**ntegrity **A**vailability

Answer 15

**Pretty Good Privacy** is an encryption program that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication for data communication. PGP is used for *signing, encrypting, and decrypting texts, e-mails, files, directories, and whole disk partitions*. * Most commonly used to increase the security of e-mail communications.

Answer 16

**Cross-Site Scripting:** When an attacker exploits an input validation vulnerability to inject code into a trusted website or app.

Answer 17

* Common Internet *File System* * CIFS is a dialect or implementation of the SMB protocol. * While originally distinct, the terms are often used interchangeably due to historical reasons. Modern Windows file sharing relies on newer SMB versions that offer greater capabilities than the original CIFS implementation.

Answer 18

Secure Shell

Answer 19

**SFTP:** File Transfer Protocol over *Secure Shell* (SSH) **FTPS:** File Transfer Protocol with *Transport Layer Security* (TLS)

Answer 20

**H**yper **T**ext **M**arkup **L**anguage

Answer 21

**I**nternet **M**ail **A**ccess **P**rotocol

Answer 22

**R**emote **D**esktop **P**rotocol: a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft Corporation which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. * RDP uses port 3389 over TCP

Answer 23

1. **S**imple **N**etwork **M**anagement **P**rotocol 2. SNMP can be utilized by network admins to monitor communications and take actions only administrative users would.

Answer 24

* Address Resolution Protocol * ARP relates to MAC addresses & IP addresses: Acts as *a bridge between the network layer and the data link layer in the OSI model.* (L3 - L2) * Essentially, it translates IP addresses (which devices use to identify each other on a network) into MAC addresses (the unique hardware addresses of network interface cards).

Answer 25

* **Fully QualifiedDomain Name** * First (not actually part of a FQDN but relevant) is the *prefix* or *protocol identifier* which is normally https:// or http:// * Second, is the *Subdomain* [aka 3rd level domain] * Next is the *Domain Name* which can be broken down further into the *2nd level* domain and *Top-level domain* which is the last portion of the FQDN. Top-level = the .com or .org etcetera

Answer 26

* Intrusion *Prevention* System * Intrusion *Detection* System * An IDS detects suspicious activities that indicate malicious activities by monitoring network activity (NIDS) and/or system logs of Host Devices (HIDS). When it detects potential intrusion/threats, it generates alerts or logs for review by security personnel. It does not actively block or stop attacks. **(Passive** device) * Similar to an IDS, an IPS monitors network traffic and/or system logs for suspicious activity. However, it also takes immediate action to block or stop detected attacks. It can drop malicious packets, block traffic from specific IP addresses, or take other actions to prevent the attack from succeeding. **(Active** device)

Answer 27

Continuation Of Operational Planning * A plan outlining how an organization will continue essential functions during and after a disaster or disruption. *Example:* Having backup systems in place, alternative work locations, and procedures for communicating with employees and customers during a disaster. ## Footnote Security+

Answer 28

**C**ontent **D**elivery **N**etwork(s) * Networks of geographically distributed servers that store and deliver content to users based on their location. *Example:* A website using a CDN like Cloudflare to serve content to users from servers located closer to them, reducing latency and improving page load times. ## Footnote Security+

Answer 29

**Peer-to-Peer** * A decentralized network model where individual computers (peer hosts) share resources directly with each other, without the need for a central server (because of its dispersed nature). *Example:* BitTorrent

Answer 30

**S**oftware **D**efined **N**etworking * An approach to networking that separates the control plane (decision-making) from the data plane (packet forwarding). This allows for more flexible and automated network management. ## Footnote Security+

Answer 31

**G**eo **R**edundant **S**torage * A storage replication strategy where data is copied to multiple geographically dispersed locations for disaster recovery and high availability. E.g. A company storing its data in data centers on both the east and west coasts of the United States to ensure business continuity in the event of a regional disaster.

Answer 32

**V**irtual **P**rivate **C**loud * A private network segment within a public cloud environment that allows you to isolate your resources and control network traffic.

Answer 33

**I**nfrastructure as **C**ode * The practice of managing and provisioning IT infrastructure through machine-readable definition files (code) rather than manual processes. *Example:* Using Terraform or Ansible to automate the creation and configuration of virtual machines, networks, and other cloud resources.

Answer 34

A software development approach that integrates security practices into every phase of the development and operations lifecycle. It aims to build security into the software from the start rather than adding it as an afterthought. * *Example:* Implementing automated security testing tools in a ***continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD)*** pipeline to catch vulnerabilities early in the development process.

Answer 35

**A**ccess **C**ontrol **L**ist * A set of rules that govern access to a resource (e.g., file, folder, network). ACLs typically define which users or processes are granted access and what actions they can perform (read, write, execute, etc.).

Answer 36

**D**ocument **O**bject **M**odel * A tree-like representation of an HTML or XML document. It allows programs (like JavaScript) to interact with and manipulate the structure, content, and style of a web page. *Example:* Using JavaScript to dynamically change the text color of a heading element on a web page by accessing the DOM.

Answer 37

**C**loud **A**ccess **S**ecurity **B**roker * A software tool or service that sits between an organization's on-prem infrastructure and cloud applications they use. It enforces security policies, protects data, and provides visibility into cloud usage.

Answer 38

**S**ecure **C**ontent **A**utomation **P**rotocol * A set of standardized specifications for automating security vulnerability management, measurement, and policy compliance evaluation. *Example:* Using SCAP-compliant tools to scan a network for vulnerabilities, assess compliance with security benchmarks, and generate reports.

Answer 39

**C**ommon **V**ulnerabilities & **E**xposures * A publicly available list of information security vulnerabilities and exposures. Each CVE entry is assigned a unique identifier (e.g., CVE-2023-1234) and a description of the vulnerability. Security teams use CVE information to prioritize patching and assess risk.

Answer 40

* **C**ommon **V**ulnerability **S**coring **S**ystem * The *CVSS* is used to analyze and communicate the threat levels of individual vulnerabilities discovered. (CVE) * An open framework for communicating the characteristics and severity of software vulnerabilities. It assigns a numerical score to vulnerabilities based on factors like exploitability, impact, and complexity. There are 3 versions so far, although V.1 is rarely used anymore.

Answer 41

**N**ational **V**ulnerability **D**atabase * A U.S. government repository of standards-based vulnerability management data. It includes information on security vulnerabilities, impact assessments, and remediation guidance. * A security analyst might use the NVD to look up a specific vulnerability (identified by its CVE number) to find details on the software affected, potential impact, and available patches.

Answer 42

**I**nformation **S**haring and **A**nalysis **C**enters are *non-profit organizations* that gather and share threat information, vulnerabilities, and best practices within *specific industry sectors* (e.g., healthcare, finance, energy). *Examples:* The Financial Services Information Sharing and Analysis Center (FS-ISAC), Health sector (H-ISAC), the Multi State/local, tribal, and territorial (SLTT) governments in the U.S. is the MS-ISAC.

Answer 43

**N**ational **I**nstitute of **S**tandards & **T**echnology * A U.S. government agency that develops and promotes measurement, standards, and technology to enhance economic security and improve quality of life. NIST publishes the Cybersecurity Framework, a set of guidelines and best practices for managing cybersecurity risk. They also maintain the NVD.

Answer 44

**W**ired **E**quivalent **P**rivacy * An older security protocol for Wi-Fi networks, now considered obsolete and insecure due to vulnerabilities.

Answer 45

**T**rusted **P**latform **M**odule * A hardware chip on a computer's motherboard that provides secure storage for cryptographic keys, encryption, and other security functions. *Example:*A TPM might be used to securely store BitLocker encryption keys for a Windows system's hard drive.

Answer 46

**N**etwork **A**ccess **C**ontrol * A security approach that restricts network access to only compliant and authorized devices, often based on factors like software updates, antivirus status, or user credentials.

Answer 47

**S**elf **E**ncrypting **D**rive * A storage device (hard drive or SSD) that automatically encrypts all data written to it, protecting the data in case of theft or loss.

Answer 48

**C**ross - **S**ite **R**equest **F**orgery * *What it is:* An attack that tricks a user's web browser into executing an unwanted action on a trusted site when the user is already authenticated. This happens without the user's knowledge or consent. * *How it works*: Attackers typically embed malicious code or links in websites or emails. When a victim clicks the link or loads the malicious content while logged into a vulnerable site, the attacker's code is executed within the context of the victim's session, potentially performing actions like changing account settings, transferring funds, or posting unauthorized messages. * *Example*: A malicious link sent via email could trick a user into deleting their social media profile without their intention.

Answer 49

**SQL injection** * *What it is:* An attack where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an application's input fields, ultimately executed by the application's database. * *How it works:* Attackers exploit vulnerabilities in web applications that don't properly ***sanitize*** user input. By injecting SQL code, they can manipulate database queries, potentially retrieving sensitive information, modifying or deleting data, or even gaining control over the database server. * *Example:* An attacker could inject code into a login form to bypass authentication or access the entire contents of a database.

Answer 50

**Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use** * *What it is*: A type of race condition vulnerability where an attacker exploits the time between when a system checks a condition and when it uses the result of that check. * *How it works*: The attacker modifies the system state during that brief window of time, leading to unintended consequences. This often involves file access or permissions, where the attacker might replace a harmless file with a malicious one after the system has checked its permissions but before it's executed. * *Example*: An attacker could replace a legitimate configuration file with a malicious one after the system has checked its permissions but before the application reads the file.

Answer 51

**W**eb **A**pplication **F**irewall * This is a specific type of application firewall designed to protect web applications from various attacks. It acts as a shield *between* your web application and the internet, ***filtering and monitoring*** HTTP traffic to and from the application. * It uses **RBF** (Rules Based Filtering): a set of pre-defined rules or signatures to identify and block known attack patterns, such as *SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), & cross-site request forgery (CSRF).* * When a WAF detects a potential attack, it can take several actions: * Block: Drop the malicious request, preventing it from reaching the web application. * Challenge: Present a challenge (e.g., CAPTCHA) to the user to verify they are not a bot. * Log: Record the details of the attack for later analysis and investigation. * Alert: Notify security personnel about the detected threat.

Answer 52

* e**X**tended **D**etection **R**esponse * A **holistic approach to security** that combines *data* and *threat intelligence* from multiple security tools (e.g., endpoint detection and response, network traffic analysis, email security) to provide a **unified view of threats** across an entire environment. | Security+

Answer 53

**H**ost-Based **Intrusion** ***D**etection* **//** ***P**revention* ***System*** * Definition: Software agents installed on individual systems (hosts) to monitor for suspicious activity or known attack patterns. HIDS detects intrusions, while HIPS can also take action to prevent or block them. * HIDS/HIPS provide an additional layer of security at the endpoint level, complementing network-based security measures. | Security+

Answer 54

**U**ser **B**ehavior **A**nalytics * A cybersecurity process that analyzes user behavior patterns to identify anomalies that might indicate a security threat. * UBA can detect insider threats, compromised accounts, and other suspicious activities by establishing a baseline of normal behavior and flagging deviations from it. | Security+

Answer 55

**U**ser & **E**ntity **B**ehavior **A**nalytics * An **advanced form** of UBA that extends the analysis beyond individual users to include *entities like devices, applications, and networks.* * **UEBA** provides a *broader view of potential threats* by ***correlating user and entity behavior***, offering more comprehensive insights into security risks. | Security+

Answer 56

**E**ndpoint **D**etection & **R**esponse * A security solution that ***continuously*** monitors endpoints (laptops, desktops, servers, mobile devices) for suspicious activity, providing *real-time* visibility into security incidents and enabling rapid response. * EDR goes beyond traditional antivirus by using *behavioral analytics, machine learning, and threat intelligence* to detect and respond to advanced threats like ransomware, fileless malware, and insider attacks. | Security+

Answer 57

**C**loud **S**ervice **P**rovider * Big 3 ***=*** AWS / *Amazon* 🥇 Azure / *Microsoft* 🥈GCP / *Google* * Each have built large data centers around the world to provide cloud services to their customers. They generally offer the same basic capabilities, such as*** storage, compute, and dedicated connections,*** but there are some variations in their offerings.

Answer 58

**S**ecure **S**ockets **L**ayer The predecessor to ***TLS*** protocols. Used to encrypt HTTP web traffic. * TLS is essentially an updated and more secure version of **SSL**. While you might still hear the term "SSL" used informally, *in practice,* most secure internet connections today rely on TLS. The transition from SSL to TLS was driven by the need for ***stronger security, improved performance, and adherence to modern standards.***

Answer 59

**M**aximum **T**ransmission **U**nit * Maximum size of a packet that a server/appliance can intake (by limitation or configuration). If a packet of data exceeds a given ***MTU***, it's payload must be re-transmitted in smaller chunks.

Answer 60

**M**ulti **P**rotocol **L**abel **S**witching * A highly efficient data-carrying mechanism that operates at a layer often referred to as "Layer 2.5" because it sits *between Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) and Layer 3 (Network Layer)* of the OSI model. * Makes use of Routing by Label: routers within the MPLS network forward packets based on their simple labels, cutting down on the complexity of routing tables.

Answer 61

**E**lectro**S**tatic **D**ischarge ## Footnote A+ Core 1

Answer 62

**E**lectro**M**agnetic **I**nterference ## Footnote A+ Core 1

Answer 63

**H**igh-**D**efinition **M**ultimedia **I**nterface cables are rated as either ***Standard** (Category 1)* or ***High Speed** (Cat. 2)* * Standard HDMI cables can support **up to 5 Gbps** (gigabits per second) with resolutions up to 1080i or 720p. High Speed HMDI cables can support **up to 10.2 Gbps or higher** with resolutions of 1080p, 4K, 8K and supports advanced features such as 3D, Deep Color & higher refresh rates. ## Footnote A+ Core 1

Answer 64

**P**ower **S**upply **U**nit ## Footnote A+ Core 1

Answer 65

**P**eripheral **C**omponent **I**nterconnect **E**xpress | | 1x | 4x | 8x | 16x | ## Footnote A+ Core 1

Answer 66

* **G**iga**T**ransfers per **S**econd * **G**iga**B**ytes per **S**econd * GT/s measures the ***raw speed of signal transfers,*** while GB/s represents the ***actual usable data throughput*** after accounting for encoding overhead and other factors. ## Footnote A+ Core 1

Answer 67

* **A**dvanced **T**echnology **A**ttachment: A standard interface for connecting storage devices to a computer's MoBo *[a 40-pin ribbon cable is most common for ATA connections]* * Known previously as **I**ntegrated **D**rive **E**lectronics * **SATA**or *Serial* ATA is the successor as a connection type due to it's faster data transfer rates, smaller and more flexible form factors, and hot-swapping capabilities. SATA connections support only one device. ## Footnote A+ Core 1

Answer 68

* **A**utomatic **P**rivate **IP** **A**ddressing * A built in feature of *Windows* operating systems that automatically assigns an IP address to a device when it *cannot obtain one* from a DHCP server. * IPv4 range: **169.254.0.1 → 169.254.255.254** ## Footnote A+ / Network+

Answer 69

The **I**nternet **A**ssigned **N**umbers **A**uthority is a department of ***ICANN*** (the **I**nternet **C**orporation for **A**ssigned **N**ames and **N**umbers) that is responsible for: ○ Allocating blocks of IP addresses to Regional Internet Registries (RIRs). ○ Managing the root zone of the Domain Name System along with maintaining the top-level domain database *(.com, .org, .net, country codes, etc.)* ○ Assigns and Maintains unique identifiers for various internet protocols and parameters. *(such as Port numbers and IP version rules)*

Answer 70

**A**uthentication **A**uthorization & **A**ccounting | A+ Core 1

Answer 71

**Syslog** * Utilizes a ***Text-based*** format. * Used for Event logging and security information management. * Port 514 over UDP

Answer 72

**V**irtual **D**esktop **I**nfrastructure * Refers to using VMs as a means of provisioning corporate desktops. ## Footnote A+ / Network+

Answer 73

The **I**nstitute of **E**lectrical & **E**lectronics **E**ngineers

Answer 74

**A**dvanced **C**onfiguration **P**ower **I**nterface

Answer 75

**A**ndroid **P**ac**K**age

Answer 76

***MMC*** = **M**icrosoft **M**anagement **C**onsole is a powerful tool that provides a unified interface for accessing and configuring different administrative tools, called snap-ins. * Some core Functions of the MMC *Centralized management*: Manage multiple system components from one console. *Customization*: Create custom consoles and organize snap-ins. *Remote management*: Manage remote computers. *Task automation*: Automate tasks using scripting. *Security*: Ensure authorized access. *Integration*: Integrate with other tools (e.g., Active Directory).

Answer 77

It stands for Windows **Cab**inet file which is a common archive file format used by Microsoft. It contains the compressed version of different files, folders, and even other cabinet files. Microsoft employs CAB files to distribute Windows updates, drivers, and UWP app updates.

Answer 78

**R**emote **M**onitoring & **M**anagement * RMM software makes an IT administrator's job more manageable by allowing administrators to have remote access to devices, utilize patch management software, manage anti-virus protection, and configure various network device setups.

Answer 79

* **G**randfather-**F**ather-**S**on * Uses *3* or more backup cycles such as monthly, weekly, and daily. * The ***Grandfather*** is typically a full backup that is updated the least often; monthly updates for example. The ***Father*** stage is often a full backup that is updated more frequently (weekly/bi-weekly). Finally, the ***Son*** cycle is typically an incremental or differential backup done daily.

Acronyms Flashcards

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