ActualTest Questions

Question 1

To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can create a _______
containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it within the policy? (Fill in)
A.
Visual Policy Editor
B.
Policy Editor
C.
Visual Editor
D.
Policy creator

Answer 1

A.
Visual Policy Editor

Question 2

To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can create a policy
containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it within the policy using the
________. (Fill in)
A.
Deployment Wizard
B.
Setup Wizard
C.
Policy Wizard
D.
Visual Wizard

Answer 2

A.
Deployment Wizard

Question 3

QUESTION NO: 3
The Policy Builder benefits include:
A.
Doesn’t require in depth web application knowledge
B.
Only requires limited ASM knowledge
C.
All of the above
D.
Very low administrative impact

Answer 3

C.
All of the above

Question 4

APM administrators can configure access policies granting users which two types of access?
A.
CIFS access
B.
Client/server access
C.
Web application access
D.
Proxy access
E.
RDC access

Answer 4

D.
Proxy access

Question 5

QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following is a benefit of using iRules?
A.
They provide a secure connection between a client and LTM
B.
They enable granular control of traffic
C.
They can be used as templates for creating new applications
D.
They can use Active Directory to authenticate and authorize users
E.
They provide an automated way to create LTM objects

Answer 5

B.
They enable granular control of traffic

Question 6

APM provides access control lists at which two OSI layers? (Choose two.)
A.
Layer 5
B.
Layer 4
C.
Layer 7
D.
Layer 6
E.
Layer 2

Answer 6

B.
Layer 4
C.
Layer 7

Question 7

TMOS is an F5 software module that runs on the BIG-IP platform.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 7

Answer: B
Explanation:
TMOS is multi-module OS on Big-IP platform

Question 8

Which four F5 products are on the TMOS platform? (Choose four.)
A.
ARX
B.
GTM
C.
WOM
D.
APM
E.
ASM
F.
Firepass

Answer 8

B.
GTM
C.
WOM
D.
APM
E.
ASM

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a profile type on the BIG-IP?
A.
Protocol
B.
Application
C.
Persistence
D.
Authentication
E.
SSL

Answer 9

B.
Application

Question 10

The BIG-IP determines the lowest connection speed between the client and the server and then
uses that for both connections.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 10

B.
False

Question 11

Another name for the F5 OneConnect feature is TCP multiplexing.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 11

A.
True

Question 12

LTM runs on______F5’s proprietary product platform. (Fill in the correct answer)
A.
ARX
B.
Firepass
C.
Acopia
D.
TMOS

Answer 12

D.
TMOS

Question 13

Which programming language is the basis for F5 iRules?
A.
Lisp
B.
C++
C.
Java
D.
TCL
E.
AWK

Answer 13

D.
TCL

Question 14

What are the two most common methods of placing a BIG-IP device into a network environment?
(Choose two.)
A.
Channeled configuration
B.
VLAN configuration
C.
NAT configuration
D.
SNAT configuration
E.
Asymmetric configuration
F.
Routed configuration

Answer 14

D.
SNAT configuration
F.
Routed configuration

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using SSL offload?
A.
It increases the bandwidth between the client and LTM.
B.
It enables LTM to decrypt traffic, examine the payload, and then re-encrypt before sending it to a
pool member.
C.
The organization requires far less SSL certificates.
D.
The CPU processing load on backend servers is reduced.
E.
It enables iRules to be used on traffic arriving to LTM that is encrypted.

Answer 15

A.
It increases the bandwidth between the client and LTM.

Explanation:
SSL offload:
It enables LTM to decrypt traffic, examine the payload, and then re-encrypt before sending it to a
pool member.
The organization requires far less SSL certificates.
The CPU processing load on backend servers is reduced.
It enables iRules to be used on traffic arriving to LTM that is encrypted.

Question 16

When using a routed configuration, the real server must point to the LTM as the ________.
A.
NTP Server
B.
DNS Server
C.
Virtual IP
D.
WINS server
E.
Default gateway

Answer 16

E.
Default gateway

Question 17

TCP Express is licensed separately from LTM
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 17

B.
False
Explanation: TCP Express is licensed including in LTM

Question 18

LTM can only load balance outbound traffic by using iRules
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 18

A.
True

Question 19

Which two of these statements about OneConnect are true? (Choose two.)
A.
It decreases the CPU load on LTM
B.
It aggregates multiple client connections into a single server connection
C.
It decreases the amount of traffic between multiple clients and LTM
D.
It requires SNAT to be configured
E.
It decreases the CPU load on pool members

Answer 19

B.
It aggregates multiple client connections into a single server connection
E.
It decreases the CPU load on pool members

Question 20

GTM solves which three of these standard DNS limitations? (Choose three.)
A.
It can verify that a host is available before resolving a host name for a client.
B.
It can use HTTPS for the connection between itself and the client.
C.
It can ensure that clients remain at the same data center for stateful applications.
D.
It can verify that a client does not have any viruses before sending the IP address.
E.
It has more complex load balancing methods.

Answer 20

A. It can verify that a host is available before resolving a host name for a client.
C. It can ensure that clients remain at the same data center for stateful applications
E. It has more complex load balancing methods.

Explanation:
GTM solves three of these standard DNS limitations
It can verify that a host is available before resolving a hostname for a client
It can ensure that clients remain at the same data center for stateful applications
It has more complex load balancing methods

Question 21

Using IP Geolocation, an organization can always direct a client request from France to a
datacenter in Dublin.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 21

A.
True

Question 22

Which three of these software modules can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device? (Choose
three.)
A.
Web Accelerator
B.
APM
C.
ARX
D.
GTM
E.
Firepass
F.
Enterprise Manager

Answer 22

A.
Web Accelerator
B.
APM
D.
GTM

Explanation:
These software modules can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device are AAM, APM and
GTM.

Question 23

Customers can purchase LTM as a stand-alone product, or layer it with additional software
modules to increase the functionality of the BIG-IP device.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 23

A.
True

Question 24

Which two of the following options can LTM use when all of the pool members are not available or
if the pool is overloaded?
A.
Floating IPs
B.
Fallback host
C.
Auto last hop
D.
SNAT automap
E.
Pool offload
F.
Priority group activation

Answer 24

D.
SNAT automap

Question 25

The least connections load balancing method functions best when all pool members share similar
characteristics.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 25

A.
True

Question 26

The layer 3 security feature _______ Cookies that protects against SYN floods, DoS, and DDoS
attacks. (Fill in)

Answer 26

Answer:
contain / include

Question 27

A top-level DNS zone uses a CNAME record to point to a sub-zone. Which of the following is an
example of a sub-zone?
A.
www.F5.com/sub
B.
www.F5.com
C.
www.gslb.F5.com
D.
.com
E.
f5.com

Answer 27

C.
www.gslb.F5.com

Question 28

A _______ object maps a FQDN to virtual servers. (Fill in)

Answer 28

Answer:
Wide IP

Question 29

Which three of the following must be done in order for GTM to properly communicate LTM?
(Choose three.)
A.
Connect the GTM and LTM with a network crossover cable.
B.
Synchronize the big3d versions between GTM and LTM.
C.
Add the LTM object to the GTM configuration.
D.
Configure the GTM and LTM to we MAC masquerading.
E.
Ensure that GTM and LTM use the same floating IP address.
F.
Exchange SSL certificates between the two devices.

Answer 29

B.
Synchronize the big3d versions between GTM and LTM.
C.
Add the LTM object to the GTM configuration.
F.
Exchange SSL certificates between the two devices.

Question 30

DNSSEC is a GTM add-on licensing feature.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 30

A.
True

Question 31

GTM uses the F5 ___________ protocol to synchronize performance metrics between GTM
devices. (Fill in)

Answer 31

Answer:
iQuery

Question 32

Which four of the monitoring methods listed below can GTM use to determine the status and
performance of BIG-IP and servers? (Choose four.)
A.
ping
B.
Application monitors
C.
Inband monitors
D.
SSH
E.
iQuery
F.
SNMP

Answer 32

A.
ping
B.
Application monitors
E.
iQuery
F.
SNMP

Question 33

What happens when the data center that GTM recommends for a client is unavailable?
A.
GTM uses cached information to determine an alternate route.
B.
GTM queries the local DNS server.
C.
GTM sends subsequent queries to the next preferred data center.
D.
GTM directs the client to use its DNS cache to select an alternate location.
E.
The client continues to attempt to access the preferred data center.

Answer 33

C.
GTM sends subsequent queries to the next preferred data center.

Question 34

GTM can load balance to LTM in addition to non-BIG-IP hosts.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 34

A.
True

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT included on the F5 DevCentral site?
A.
Subscription purchasing options
B.
Actual iRules written by other customers
C.
iRules reference materials
D.
Forums
E.
The F5 iRule editor

Answer 35

A.
Subscription purchasing options

Explanation:
Subscription purchasing options is in Partner Resource Center

Question 36

If LTM uses the least connections load balancing method, which pool member in the following
diagram receives the next request? (see diagram in original pdf)
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

Answer 36

B

Question 37

Why does deploying LTM into an existing network immediately improve security?
A.
Only requests for specific ports are allowed through LTM.
B.
All traffic through LTM is checked for DDoS attacks.
C.
No traffic A allowed through LTM until it has been specified.
D.
All users must authenticate before accessing applications through LTM.
E.
Only LAN administrators can access resources through LTM.

Answer 37

C.
No traffic A allowed through LTM until it has been specified.

Question 38

You can use an HTTP class profile to forward traffic that matches which three of these types of
criteria? (Choose three.)
A.
Port
B.
HTTP header
C.
URI path
D.
User name
E.
Protocol
F.
Host name

Answer 38

B.
HTTP header
C.
URI path
F.
Host name

Question 39

When an optimized TCP connection exists between LTM and the pool member, LTM can accept
server responses faster than the client. What is the name of this feature?
A.
HTTP caching
B.
OneConnect
C.
TCP connection queuing
D.
Content spooling
E.
Priority activation

Answer 39

D.
Content spooling

Question 40

As a full TCP proxy, LTM acts as the termination point for both requests from the client and
responses from the server.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 40

A.
True

Question 41

FastCache will NOT work with compressed objects.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 41

A.
True

Question 42

Which of the following can be accomplished using iRules?
A.
Track inbound and outbound traffic
B.
Perform deep packet inspection
C.
Inspect traffic and drop it
D.
All of the above
E.
Intercept traffic and redirect it

Answer 42

D.
All of the above

Question 43

GTM uses Auto Discovery to add virtual servers from both LTM and non-BIG-IP load balancers.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 43

B.
False

Question 44

Which four of the following statements about LDNS probes are true? (Choose four.)
A.
Only GTM devices can act as a prober.
B.
They check each requesting LDNS that has made a request of the GTM.
C.
They can determine available cache size on the client.
D.
They are used to develop path metrics.
E.
They verify the link between a data center and an LDNS.
F.
Probing only takes place if GTM is configured to use dynamic load balancing.

Answer 44

B.
They check each requesting LDNS that has made a request of the GTM.
D.
They are used to develop path metrics.
E.
They verify the link between a data center and an LDNS.
F.
Probing only takes place if GTM is configured to use dynamic load balancing.

Question 45

Similar to LTM monitors, GTM monitors use both an Interval and a Timeout value.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 45

A.
True

Question 46

Since F5 built GTM on the TMOS platform it can exist on the same BIGIP device as LTM:
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 46

A.
True

Question 47

An administrator is adding GTM to the network infrastructure. Which of the following requirements
would lead them to select an Authoritative Screening architecture rather than Delegation?
A.
They want GTM to examine all DNS queries.
B.
They want GTM to make load balancing decisions based on metrics.
C.
They have data centers in several countries.
D.
They are using several operating systems for the local DNS servers.

Answer 47

C.
They have data centers in several countries.

Question 48

The BIG-IP full proxy architecture has full visibility from the client to the server and from the server
to the client.
What security benefit does this provide to customers?
A.
Offloads security functionality from other devices such as network firewalls and Intrusion
Prevention Systems (IPS), which may experience performance degradation when inspecting DNS
queries and responses.
B.
provides enhanced support for DNS servers.
C.
Establishes highly detailed policies based on your customer’s business in requirements, performs
multiple factors of authentication, detects corporate versus non-corporate devices, checks OS
patch levels, and determines antivirus patch levels.
D.
Provides industry-leading knowledge of application behavior as it travels through a network, and it
applies that knowledge to security because it knows how an application behaves at any point in
the reply request process

Answer 48

D.
Provides industry-leading knowledge of application behavior as it travels through a network, and it
applies that knowledge to security because it knows how an application behaves at any point in
the reply request process

Question 49

Select the key reasons F5 is able to handle DNS DDoS attacks so effectively? Select two.
A.
F5 can ensure a DNS DDoS attack is not successful.
B.
F5 has high performance DNS services.
C.
F5 can answer the DNS queries directly.
D.
With Global Traffic Manager (GTM), F5 completely stops all DNS DDoS attacks.
E.
F5 can ensure a customer never faces a DNS DDoS attack.

Answer 49

C.
F5 can answer the DNS queries directly.
E.
F5 can ensure a customer never faces a DNS DDoS attack.

Question 50

Which of the following are the three main business drivers for placing LTM into a network?
(Choose three.)
A.
Secure the connection between WAN sites.
B.
Improve application availability and scalability.
C.
Authenticate and authorize users.
D.
Boost application performance.
E.
Include application security.
F.
Act as a Web application firewall

Answer 50

B.
Improve application availability and scalability.
D.
Boost application performance.
E.
Include application security.

Question 51

If a customer has an application that uses a customized protocol, what LTM feature can help
optimize the traffic from the application?
A.
iRules
B.
Network virtual servers
C.
HTTP classes
D.
Packet filtering
E.
Transparent virtual servers

Answer 51

A.
iRules

Question 52

An LTM object represents a downstream server that hosts a secure Web site and contains the IP
address and port combination 192.168.9.250:443. What is this object?
A.
Self IP
B.
Virtual Server
C.
Pool
D.
Node
E.
Pool Member

Answer 52

E.
Pool Member

Question 53

Adding more RAM to a GTM device drastically improves query performance.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 53

B.
False

Question 54

Which of the following are four of the security benefits of TMOS? (Choose four.)
A.
It verifies traffic based on antivirus signatures.
B.
It provides protection against DDoS.
C.
It uses SYN cookies and dynamic connection reapers.
D.
It supplies guidance for poorly developed applications.
E.
It denies all traffic that hasn’t been defined.
F.
It can hide confidential information from outbound traffic.

Answer 54

B.
It provides protection against DDoS.
C.
It uses SYN cookies and dynamic connection reapers
E.
It denies all traffic that hasn’t been defined.
F.
It can hide confidential information from outbound traffic.

Question 55

The LTM “Manager” authentication role can create iRules.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 55

A.
True

Question 56

Which of the following statements about cookie persistence is NOT true?
A.
The cookie’s timeout value can be customized.
B.
They are F5’s preferred persistence method.
C.
No persistence information is placed on LTM.
D.
Web servers must be configured to send cookies to clients.
E.
They do not add a performance impact on LTM.

Answer 56

D.
Web servers must be configured to send cookies to clients.

Question 57

An LTM object that represents a downstream server contains the IP address 192.168.9.250 and
no port. What is this object?
A.
Pool member
B.
Virtual server
C.
Pool
D.
Self IP
E.
Node

Answer 57

E.
Node

Question 58

Which three of the metrics listed below can GTM use when making load balancing decisions for a
client? (Choose three.)
A.
TCP payload
B.
IP geolocation
C.
Hop count
D.
Round trip time
E.
Browser user agent

Answer 58

B.
IP geolocation
C.
Hop count
D.
Round trip time

Question 59

In order to improve GTM performance, administrators should use multiple complex monitors to
ensure resources are functioning properly:
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 59

B.
False

Question 60

Which three of the following are unique differentiators for F5 in the marketplace? (Choose three.)
A.
VLANs
B.
Load-balancing pools
C.
Secure remote access
D.
TMOS
E.
OneConnect
F.
iRules

Answer 60

D.
TMOS
E.
OneConnect
F.
iRules

Question 61

Which three of these file types work well with HTTP compression? (Choose three.)
A.
MP4 videos
B.
Digital photos
C.
Text files
D.
Static HTML Web pages
E.
CD quality songs
F.
Microsoft Word documents

Answer 61

C.
Text files
D.
Static HTML Web pages
F.
Microsoft Word documents

Question 62

Match each persistence method with the correct statement describing it:
A.
Cookie persistence
B.
Source address persistence
C.
SSL persistence
D.
Universal persistence

Answer 62

B.
Source address persistence

Question 63

Which two of the following LTM load balancing methods require the least amount of resources?
(Choose two.)
A.
Round robin
B.
Ratio
C.
Observed
D.
Fastest
E.
Predictive
F.
Least connections

Answer 63

A.
Round robin
B.
Ratio

Question 64

When using a redundant pair of LTMs, it is most advantageous to use them in an Active/Active
scenario because this provides additional load balancing capabilities.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 64

B.
False

Question 65

An LTM object contains both IP address and port combinations 20.18.9.250:80 and
20.18.9.251:80 and host the same Web application. What is this object?
A.
Pool
B.
Self-IP
C.
Node
D.
Pool member
E.
Virtual Server

Answer 65

A.
Pool

Question 66

Which of the following are four of the benefits of the TMOS architecture? (Choose four.)
A.
User authentication
B.
Server-side optimization
C.
Dynamic DDoS protection
D.
Web application security
E.
Client-side optimization
F.
Antivirus checking

Answer 66

B.
Server-side optimization
C.
Dynamic DDoS protection
D.
Web application security
E.
Client-side optimization

Question 67

In order to further accelerate applications, the external router can direct subsequent client traffic to
bypass LTM and communicate directly with the server.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 67

B.
False

Question 68

LTM runs on________F5’s proprietary product platform. (Fill in the correct answer)

Answer 68

Answer:
TMOS

Question 69

When using only LTM in redundant pairs, a customer can load balance to multiple data centers.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 69

B.
False

Question 70

Application templates save the time it typically takes to create nodes, pools, pool members, virtual
servers, and monitors.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 70

A.
True

Question 71

Which of the following TMOS feature enables BIG-IP to scale performance based to the available
CPU cores?
A.
Clustered multi-processing
B.
OneConnect
C.
HTTP class
D.
Session persistence
E.
Auto Last Hop

Answer 71

A.
Clustered multi-processing

Question 72

In a routed configuration, what does LTM do with the packet before sending it to the pool
member?
A.
Change the source IP and the destination IP address
B.
Leave it unchanged and forward it
C.
Change the source IP address
D.
Change the destination IP address

Answer 72

D.
Change the destination IP address

Question 73

If the BIG-IP device is NOT always located between the client and the server, it will NOT provide
full optimization and security.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 73

A.
True

Question 74

TCP Express enables LTM to use different TCP settings for the connection between the client and
LTM, and the connection between LTM and the pool member.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 74

A.
True

Question 75

Where do you configure GTM client persistence?
Case Study Title (Case Study):
A.
On a DNS listener object
B.
On a wide IP object
C.
Within a load balancing method
D.
On a DNS pool object
E.
On a virtual server object

Answer 75

B.
On a wide IP object

Question 76

Administrators can configure which three of the following load balancing options in GTM? (Choose
three.)
A.
Alternate
B.
Fallback
C.
Required
D.
Preferred
E.
Backup
F.
Optional

Answer 76

A.
Alternate
B.
Fallback
D.
Preferred

Question 77

Over the years, F5 has led the industry in which of the four following areas? (Choose three.)
A.
Security
B.
Acceleration
C.
Application availability
D.
Application scalability
E.
Application design
F.
Remote access

Answer 77

A.
Security
B.
Acceleration
D.
Application scalability

Question 78

Which of the following is NOT a method that TMOS uses to improve the performance of
applications?
A.
Caching HTTP data
B.
Optimizing the TCP connection between the client and the BIG-IP device
C.
Offloading SSL decryption from downstream servers
D.
Discarding unnecessary data from server responses before sending to the client
E.
Compressing HTTP data

Answer 78

D.
Discarding unnecessary data from server responses before sending to the client

Question 79

The drawback to having BIG-IP act as a full application proxy is the decrease in application
performance.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 79

B.
False

Question 80

The Policy Builder benefits include:
A.
Doesn’t require in depth web application knowledge
B.
Only requires limited ASM knowledge
C.
All of the above
D.
Very low administrative impact

Answer 80

C.
All of the above

Question 81

CSRF is difficult to detect because:
A.
The attacks are requests a user should be allowed to make
B.
The attacks always utilize obfuscation
C.
The attacks are always encrypted
D.
All of the above

Answer 81

A.
The attacks are requests a user should be allowed to make

Question 82

Information leakage is a major obstacle to achieving PCI DSS compliance.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 82

A.
True

Question 83

Requests that do not meet the ASM security policies can:
A.
Generate learning suggestions
B.
Be blocked
C.
All of the above
D.
Be logged

Answer 83

C.
All of the above

Question 84

What is NOT a benefit of using a SNAT?
A.
ASM can be deployed easily
B.
No changes are needed on the servers
C.
Fail open is easy to add
D.
Higher performance than other configuration

Answer 84

D.
Higher performance than other configuration

Question 85

ASM’s Web Scraping protection:
A.
Is simple to configure
B.
Cannot accommodate good scrapers
C.
Will protect the site by blocking all requests
D.
Is difficult to configure

Answer 85

A.
Is simple to configure

Question 86

The PCI compliance report is proof that a company is secure.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 86

B.
False

Question 87

ASM offers the most extensive, effective, and simplest to configure CSRF protection in the WAF
market.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 87

A.
True

Question 88

The APM Dashboard enables administrators to monitor which two of these metrics? (Choose two.)
A.
Number of active sessions
B.
Number of new sessions
C.
Number of denied users
D.
Number of users from each country

Answer 88

A.
Number of active sessions
B.
Number of new sessions

Question 89

Although APM can interoperate with LTM, it is unable to use iRules for advanced processing.
A.
True
B.
false

Answer 89

B.
false

Question 90

APM provides access control lists at which two 051 layers
A.
Layer 6
B.
Layer 5
C.
Layer 7
D.
Layer 4
E.
Layer 3
F.
Layer 2

Answer 90

C.
Layer 7
D.
Layer 4

Question 91

Which of the following statements about Web server offload is NOT true?
A.
It performs rate shaping to reduce overflow.
B.
It forces the client browser to use multiple connections streams.
C.
It uses OneConnect to reduce multiple TCP connections.
D.
It utilizes cached content to prevent unnecessary trips for the same content.
E.
It uses specialized hardware for SSL offload.

Answer 91

B.
It forces the client browser to use multiple connections streams.

Question 92

A network administrator tells you that they do NOT need WebAccelerator because their Web
application is fine. What is your best response?
A.
Challenge them to run performance testing on their Web site.
B.
Access their Web site with them to display its response.
C.
Request a follow up meeting within the next three months.
D.
Ask for an opportunity to speak with the CIO or a member of their Web application team.

Answer 92

D.
Ask for an opportunity to speak with the CIO or a member of their Web application team.

Question 93

When sizing a WebAccelerator deployment, you should base the WA capacity on the
LTMcapacity.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 93

B.
False

Question 94

Which three of the following are benefits of adding WebAccelerator to the network infrastructure?
(Choose three.)
A.
It adds a layer, security to a Web site
B.
It speeds up a secure Web site
C.
It reduces the need to purchase additional bandwidth
D.
It analyzes Web content, and caches and compresses it accordingly
E.
It improves the performance, large object file transfers

Answer 94

B.
It speeds up a secure Web site
C.
It reduces the need to purchase additional bandwidth
D.
It analyzes Web content, and caches and compresses it accordingly

Question 95

IP Enforcer blocks IP addresses that have repeatedly and regularly attacked the site.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 95

A.
True

Question 96

One reason APM beats the competition is its ability to perform both user authentication and
authorization on a single device.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 96

A.
True

Question 97

Which three of these scenarios should you identify as being an APM opportunity? (Choose three.)
A.
An organization using Novell Netware for authentication.
B.
An organization that has been recently fined for failing security compliance.
C.
An organization with a traveling sales force.
D.
An organization with a single location and no remote employees.
E.
An organization that needs to ensure users are using Symantec antivirus software.
F.
An organization sharing a public Web site for all Internet users.

Answer 97

B.
An organization that has been recently fined for failing security compliance.
C.
An organization with a traveling sales force.
E.
An organization that needs to ensure users are using Symantec antivirus software.

Question 98

When an administrator creates a new access policy in the Visual Policy Editor, which three options
are included by default? (Choose three.)
A.
A fallback option
B.
An Allow Ad box
C.
A Deny End box
D.
An empty Resource Assign item
E.
A Start box
F.
A Block All option

Answer 98

A.
A fallback option
C.
A Deny End box
E.
A Start box

Question 99

Poor Web application performance contributes to which four of these issues for businesses?
(Choose four.)
A.
A Web site that goes unused
B.
Increased support calls
C.
Loss of users
D.
Loss of revenue
E.
DDoS attacks
F.
Identity theft

Answer 99

A.
A Web site that goes unused
B.
Increased support calls
C.
Loss of users
D.
Loss of revenue

Question 100

Organizations are moving towards a cloud solution are good candidates for F5 WOM solutions.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 100

A.
True

Question 101

Using WOM for vMotion transfers across the WAN prevents VMware users from experiencing
interruptions.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 101

A.
True

Question 102

The administrator must specify APM access control entries as either L4 or L7.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 102

B.
False

Question 103

Administrators can customize APM to resemble other internal Web applications in the
organization.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 103

A.
True

Question 104

Which of the following is a client-side action in the Visual Policy Editor that prevents external
access and deletes any files created during a secure access session?
A.
Windows Group Policy
B.
Resource Assign
C.
Protected Workspace
D.
Virtual Keyboard
E.
Browser Cache and Session Control

Answer 104

C.
Protected Workspace

Question 105

The main drawback to using an APM Deployment Wizard is that it is not possible to edit the
resulting objects, including the access policy.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 105

B.
False

Question 106

Mobile device browsers typically display Web pages more slowly than PC browsers.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 106

A.
True

Question 107

Which two of the following factors are often responsible for poor Web application performance?
(Choose two.)
A.
The time it takes to generate an HTTP request.
B.
The time it takes to deliver the HTTP response over the network.
C.
The time it takes to display the HTTP response in the browser.
D.
The time it takes to generate the HTTP response.

Answer 107

B.
The time it takes to deliver the HTTP response over the network.
D.
The time it takes to generate the HTTP response

Question 108

WebAccelerator uses three tiers to improve performance. What are the three tiers? (Choose
three.)
A.
Bandwidth offload
B.
Client offload
C.
Application offload
D.
Protocol offload
E.
Web server offload
F.
Network offload

Answer 108

C.
Application offload
E.
Web server offload
F.
Network offload

Question 109

ASM can detect Layer 7 DoS attacks by which four ways of monitoring: (Choose four.)
A.
Monitoring for a threshold of increased number of transactions per second per URL.
B.
Monitoring for a % change in transactions per second per URL.
C.
Monitoring for a % change in server latency or TPS.
D.
Monitoring for a threshold of increased server latency or TPS.
E.
Monitoring ASM policy builder performance.
F.
Monitoring BIG-IP CPU utilization.
G.
Deep Packet inspection.

Answer 109

A.
Monitoring for a threshold of increased number of transactions per second per URL.
B.
Monitoring for a % change in transactions per second per URL.
C.
Monitoring for a % change in server latency or TPS.
D.
Monitoring for a threshold of increased server latency or TPS.

Question 110

Application trends and drivers that increase the need for application security are:
A.
Intelligent Browsers
B.
Webification
C.
Targeted attacks
D.
All the above

Answer 110

D.
All the above

Question 111

The Rapid Deployment Policy is used to:
A.
Improve website performance
B.
Quickly protect web sites for most common attacks
C.
Improve ASM performance
D.
Provide wizard functionality for quick policy creation

Answer 111

B.
Quickly protect web sites for most common attacks

Question 112

ASM combined with LTM provides protection against:
A.
Layer 7 DoS attacks
B.
All of the above
C.
Layer 4 DoS attacks
D.
DDoS attacks

Answer 112

B.
All of the above

Question 113

When using a single BIG-IP with APM, an organization can support up to 60,000 concurrent
remote access users.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 113

A.
True

Question 114

An F5 customer must install WebAccelerator on top of LTM:
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 114

B.
False

Question 115

The Protected Workspace client-side action provides more client-side security than the Cache and
Session Control action.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 115

A.
True

Question 116

Which WOM feature replaces a long byte pattern, such as “100000111000110101”, with a shorter
reference to the pattern?
A.
Symmetric adaptive compression
B.
Symmetric data deduplication
C.
Bandwidth allocation
D.
Application protocol acceleration
E.
TCP optimization

Answer 116

B.
Symmetric data deduplication

Question 117

In order to ensure that a specific file type is never moved down to a secondary file tier, the
administrator should:
A.
Set up an automated bot that accesses that file once a week.
B.
This is not possible on the ARX.
C.
Set a policy that the file type remains on primary storage.
D.
Instruct the end users to put the file in a non-tiered directory.

Answer 117

C.
Set a policy that the file type remains on primary storage.

Question 118

How does the ARX eliminate the disruption caused by re-provisioning storage?
A.
By identifying data that has not been modified and moving it to a secondary tier.
B.
By reducing the time necessary to run a complete backup.
C.
By allowing system administrators to apply policy to specific types data.
D.
By automating capacity balancing and allowing seamless introduction of file systems into the
environment after the ARX is installed.

Answer 118

D.
By automating capacity balancing and allowing seamless introduction of file systems into the
environment after the ARX is installed.

Question 119

Which of the following statements is true about ARX’s capacity balancing ability?
A.
When new files are created, the ARX can determine in real time where to place each file based on
the available space on each storage device
B.
When configuring the ARX, customers can choose to implement either an age-based policy or a
capacity based policy, but are not able to run both policies at the same time
C.
All files created at approximately the same time (within 10 minutes) will be stored on the same tier
of storage to minimize latency and improve the user experience
D.
The ARX balances capacity within tiers A storage, but cannot balance capacity across tiers of
storage

Answer 119

A.
When new files are created, the ARX can determine in real time where to place each file based on
the available space on each storage device

Question 120

The Device Inventory option in Enterprise Manager can replace an organization’s static Excel
spreadsheet containing similar data.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 120

A.
True

Question 121

Which of the following statements best describes the ARX architecture?
A.
The ARX’s split path architecture has a data path that handles the most common operations, and
a control path that handles other operations requiring deeper inspection and updating of the index.
B.
The ARX’s architecture has redundancy built in, allowing a single ARX to be deployed in most use
cases which provides a huge cost savings to customers.
C.
All of the above.
D.
It is a software agent that installs on the storage device.

Answer 121

A.
The ARX’s split path architecture has a data path that handles the most common operations, and
a control path that handles other operations requiring deeper inspection and updating of the index.

Question 122

The ARX is like a mini network manager. It is able to check the health of the environment and can
raise alerts when thresholds are reached.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 122

A.
True

Question 123

Which two of the following are costs businesses may face in dealing with unstructured data?
(Choose two.)
A.
Lost productivity due to server downtime
B.
Buying backup media
C.
Buying additional storage capacity
D.
Paying to convert unstructured data into structured data

Answer 123

B.
Buying backup media
C.
Buying additional storage capacity

Question 124

Place the following items in the order that the BIG-IP device uses when processing a packet.
Refer to image on the original doc

Answer 124

1) Check for a match with a self-IP
2) Search for an existing connection
3) Examine source IP for a standalone SNAT
4) Check if the destination matches a NAT
5) Look for a virtual server address match
6) Look for a match in a packet filter rule

Question 125

In the current version of BIG-IP, what happens if the GTM does not find a wide IP that matches the
DNS request?
A.
It sends a broadcast request to all GTM devices.
B.
It uses iQuery to request the information from LTM.
C.
It sends a request to its configured backup GTM device.
D.
It sends an un-resolvable error to the client.
E.
It sends the request to an external DNS.

Answer 125

E.
It sends the request to an external DNS.

Question 126

Using IP Geolocation, an organization can always direct a client request from France to a data enter in Dublin.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 126

A.
True

Question 127

In most cases, F5 recommends using round robin load balancing.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 127

B.
False

Question 128

Which three of the following statements describe a data center object?
A.
It attempts to match a DNS request with a configured wide IP.
B.
It is attached to multiple Internet links.
C.
It becomes available for use when an assigned server is up.
D.
It retains statistics for each data center.
E.
It is a logical representation of a physical location.
F.
It specifies how users access the Internet.

Answer 128

B.
It is attached to multiple Internet links.
C.
It becomes available for use when an assigned server is up.

Question 129

Which four of the following items are physical objects used by GTM?
A.
Virtual servers
B.
Links
C.
Servers
D.
Wide IPs
E.
Data centers
F.
Pools

Answer 129

A.
Virtual servers
B.
Links
C.
Servers
E.
Data centers

Question 130

Which three are GTM server dynamic load balancing modes? (Choose three.)
A.
Packet Rate
B.
Virtual Server Score
C.
CPU
D.
Fallback IP
E.
Ratio

Answer 130

A.
Packet Rate
B.
Virtual Server Score
C.
CPU

Question 131

Which four are GTM server static load balancing modes? (Choose four.)
A.
Return to DNS
B.
CPU
C.
Packet Rate
D.
Drop Packet
E.
Round Robin
F.
Static Persist

Answer 131

A.
Return to DNS
D.
Drop Packet
E.
Round Robin
F.
Static Persist

Question 132

The F5 Application Delivery Firewall has the ability to outperform traditional and next
generation firewalls during DDoS attacks by leveraging the performance and scalability of BIG-IP
to hand extremely high loads, including high throughput, high connection count, and high number
of connections per second.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 132

A.
True

Question 133

What is the main cause of high latency in a Web application?
A.
The version, the client’s browser
B.
The distance between the client and Web server
C.
The number of CPUs on the Web server
D.
The size of the objects on the page

Answer 133

B.
The distance between the client and Web server

Question 134

Match these terms with their description.
Refer to the image in the original PDF

Answer 134

Disaster recovery SLA – Measured by RPOs and RTOs
Recovery point objective – The amount of data that can be lost
Recovery time objective – How fast operations need to return to normal

Question 135

Network Security personnel are entirely responsible for web application security.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 135

B.
False

Question 136

ASM Geolocation reporting provides information regarding:
A.
The number of attacks from a specific state
B.
The types of attacks from a city
C.
All of the above
D.
The countries from which the attacks originated

Answer 136

D.
The countries from which the attacks originated

Question 137

An inline ASM configuration requires:
A.
Two network connections
B.
None of the above
C.
Two disk drives
D.
Two power supplies

Answer 137

A.
Two network connections

Question 138

Which three of these are the potential ending options for branches in the Visual Policy Editor?
(Choose three.)
A.
Reject
B.
Fallback
C.
Allow
D.
Deny
E.
Limit
F.
Redirect

Answer 138

C.
Allow
D.
Deny
F.
Redirect

Question 139

The Protected Workspace client-side action provides more client-side security than the Cache and
Session Control action.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 139

A.
True

Question 140

Which of the following is NOT a logging option within an APM access control entry?
A.
Packet
B.
Verbose
C.
Nominal
D.
Summary
E.
None

Answer 140

C.
Nominal

Question 141

Administrators can specify an APM access profile when defining a virtual server in LTM.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 141

A.
True

Question 142

Using Fast Cache with ASM will:
A.
Improve user experience
B.
Improve server performance
C.
All of the above
D.
Improve BIG-IP ASM performance

Answer 142

C.
All of the above

Question 143

ASM provides antivirus protection by:
A.
Extracting files being uploaded and sending them to an AV system via ICAP
B.
Running a local antivirus program on the BIG-IP
C.
None of the above
D.
Using IP Penalty enforcement to block requests from hackers IPs

Answer 143

A.
Extracting files being uploaded and sending them to an AV system via ICAP

Question 144

APM can verify which four of the following details before granting a user access to a resource?
(Choose four.)
A.
The user’s Web browser
B.
The user’s computer
C.
User’s hard drive encryption software
D.
Groups the user is a member of
E.
The network speed
F.
The user’s username

Answer 144

A.
The user’s Web browser
B.
The user’s computer
D.
Groups the user is a member of
F.
The user’s username

Question 145

Which four of these benefits does APM provide? (Choose four.)
A.
Enables remote access by several thousand simultaneous users.
B.
Basic Web application firewall capabilities.
C.
User authentication based on identity.
D.
Acceleration of Web content to the client.
E.
Granular authorization to resources.
F.
Client workstation security checking.

Answer 145

A.
Enables remote access by several thousand simultaneous users
C.
User authentication based on identity.
E.
Granular authorization to resources.
F.
Client workstation security checking.

Question 146

Which four of these statements regarding object size and WebAccelerator performance are true?
(Choose four.)
A.
Large objects such as video cache well
B.
Large objects allow fewer requests per second
C.
Large objects result in higher throughput
D.
Small objects result in higher throughput
E.
Small objects such as images cache well
F.
Small objects allow more requests per second

Answer 146

B.
Large objects allow fewer requests per second
C.
Large objects result in higher throughput
E.
Small objects such as images cache well
F.
Small objects allow more requests per second

Question 147

Which four of these scenarios will benefit from F5’s WAN Optimization Module? (Choose four.)
A.
An international organization with data centers in different countries.
B.
An organization that does not want to rely on using tape backup.
C.
An organization with one site but hundreds of Web servers.
D.
An organization whose users create extremely large files.
E.
An organization that expects their Web site usage to double in the next year.
F.
An organization attempting to lower costs by reducing the number of data centers.

Answer 147

A.
An international organization with data centers in different countries.
B.
An organization that does not want to rely on using tape backup.
D.
An organization whose users create extremely large files.
F.
An organization attempting to lower costs by reducing the number of data centers.

Question 148

An administrator is planning on solving latency issues by placing the backup data center in a
neighboring city to the primary data center. Why isn’t this effective solution?
A.
It does not provide an acceptable disaster recovery solution.
B.
It won’t improve latency between the data centers.
C.
It won’t improve the backup time from the primary data center to the backup data center.
D.
Users near the data centers will find their connections going back and forth between the two site
E.
It costs more to have the data centers close together than further apart.

Answer 148

A.
It does not provide an acceptable disaster recovery solution.

Explanation: It does not provide an acceptable disaster recovery solution, it is too close in proximity

Question 149

Which is NOT an ASM protection method for cross site scripting?
A.
Signatures
B.
URl character set limiting
C.
Token injection
D.
Parameter character set limiting

Answer 149

C.
Token injection

Question 150

Which item is NOT a function of a properly deployed and configured ASM?
A.
Detects attacks
B.
Stops hackers from attacking
C.
Provides protection visibility
D.
Provides security agility

Answer 150

B.
Stops hackers from attacking

Question 151

Which is NOT a function of ASM?
A.
Attack signature enforcement
B.
HTTP protocol enforcement
C.
Network security
D.
Parameter value enforcement

Answer 151

C.
Network security

Question 152

True or False, WOM speeds up large file data transfer across the WAN between a Windows client
and a Windows file Server.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 152

A.
True

Question 153

Which item is NOT a function of ASM?
A.
Provides authentication and authorization services
B.
Logs and reports full HTTP messages
C.
Provides comprehensive Web application security
D.
Provides application level performance information

Answer 153

A.
Provides authentication and authorization services

Question 154

Learning suggestions can be the result of:
A.
A false positive
B.
A malicious attack
C.
A change in the web site content
D.
All the above

Answer 154

D.
All the above

Question 155

Identifying users by their IP address is a sufficient method of performing authentication and
authorization.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 155

B.
False

Question 156

A user’s access to resources can change based on the computer they connect from.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 156

A.
True

Question 157

Replicating a large database between sites could take several hours without WOM, and only
several minutes with WOM.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 157

A.
True

Question 158

Brute force protection will:
A.
Block a user after a specified number, unsuccessful login attempts
B.
Block a user after a specified number of page requests are attempted
C.
None of the above
D.
Block a user from downloading too much content from the site

Answer 158

A.
Block a user after a specified number, unsuccessful login attempts

Question 159

What technology does ARX use to create a logical abstraction of the physical storage
environment?
A.
Data de-duplication
B.
File virtualization
C.
Server virtualization
D.
SSL encryption

Answer 159

B.
File virtualization

Question 160

Using file virtualization, what can the ARX do for customers?
A.
Match data to the most appropriate tier of storage (e.g. critical data on tier 1 storage; older data on
secondary storage tier).
B.
All of the above.
C.
Move individual files or entire file systems in real-time without disruption of down-time.
D.
Automate many storage management tasks such as storage tiering, dynamic capacity balancing,
and no disruptive data migration.

Answer 160

B.
All of the above.

Question 161

A customer says his business wouldn’t benefit from buying ARX because it already has block
based storage virtualization in place. Is he right? Why or why not?
A.
Yes. Block based storage virtualization is just another name for file virtualization.
B.
No. ARX allows customers to implement storage tiering benefits, but block based storage
virtualization does not.
C.
Yes. Block based storage virtualization offers the same functionality as ARX’s file virtualization,although it uses slightly different technology.
D.
No. Both technologies attempt to solve similar problems, but only the ARX allows the customer to
have visibility into their data and apply business policy at the file level. Block based virtualization
has no visibility into the type of data.

Answer 161

D.
No. Both technologies attempt to solve similar problems, but only the ARX allows the customer to
have visibility into their data and apply business policy at the file level. Block based virtualization
has no visibility into the type of data.

Question 162

Select F5 platforms have which three certifications? (Choose three.)
A.
FIPS
B.
SECG
C.
NEBS
D.
IEEE
E.
Common Criteria
F.
AFSSI

Answer 162

A.
FIPS
C.
NEBS
E.
Common Criteria

Question 163

Which three of the following are some of the methods that F5 uses with its environmental stress
screening chamber? (Choose three.)
A.
Varying the voltage from extreme high to extreme low.
B.
Running a product 300 to 500 times on each cycle.
C.
Repairing failed components until they function properly.
D.
Alternate temperature from -5 degrees Celsius to 60 degrees Celsius.
E.
Ensuring continual functioning through fire or flooding conditions.

Answer 163

A.
Varying the voltage from extreme high to extreme low.
B.
Running a product 300 to 500 times on each cycle.
D.
Alternate temperature from -5 degrees Celsius to 60 degrees Celsius.

Question 164

The ARX can see ________ when a data modification takes place and will cue that file to be
migrated back to the primary tier.
A.
In real time
B.
Nightly
C.
Weekly
D.
At the time of a system scan
E.
When scheduled by administrator

Answer 164

A.
In real time

Question 165

Match the five elements of the intelligent file virtualization with the appropriate ARX feature:
Refer to image in the original PDF

Answer 165

A. Real Time
B. Non-Disruptive
C. Heterogeneous
D. Data Integrity
E. Scale and Performance

Question 166

ARX can classify data based on all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Paths
B.
File Size
C.
Extensions
D.
Security Level
E.
File Name

Answer 166

D.
Security Level

Question 167

For a typical business, what percentage of data does the ARX usually move to a secondary tier?
A.
20-30%
B.
50-60%
C.
80-90%
D.
0-10%

Answer 167

C.
80-90%

Question 168

It is common for free storage space to exist somewhere in a business network that is not easy for
storage administrators to utilize. What solution can the ARX provide in this situation?
A.
The ARX identifies the exact location of the free storage, which allows network administrators to
target those locations when provisioning additional storage.
B.
The ARX extends the capacity of each server by 10-15, through intelligent file virtualization.
C.
The ARX uses the extra storage for transaction logs and index files.
D.
The ARX allows the customer to pool storage from anywhere within the enterprise and capacity
balance the overflow across devices.

Answer 168

D.
The ARX allows the customer to pool storage from anywhere within the enterprise and capacity
balance the overflow across devices.

Question 169

Which of the following does NOT describe network performance management?
A.
Updating software on various devices
B.
Seeing graphs in near real-time
C.
Visibility into multiple network devices
D.
Being alerted to an issue as it happens
E.
Viewing virtual server statistics

Answer 169

A.
Updating software on various devices

Question 170

What is the main business driver for bringing Enterprise Manager into the network infrastructure?
A.
Consolidate management of administrator and user accounts
B.
Consolidate management of licenses
C.
Consolidate management of SSL certificates
D.
Consolidate management of BIG-IP devices
E.
Consolidate management of access policies

Answer 170

D.
Consolidate management of BIG-IP devices

Question 171

To function properly, an Enterprise Manager device is required within each data center.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 171

B.
False

Question 172

Which two F5 platforms include specialized compression hardware? (Choose two.)
A.
4200
B.
3900
C.
1600
D.
11050
E.
6900
F.
8900

Answer 172

E.
6900
F.
8900

Question 173

ARX will detect any modification to a file on the second tier because all clients are being _______
by the ARX to get to the storage.
A.
Moved
B.
Copied
C.
Proxied
D.
Backed up
E.
Deleted

Answer 173

C.
Proxied

Question 174

In the next few years, 75% of new storage capacity will shift to unstructured data (also known as
file data). Which two of the following are examples of unstructured data? (Choose two.)
A.
CAD drawings
B.
Location data in a GIS (geographic information system)
C.
Customer records and product records in a CRM (customer relationship management) database
D.
Microsoft Office and PDF documents

Answer 174

A.
CAD drawings
D.
Microsoft Office and PDF documents

Question 175

The ARX saves customers time, money and frustration through a stub-based system that makes a
slight modification to each file in order to more efficiently sort and store end user data.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 175

B.
False

Question 176

Which two of the following statements are accurate descriptions of the ARX index? (Choose two.)
A.
The ARX index stores the bulk of its data as bit arrays and answers most questions by performing
bitwise logical operations on these bitmaps.
B.
The ARX index contains the index keys in sorted order, with the leaf level of the index containing
the pointer to the page and the row number in the data page.
C.
The ARX index is the key enabler of transparent data mobility because the ARX tracks where files
reside at all times, from creation through migration and deletion.
D.
The ARX index is 100% disposable and can be rebuilt at any point in time without disrupting client
or application access to data.

Answer 176

B.
The ARX index contains the index keys in sorted order, with the leaf level of the index containing
the pointer to the page and the row number in the data page
D.
The ARX index is 100% disposable and can be rebuilt at any point in time without disrupting client
or application access to data.

Question 177

To share device information with F5 technical support, a customer must either verbally share the
information over the phone or copy and send the information in an Email.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 177

B.
False

Question 178

When installing LTM on different VIPRION performance blades, each instance of LTM needs to be
licensed separately.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 178

B.
False

Question 179

The VIPRION provides hot-pluggable capabilities for which four of these types of hardware?
(Choose four.)
A.
LCD displays
B.
Fan trays
C.
Memory
D.
Power supplies
E.
Performance blades
F.
CompactFlash

Answer 179

B.
Fan trays
C.
Memory
D.
Power supplies
E.
Performance blades

Question 180

A customer wants the best possible throughput but only has a maximum of 3RU rack space.
Which F5 platform should you recommend?
A.
BIG-IP 11050
B.
VIPRION with only 1 performance blade
C.
BIG-IP 8950
D.
BIG-IP 8900
E.
VIPRION with 4 performance blades

Answer 180

A.
BIG-IP 11050

Question 181

Which of the following business benefits does storage tiering offer to customers?
A.
Reduces time for backups because data on the secondary tier can have a less time intensive
backup policed applied to it.
B.
All of the above.
C.
Enables customers to apply a more aggressive RTO/RPO for business critical Tier-1 unstructured
data.
D.
Reduces money spent on storage since the majority of data can be moved to less expensive
secondary tier storage.

Answer 181

B.
All of the above.

Question 182

An age-based policy is set up on the ARX that retains only data modified in the last 3 months on
tier 1 storage and moves the rest of the data to secondary storage. What happens when the end
user tries to access data that has not been touched in 6 months?
A.
The end user is unaware that the data has been moved to secondary tier storage and is able to
access the data without difficulty.
B.
The networking mapping window appears, allowing the end user to re-establish direct access to
the data even though it has been moved to secondary storage.
C.
An error message appears saying “File is no longer unavailable.”
D.
A message appears explaining that the file has been archived, and a link to the new secondary
storage tier location is provided

Answer 182

A.
The end user is unaware that the data has been moved to secondary tier storage and is able to
access the data without difficulty.

Question 183

Although not all modules run on all platforms, each F5 hardware platform can run LTM plus at
least one additional software module.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 183

A.
True

Question 184

The production version of BIG-IP Virtual Edition is limited to 200 Mbps throughput.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 184

B.
False
Explanation:
The production version of BIG-IP Virtual Edition can be at 25Mbps / 200Mbps / 1Gbps / or 5Gbps
throughput served and maybe higher in the next versions.

Question 185

What percentage of storage in a typical environment is actively used and modified?
A.
5%
B.
50%
C.
25%
D.
10%
E.
90%

Answer 185

D.
10%

Question 186

________% of F5 products are sent through thorough software testing before being sold to
customers.
A.
100
B.
50
C.
60
D.
80

Answer 186

A.
100

Question 187

Which of these statements about a stream profile is false?
A.
It is applied to an HTTP class profile.
B.
It is not recommended for telnet traffic.
C.
It can replace one data string for another for all traffic going through a virtual server.
D.
It applies to both inbound and outbound traffic.
E.
It will not inspect HTTP headers when an HTTP profile is present.

Answer 187

A.
It is applied to an HTTP class profile.

Question 188

If LTM uses the round robin load balancing method, which pool member in the diagram above will
receive the next request? (Refer to image in the original PDF)

Answer 188

Answer: D
Explanation:
LTM uses the round robin load balancing method so after A will be B.

Question 189

Basic F5 IP Geo location provides which four types of client information? (Choose four.)
A.
State
B.
Continent
C.
Postal code
D.
City
E.
Carrier
F.
Country

Answer 189

A. State
B. Continent
E. Carrier
F. Country

Explanation:
State - Country - Continent - City
State - Country - Postal code - City
The BIG-IP system uses geo location software to identify the geographic location of a client or web
application user. The default IP geo location database provides IPv4 addresses at the continent,
country, state, ISP, and organization levels, and IPv6 addresses at the continent and country
levels. The database consists of the following files:
F5GeoIP.dat
F5GeoIPv6.dat
F5GeoIPISP.dat
F5GeoIPOrg.dat

Question 190

All members of a pool must share the same service port?
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 190

B.
False

Question 191

When using SNAT, which additional IP addresses will the BIG-IP system change? (Choose two.)
A.
The source IP address on the client to BIG-IP request packet.
B.
The source IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
C.
The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
D.
The source IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.
E.
The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.
F.
The destination IP address on the pool member to BIG-IP response packet.

Answer 191

B.
The source IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
E.
The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.

Question 192

Which two of the following statements about how TMOS typically manages traffic between a client
and server are accurate? (Choose two.)
A.
It changes the destination address before forwarding a request to the server.
B.
It changes the destination address before sending a response to the client.
C.
It changes the source address before sending a response to the client.
D.
It changes the source address before forwarding a request to the server.

Answer 192

B.
It changes the destination address before sending a response to the client
D.
It changes the source address before forwarding a request to the server.

Question 193

DRAG DROP- Refer to the original Image on the PDF
Match the security-related term with the correct definition.
1. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
2. Denial of service (DoS)
3. DNS Express
4. DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC)
5. Endpoint inspection

Answer 193

1. Demilitarized zone (DMZ) – A portion of an enterprise network that sits behind a firewall but
   outside of or segmented from the internal network.
2. Denial of service (DoS) – An attack that floods a network or server with requests and data
   making it unavailable.
3. DNS Express – A high-speed in-memory authoritative DNS slave that can dramatically reduce
   the DNS server infrastructure.
4. DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC) – A set of standards created to address vulnerabilities in
   the Domain Name System (DNS) and protect it from online threats.
5. Endpoint inspection – Ensures a client device does not present a security risk before it is
   granted a remote-access connection to the network.

Question 194

What feature of the F5 Exchange solution helps administrators to streamline implementation for
added security and granular control?
A.
iControl
B.
Enterprise Manager
C.
iApps
D.
WebAccelerator

Answer 194

A.
iControl

Question 195

Select the key question you would use to ask your customer related to DNS attacks?
A.
Do you over-provision your DNS infrastructure?
B.
Do you regularly update BIND or some other DNS application to the latest release?
C.
Do you rely on your network firewall to protect your DNS server?
D.
How do you secure your DNS infrastructure against attacks?

Answer 195

D.
How do you secure your DNS infrastructure against attacks?

Question 196

When a business is hacked, they often lose more than money. What are the other
consequences to a business as a result of being hacked? Select two.
A.
Helpful third party reviews of the security needs of the customer’s web applications.
B.
Valuable free press that occurs as companies address hacking incidents.
C.
Penalties related to non-compliance with laws and regulations.
D.
Final resolution of all security vulnerabilities of the business’ web applications.
E.
Loss of customers when slow connections drive customers to competitor’s site.

Answer 196

A.
Helpful third party reviews of the security needs of the customer’s web applications.
D.
Final resolution of all security vulnerabilities of the business’ web applications.

Question 197

Match the security-related term with the correct definition. Refer to the original Image on the PDF
1. OWASP Top 10
2. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
3. Bot
4. Certificate
5. Content scrubbing

Answer 197

1. OWASP Top 10 – A list of the 10 most dangerous current Web application security flaws, along
   with the effective methods of dealing with those flaws.
2. Secure Socket Layer (SSL) – A cryptographic protocol used to secure communications over the
   Internet.
3. Bot – Malicious software placed on other people’s computers to perform automated tasks over
   the Internet.
4. Certificate – A digitally signed statement issued by a trusted organization that contains
   information about an entity and the entity’s public key.
5. Content scrubbing – Obfuscating identity information to prevent confidential information from
   being sent in a web application response.

Question 198

Complete the statement below by choosing the correct word or phrase to complete the sentence.
By identifying IP addresses and security categories associated with malicious activity, the BIG-IP
_______ service can incorporate dynamic lists of threatening IP addresses into the BIG-IP
platform, adding context to policy decisions.
A.
Edge Client
B.
iRules
C.
LTM
D.
IP intelligence
E.
iApps

Answer 198

D.
IP intelligence

Question 199

Even though F5 is an application delivery controller, it can also effectively mitigate attacks directed
at the network layer.
A.
True
B.
False

Answer 199

A.
True

Question 200

Select the best word or phrase to complete the following sentence.
Using the _______ feature in GTM, F5’s Application Delivery Firewall solution can handle a
significantly higher number of queries than traditional DNS servers.
A.
DNS Express
B.
BIND
C.
Site availability request
D.
Location-based routing

Answer 200

A.
DNS Express

Question 201

If your customer has a policy requirement that cannot be handled in the Visual Policy
Editor, what would you use to supplement the Visual Policy Editor?
A.
iApps
B.
TMOS
C.
iControl
D.
iRules

Answer 201

D.
iRules

Question 202

Which aspect of F5’s Intelligent Services Platform helps you extend your security conversation to
include F5professionals and customers?
A.
Modular Functionality
B.
iApps
C.
TMOS
D.
DevCentral

Answer 202

D.
DevCentral

Question 203

Why is BIG-IP ASM ideally suited to protect against layer 7 attacks, including HTTP and
HTTPS/SSL traffic, when compared to an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
A.
An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is based on Packet Filtering.
B.
An IPS doesn’t have the visibility into HTTPS traffic. it doesn’t understand what applications are in
the network.
C.
An IPS only focus on operating system attacks; it doesn’t understand what application are in the
network.
D.
An IPS can only look at overall traffic patterns; it doesn’t understand what applications are in the
network.

Answer 203

D.
An IPS can only look at overall traffic patterns; it doesn’t understand what applications are in the
network.

Question 204

The F5 Visual Policy Editor (VPE) is unique to the F5 BIG-IP APM module; no other access
management tool has this capability. Select the features that the VPE provides. Select two.
A.
Develop customized reports on user access
B.
Customize landing or login pages
C.
Establish highly detailed policies based on customer business requirements
D.
Configure authentication server objects
E.
Perform multiple factors of authentication

Answer 204

C.
Establish highly detailed policies based on customer business requirements
E.
Perform multiple factors of authentication

Question 205

The F5 Visual Policy Editor (VPE) is unique to the F5 BIG-IP APM module; no other access
management tool has this capability. Select the features that the VPE provides. Select two.
A.
Determines antivirus patch levels
B.
Customizes landing or login page
C.
Provides vulnerability scanning
D.
Checks operating system patch levels
E.
Assigns a lease pool address

Answer 205

A.
Determines antivirus patch levels
D.
Checks operating system patch levels

Question 206

Select the two best questions you would use to ask your customer about their current web access
management solution. Select two.
A.
What impact are slow remote access connections having on productivity?
B.
Are you using Google multi-factor authentication?
C.
Is user authentication data sitting on partner systems outside your control?
D.
Have you standardized on Androids or iPhones?
E.
How are you planning to extend Exchange to your mobile users?
F.
How do you think a global remote access deployment with integrated acceleration and availability
services might benefit your business?

Answer 206

A.
What impact are slow remote access connections having on productivity?
F.
How do you think a global remote access deployment with integrated acceleration and availability
services might benefit your business?

Question 207

Data centers often rely on either traditional firewalls or next generation firewalls. Select the core
weakness of the traditional or next generation firewalls when it comes to DDoS attacks.
A.
They are limited in amount of connections per second and the amount of sustained connections
they can handle
B.
The cost performance ratio of next generation firewalls is too high.
C.
The agility of traditional firewalls is too limited when it comes to DDoS attacks.
D.
Data center traffic is primarily outbound.

Answer 207

A.
They are limited in amount of connections per second and the amount of sustained connections
they can handle

Question 208

Select the question you would ask your customer related to DNS attacks. Based on the material,
choose the most appropriate question.
A.
How do you secure you DNS infrastructure against attacks?
B.
Do you rely on your network firewall to protect you DNS server?
C.
Do you over-provision your DNS infrastructure?
D.
Do you regularly update BIND or some other DNS application to the latest release?

Answer 208

A.
How do you secure you DNS infrastructure against attacks?

Question 209

Why does the F5 Application Delivery Firewall solution mitigate SSL attacks more effectively than
any other firewalls?
A.
Because F5 has unlimited capacity to handle SSL traffic.
B.
Because F5 has full visibility and control of SSL traffic.
C.
Because F5 has a separate iApp to handle SSL traffic.
D.
Because F5 supports large SSL key sizes.

Answer 209

B.
Because F5 has full visibility and control of SSL traffic.

Question 210

Assume a client’s traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or virtual server processing
takes place. Also assume that the NAT definition specifies a NAT address and an origin address
while all other settings are left at their defaults. If the origin server were to initiate traffic via the
BIG-IP, what changes, if any, would take place when the BIG-IP processes such packets?
A.
The BIG-IP would drop the request since the traffic didn’t arrive destined to the NAT address.
B.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be changed to the NAT
address.
C.
The source address would be changed to the NAT address and destination address would be left
unchanged.
D.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be changed to a self-IP
of the BIG-IP.

Answer 210

C.
The source address would be changed to the NAT address and destination address would be left
unchanged.

Question 211

A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets arriving from the Internet for clients
sing some pools but not others. The determination is not based on the client’s IP address, but on
the pool they are load balanced to. What could best accomplish this goal?
A.
A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select
pools.
B.
The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal
cannot be achieved.
C.
For each virtual server, regardless their default load balancing pools, association with SNAT
pools could vary dependent upon need.
D.
The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client’s address (or
network). Thus, this goal cannot be achieved.

Answer 211

A.
A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select

Question 212

Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)
A.
SNATs are enabled on all VLANs, by default.
B.
SNATs can be configured within a Profile definition.
C.
SNATs can be configured within a Virtual Server definition.
D.
SNAT’s are enabled only on the VLAN where origin traffic arrives, by default.

Answer 212

A.
SNATs are enabled on all VLANs, by default.
C.
SNATs can be configured within a Virtual Server definition.

Question 213

What is the purpose of floating self-IP addresses?
A.
to define an address that grants administrative access to either system at any time
B.
to define an address that allows either system to initiate communication at any time
C.
to define an address that allows network devices to route traffic via a single IP address
D.
to define an address that gives network devices greater flexibility in choosing a path to forward
traffic

Answer 213

C.
to define an address that allows network devices to route traffic via a single IP address

Question 214

Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized?
A.
host names
B.
system clocks
C.
profile definitions
D.
VLAN failsafe settings
E.
MAC masquerade addresses

Answer 214

C.
profile definitions

Question 215

Which two statements are true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair
of BIG-IP systems? (Choose two.)
A.
Synchronization occurs via a TCP connection using ports 683 and 684.
B.
Connection mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.
C.
Persistence mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.
D.
Connection mirroring data is shared through the serial failover cable unless network failover is
enabled.

Answer 215

B.
Connection mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.
C.
Persistence mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.

Question 216

Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently active? (Choose two.)
A.
The bigtop command displays the status.
B.
Only the active system’s configuration screens are active.
C.
The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in
the command prompt.
D.
The ifconfig a command displays the floating addresses on the active system.

Answer 216

A.
The bigtop command displays the status.
C.
The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in
the command prompt.

Question 217

As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP.
What would be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?
A.
Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication.
B.
In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is
synchronized between the systems.
C.
The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same selfIP addresses as the source system
D.
When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they will
always connect to the active system.

Answer 217

C.
The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same selfIP addresses as the source system.

Question 218

When network failover is enabled, which of the following is true?
A.
The failover cable status is ignored. Failover is determined by the network status only.
B.
Either a network failure or loss of voltage across the failover cable will cause a failover.
C.
A network failure will not cause a failover as long as there is a voltage across the failover cable.
D.
The presence or absence of voltage over the failover cable takes precedence over network
failover.

Answer 218

C.
A network failure will not cause a failover as long as there is a voltage across the failover cable.

Question 219

Where is connection mirroring configured?
A.
It an option within a TCP profile.
B.
It is an optional feature of each pool.
C.
It is not configured; it is default behavior.
D.
It is an optional feature of each virtual server.

Answer 219

D.
It is an optional feature of each virtual server.

Question 220

Which statement is true regarding failover?
A.
Hardware failover is disabled by default.
B.
Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover.
C.
If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will
always assume the active role.
D.
By default, hardware failover detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across
the internal VLAN.

Answer 220

B.
Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover

Question 221

Where is persistence mirroring configured?
A.
It is always enabled.
B.
It is part of a pool definition.
C.
It is part of a profile definition.
D.
It is part of a virtual server definition.

Answer 221

C.
It is part of a profile definition.

Question 222

Assume the bigd daemon fails on the active system. Which three are possible results? (Choose
three.)
A.
The active system will restart the bigd daemon and continue in active mode.
B.
The active system will restart the TMM daemon and continue in active mode.
C.
The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode.
D.
The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode.
E.
The active system will continue in active mode but gather member and node state information
from the standby system.

Answer 222

A.
The active system will restart the bigd daemon and continue in active mode.
C.
The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode.
D.
The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode.

Question 223

What is the purpose of MAC masquerading?
A.
to prevent ARP cache errors
B.
to minimize ARP entries on routers
C.
to minimize connection loss due to ARP cache refresh delays
D.
to allow both BIG-IP devices to simultaneously use the same MAC address

Answer 223

C.
to minimize connection loss due to ARP cache refresh delays

Question 224

Which process or system can be monitored by the BIG-IP system and used as a failover trigger in
a redundant pair configuration.
A.
bandwidth utilization
B.
duplicate IP address
C.
CPU utilization percentage
D.
VLAN communication ability

Answer 224

D.
VLAN communication ability

Question 225

Assuming there are open connections through an active system’s NAT and a failover occurs, by
default, what happens to those connections? (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
All open connections will be lost.
B.
All open connections will be maintained.
C.
The “Mirror” option must be chosen on the NAT and the setting synchronized prior to the
connection establishment.
D.
Long-lived connections such as Telnet and FTP will be maintained while short-lived connections
such as HTTP will be lost.
E.
All open connections are lost, but new connections are initiated by the newly active BIG-IP,
resulting in minimal client downtime.

Answer 225

B.
All open connections will be maintained.

Question 226

A virtual server is defined per the charts. The last five client connections were to members C, D,
A, B, B. Given the conditions shown in the above graphic, if a client with IP address 205.12.45.52
opens a connection to the virtual server, which member will be used for the connection? (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
172.16.20.1:80
B.
172.16.20.2:80
C.
172.16.20.3:80
D.
172.16.20.4:80
E.
172.16.20.5:80

Answer 226

D.
172.16.20.4:80

Question 227

Which statement is correct if a TOP-based monitor is assigned to an LTM System and an
HTTP-based monitor is assigned to one of that LTM System’s Virtual Servers?
A.
The Virtual Server status is based on the TCP monitor only.
B.
The Virtual Server status is based on the HTTP monitor only.
C.
GTM Systems do not allow monitors on both an LTM System and one of its Virtual Servers.
D.
The Virtual Server status is based on both the TOP and HTTP monitor; if either fails, the Virtual
Server is unavailable.
E.
The Virtual Server status is based on both the TOP and HTTP monitor; if either succeeds, the
Virtual Server is available.

Answer 227

B.
The Virtual Server status is based on the HTTP monitor only.

Question 228

With standard DNS, assuming no DNS request failures, which process describes the normal
resolution process on a “first time” DNS request?
A.
Client requests address from root server, root server returns IP address to Authoritative DNS,
Authoritative DNS returns requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.
B.
Client requests address from LDNS, LDNS requests from GTM, GTM requests from Authoritative
DNS, Authoritative DNS returns requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to
client.
C.
Client requests address from LDNS, Authoritative DNS receives request from root server, root
server returns LDNS address, LDNS returns client address, Authoritative DNS returns requested
IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.
D.
Client requests address from LDNS, LDNS requests from root server, root server returns
Authoritative DNS address, LDNS requests from Authoritative DNS, Authoritative DNS returns
requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.

Answer 228

D.
Client requests address from LDNS, LDNS requests from root server, root server returns
Authoritative DNS address, LDNS requests from Authoritative DNS, Authoritative DNS returns
requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.

Question 229

What is the purpose of provisioning?
A.
Provisioning allows modules that are not licensed to be fully tested.
B.
Provisioning allows modules that are licensed be granted appropriate resource levels.
C.
Provisioning allows the administrator to activate modules in nonstandard combinations.
D.
Provisioning allows the administrator to see what modules are licensed, but no user action is ever
required.

Answer 229

B.
Provisioning allows modules that are licensed be granted appropriate resource levels.

Question 230

Which three properties can be assigned to nodes? (Choose three.)
A.
ratio values
B.
priority values
C.
health monitors
D.
connection limits
E.
load balancing mode

Answer 230

A.
ratio values
C.
health monitors
D.
connection limits

Question 231

Where is the load balancing mode specified?
A.
within the pool definition
B.
within the node definition
C.
within the virtual server definition
D.
within the pool member definition

Answer 231

A.
within the pool definition

Question 232

Which statement accurately describes the difference between two load balancing modes specified as “member” and “node”?
A.
There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B.
When the load balancing choice references “node”, priority group activation is unavailable.
C.
Load balancing options referencing “nodes” are available only when the pool members are
defined for the “any” port.
D.
When the load balancing choice references “node”, the addresses’ parameters are used to make
the load balancing choice rather than the member’s parameters.

Answer 232

D.
When the load balancing choice references “node”, the addresses’ parameters are used to make
the load balancing choice rather than the member’s parameters.

Question 233

Which two can be a part of a virtual server’s definition? (Choose two.)
A.
rule(s)
B.
pool(s)
C.
monitor(s)
D.
node address(es)
E.
load balancing method(s)

Answer 233

A.
rule(s)
B.
pool(s)

Question 234

Assume a BIG-IP has no NATs or SNATs configured. Which two scenarios are possible when
client traffic arrives on a BIG-IP that is NOT destined to a self-IP? (Choose two.)
A.
If the destination of the traffic does not match a virtual server, the traffic will be discarded.
B.
If the destination of the traffic does not match a virtual server, the traffic will be forwarded based
on routing tables.
C.
If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be processed per the virtual
server definition. If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be
processed per the virtual server. definition.
D.
If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be forwarded, but it cannot be
load balanced since no SNAT has been configured.

Answer 234

A.
If the destination of the traffic does not match a virtual server, the traffic will be discarded.
C.
If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be processed per the virtual
server definition. If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be
processed per the virtual server. definition.

Question 235

When configuring a pool member’s monitor, which three association options are available?
(Choose three.)
A.
inherit the pool’s monitor
B.
inherit the node’s monitor
C.
configure a default monitor
D.
assign a monitor to the specific member
E.
do not assign any monitor to the specific member

Answer 235

A.
inherit the pool’s monitor
D.
assign a monitor to the specific member
E.
do not assign any monitor to the specific member

Question 236

The current status of a given pool member is unknown. Which condition could explain that state?
A.
The member has no monitor assigned to it.
B.
The member has a monitor assigned to it and the most recent monitor was successful.
C.
The member has a monitor assigned to it and the monitor did not succeed during the most recent
timeout period.
D.
The member’s node has a monitor assigned to it and the monitor did not succeed during the most
recent timeout period.

Answer 236

A.
The member has no monitor assigned to it.

Question 237

The default staging-tightening period for attack signatures and wildcard entities is?
A.
5 days
B.
7 days
C.
10 days
D.
30 days

Answer 237

B.
7 days

Question 238

Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they
be customized prior to use?
A.
Most templates, such as HTTP and TCP, are as effective as customized monitors.
B.
Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or
performance.
C.
Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more
robust.
D.
While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without
modification are not improved by specific changes.

Answer 238

C.
Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more
robust.

Question 239

You have a pool of servers that need to be tested. All of the servers but one should be tested
every 10 seconds, but one is slower and should only be tested every 20 seconds. How do you proceed?
A.
It cannot be done. All monitors test every five seconds.
B.
It can be done, but will require assigning monitors to each pool member.
C.
It cannot be done. All of the members of a pool must be tested at the same frequency.
D.
It can be done by assigning one monitor to the pool and a different monitor to the slower pool
member.

Answer 239

D.
It can be done by assigning one monitor to the pool and a different monitor to the slower pool
member.

Question 240

When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?
A.
Never. Each virtual server has a maximum of one profile.
B.
Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common.
C.
Rarely. One combination, using both the TCP and HTTP profile does occur, but it is the
exception.
D.
Unlimited. Profiles can work together in any combination to ensure that all traffic types are
supported in a given virtual server.

Answer 240

B.
Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common.

Question 241

A site needs a virtual server that will use an iRule to parse HTTPS traffic based on HTTP header
values. Which two profile types must be associated with such a virtual server?
(Choose two.)
A.
TCP
B.
HTTP
C.
HTTPS
D.
ServerSSL

Answer 241

A.
TCP
B.
HTTP

Question 242

You have created a custom profile named TEST2. The parent profile of TEST2 is named TEST1.
If additional changes are made to TEST1, what is the effect on TEST2?
A.
All changes to TEST1 are propagated to TEST2.
B.
Some of the changes to TEST1 may propagate to TEST2.
C.
Changes to TEST1 cannot affect TEST2 once TEST2 is saved.
D.
When TEST1 is changed, the administrator is prompted and can choose whether to propagate
changes to TEST2.

Answer 242

B.
Some of the changes to TEST1 may propagate to TEST2.

Question 243

If a client’s browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual
server using cookie persistence?
A.
The connection request is not processed.
B.
The connection request is sent to a pology.server. The connection request is sent to a
pology.server.
C.
The connection request is load balanced to an available pool member.
D.
The connection request is refused and the client is sent a “server not available” message.

Answer 243

C.
The connection request is load balanced to an available pool member.

Question 244

The incoming client IP address is 195.64.45.52 and the last five connections have been sent to
members A, C, E, D and B. Given the virtual server, pool, and persistence definitions and statistics
shown in the above graphic, which member will be used for the next connection? (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
10.10.20.1:80
B.
10.10.20.2:80
C.
10.10.20.3:80
D.
10.10.20.4:80
E.
10.10.20.5:80
F.
It cannot be determined with the information given.

Answer 244

C.
10.10.20.3:80

Question 245

Which statement is true concerning cookie persistence.
A.
Cookie persistence allows persistence independent of IP addresses.
B.
Cookie persistence allows persistence even if the data are encrypted from client to pool member.
C.
Cookie persistence uses a cookie that stores the virtual server, pool name, and member IP
address in clear text.
D.
If a client’s browser accepts cookies, cookie persistence will always cause a cookie to be written
to the client’s file system.

Answer 245

A.
Cookie persistence allows persistence independent of IP addresses.

Question 246

How is persistence configured?
A.
Persistence is an option within each pool’s definition.
B.
Persistence is a profile type; an appropriate profile is created and associated with virtual server.
C.
Persistence is a global setting; once enabled, load balancing choices are superseded by the
persistence method that is specified.
D.
Persistence is an option for each pool member. When a pool is defined, each member’s definition
includes the option for persistence

Answer 246

B.
Persistence is a profile type; an appropriate profile is created and associated with virtual server.

Question 247

Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIGIP?
A.
No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.
B.
The BIG-IP’s SSL certificates must only exist.
C.
The BIG-IP’s SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority.
D.
The BIG-IP’s SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs.

Answer 247

A.
No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.

Question 248

Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the
virtual server’s destination port was not 443?
A.
SSL termination could not be performed if the virtual server’s port was not port 443.
B.
Virtual servers with a ClientSSL profile are always configured with a destination port of 443.
C.
As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as
intended.
D.
Since the virtual server is associated with a ClientSSL profile, it will always process traffic sent to
port 443.

Answer 248

C.
As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as
intended.

Question 249

Which statement is true concerning SSL termination.
A.
A virtual server that has both ClientSSL and ServerSSL profiles can still support cookie
persistence.
B.
Decrypting traffic at the BIG-IP allows the use of iRules for traffic management, but increases the
load on the pool member.
C.
When any virtual server uses a ClientSSL profile, all SSL traffic sent to the BIG-IP is decrypted
before it is forwarded to servers.
D.
If a virtual server has both a ClientSSL and ServerSSL profile, the pool members have less SSL
processing than if the virtual server had only a ClientSSL profile.

Answer 249

A.
A virtual server that has both ClientSSL and ServerSSL profiles can still support cookie
persistence.

Question 250

A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets from some clients but not others. The determination is not based on the client’s IP address, but on the virtual servers their packets
arrive on. What could best accomplish this goal?
A.
A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select
VLANs.
B.
Some virtual servers could be associated with SNAT pools and others not associated with SNAT
pools.
C.
The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal
cannot be achieved.
D.
The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client’s address (or
network). Thus, this goal cannot be achieved.

Answer 250

B.
Some virtual servers could be associated with SNAT pools and others not associated with SNAT
pools.

Question 251

Assume a client’s traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or virtual server processing
takes place. Also assume that the NAT definition specifies a NAT address and an origin address
while all other settings are left at their defaults. If a client were to initiate traffic to the NAT address,
what changes, if any, would take place when the BIG-IP processes such packets?
A.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be translated to the
origin address.
B.
The destination address would not change, but the source address would be translated to the
origin address.
C.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be translated to the
NAT’s address.
D.
The destination address would not change, but the source address would be translated to the
NAT’s address.

Answer 251

A.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be translated to the
origin address.

Question 252

A standard virtual server is defined with a pool and a SNAT using automap. All other settings for
the virtual server are at defaults. When client traffic is processed by the BIG-IP, what will occur to
the IP addresses?
A.
Traffic initiated by the pool members will have the source address translated to a self-IP address
but the destination address will not be changed.
B.
Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination address translated to a pool member
address and the source address. Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination
address translated to a pool member. address and the source address translated to a self-IP
address.
C.
Traffic initiated by selected clients, based on their IP address, will have the source address
translated to a self-IP address but the destination will only be translated if the traffic is destined to
the virtual server.
D.
Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination address translated to a pool member
address and the source address. Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination
address translated to a pool member. address and the source address translated to a selfIP address. Traffic arriving destined to other destinations will have the source translated to a selfIP address only.

Answer 252

B.
Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination address translated to a pool member
address and the source address. Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination
address translated to a pool member. address and the source address translated to a self-IP
address.

Question 253

Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired (translating only desired
packets)?
A.
The SNAT must be enabled for all VLANs.
B.
The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets
leave the BIG-IP.
C.
The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP.
D.
The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive and leave the BIGIP.

Answer 253

C.
The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP.

Question 254

A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 with SNAT automap configured. This BIGIP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 /
255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address
200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address when the
associated packet is sent to the pool member?
A.
200.200.1.1
B.
150.150.10.11
C.
Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system
D.
Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system

Answer 254

C.
Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system

Question 255

Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT automap is specified within a
Virtual Server configuration?
A.
The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet
leaves the system.
B.
The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system.
C.
It will alternate between the floating and nonfloating self IP address on the VLAN where the
packet leaves the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.
D.
It will alternate between the floating and nonfloating self IP address on the VLAN where the
packet arrives on the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.

Answer 255

A.
The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet
leaves the system

Question 256

A virtual server at 10.10.1.100:80 has the rule listed below applied. when HTTP_REQUEST { if
{[HTTP::uri] ends_with “htm” } { pool pool1 } elseif {[HTTP::uri] ends_with “xt” } { pool pool2 } If a
user connects to http://10.10.1.100/foo.txt which pool will receive the request.
A.
pool1
B.
pool2
C.
None. The request will be dropped.
D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.

Answer 256

B.
pool2

Question 257

Which statement is true concerning iRule events.
A.
All iRule events relate to HTTP processes.
B.
All client traffic has data that could be used to trigger iRule events.
C.
All iRule events are appropriate at any point in the client-server communication.
D.
If an iRule references an event that doesn’t occur during the client’s communication, the client’s
connection will be terminated prematurely.

Answer 257

B.
All client traffic has data that could be used to trigger iRule events.

Question 258

Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load
balancing. (Choose 3)
A.
CLIENT_DATA
B.
SERVER_DATA
C.
HTTP_REQUEST
D.
HTTP_RESPONSE
E.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED
F.
SERVER_SELECTED
G.
SERVER_CONNECTED

Answer 258

A.
CLIENT_DATA
C.
HTTP_REQUEST
E.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED

Question 259

Which event is always triggered when a client initially connects to a virtual server configured with
an HTTP profile?
A.
HTTP_DATA
B.
CLIENT_DATA
C.
HTTP_REQUEST
D.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED

Answer 259

D.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED

Question 260

A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:80 and has the following iRule associated with it: (SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
If a user connects to http://10.10.1.100/foo.html, which pool will receive the request?
A.
pool1
B.
pool2
C.
None. The request will be dropped.
D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.

Answer 260

D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.

Question 261

A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:any and has the following iRule associated with it: (SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
pool1
B.
pool2
C.
None. The request will be dropped.
D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.

Answer 261

D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.

Question 262

Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration
Utility or by typing b config sync all?
A.
The process should always be run from the standby system.
B.
The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.
C.
The two /config/BIG-IP.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the
process is run.
D.
Multiple files, including /config/BIG-IP.conf and /config/BIG-IP_base.conf, are synchronized
(made identical) each time the process is run.

Answer 262

C.
The two /config/BIG-IP.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the
process is run.

Question 263

Which statement is true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair of BIG-IP
devices?
A.
Communication between the systems cannot be effected by port lockdown settings.
B.
Data for both connection and persistence mirroring are shared
through the same TCP connection.
C.
Regardless of the configuration, some data is communicated between the systems at regular
intervals.
D.
Connection mirroring data is shared through the serial failover cable unless network failover is
enabled.

Answer 263

B.
Data for both connection and persistence mirroring are shared
through the same TCP connection.

Question 264

When upgrading a BIG-IP redundant pair, what happens when one system has been updated but
the other has not?
A.
Synching should not be performed.
B.
The first system to be updated will assume the Active role.
C.
This is not possible since both systems are updated simultaneously.
D.
The older system will issue SNMP traps indicating a communication error with the partner.

Answer 264

A.
Synching should not be performed.

Question 265

When using the setup utility to configure a redundant pair, you are asked to provide a “Failover
Peer IP”. Which address is this?
A.
an address of the other system in its management network
B.
an address of the other system in a redundant pair configuration
C.
an address on the current system used to listen for failover messages from the partner BIG-IP
D.
an address on the current system used to initiate mirroring and network failover heartbeat
messages

Answer 265

B.
an address of the other system in a redundant pair configuration

Question 266

Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose
two.)
A.
Monitors are performed only by the active system.
B.
Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system.
C.
Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.
D.
Configuration changes can only be made on the active system.
E.
Floating self-IP addresses are hosted only by the active system.

Answer 266

C.
Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.
E.
Floating self-IP addresses are hosted only by the active system.

Question 267

Assuming other failover settings are at their default state, what would occur if the failover cable
were to be disconnected for five seconds and then reconnected.
A.
As long as network communication is not lost, no change will occur.
B.
Nothing. Failover due to loss of voltage will not occur if the voltage is lost for less than ten
seconds.
C.
When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When
the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode.
D.
When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored,
both systems will maintain active mode.

Answer 267

C.
When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When
the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode.

Question 268

Given that VLAN failsafe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIG-IP’s
external VLAN is connected to has failed, which statement is always true about the results?
A.
The active system will note the failure in the HA table.
B.
The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode.
C.
The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode.
D.
The active system will restart the traffic management module to eliminate the possibility that BIGIP is the cause for the network failure

Answer 268

A.
The active system will note the failure in the HA table.

Question 269

Assuming there are open connections through an active system’s virtual servers and a failover
occurs, by default, what happens to the connections?
A.
All open connections are lost.
B.
All open connections are maintained.
C.
When persistence mirroring is enabled, open connections are maintained even if a failover
occurs.
D.
Long-lived connections such as Telnet and FTP are maintained, but short-lived connections such
as HTTP are lost.
E
All open connections are lost, but new connections are initiated by the newly active BIG-IP,
resulting in minimal client downtime.

Answer 269

A.
All open connections are lost

Question 270

How is MAC masquerading configured?
A.
Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled.
B.
Specify the desired MAC address for each self-IP address for which you want this feature
enabled.
C.
Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN on the active system and synchronize the
systems.
D.
Specify the desired MAC address for each floating self-IP address for which you want this feature
enabled.

Answer 270

A.
Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled.

Question 271

Which action will take place when a failover trigger is detected by the active system?
A.
The active device will take the action specified for the failure.
B.
The standby device also detects the failure and assumes the active role
C.
The active device will wait for all connections to terminate and then failover.
D.
The standby device will begin processing virtual servers that have failed, but the active device will
continue servicing the functional virtual servers.

Answer 271

A.
The active device will take the action specified for the failure.

Question 272

Assuming that systems are synchronized, which action could take place if the failover cable is
connected correctly and working properly, but the systems cannot communicate over the network
due to extern al network problems.
A.
If network failover is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode.
B.
Whether or not network failover is enabled, the standby system will stay in standby mode.
C.
Whether or not network failover is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode.
D.
If network failover is enabled, the standby system will go into active mode but only until the
network recovers.

Answer 272

B.
Whether or not network failover is enabled, the standby system will stay in standby mode.

Question 273

Which statement is true concerning iRule context?
A.
The iRule event declaration determines the context.
B.
The context must be explicitly declared.
C.
The rule command determines the context.
D.
The results of the iRule’s conditional statement determines the context.

Answer 273

A.
The iRule event declaration determines the context.

Question 274

The following iRule is being used within a persistence profile on a virtual server. Assuming the
following HTTP requests are made within the same timeout window, what is the maximum
number of persistence records that will be created iRule: (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
4
B.
3
C.
10
D.
It cannot be determined from the given data.
E.
5
F.
1
G.
0

Answer 274

A.
4

Question 275

Which statement is true concerning SNATs using SNAT pools and SNATs using automap?
A.
SNAT s using automap preferentially translate source addresses to nonfloating self-IP addresses.
B.
SNAT s using a SNAT pool translate source addresses randomly to any of the addresses in the
SNAT pool.
C.
SNAT s using automap translate source addresses randomly to any of the BIG-IP’s floating self-IP
addresses.
D.
A SNAT pool can contain virtual server addresses.

Answer 275

A.
SNAT s using automap preferentially translate source addresses to nonfloating self-IP addresses.

Question 276

Why would an administrator capture monitor traffic between a BIG-IP and servers?
A.
Viewing monitor traffic could help the administrator to define a more robust monitor.
B.
If a client were having difficulty logging into a load balanced SSH server, viewing and analyzing
the connection process would determine the reason.
C.
Only client traffic may be captured; monitor traffic may not be captured.
D.
If client traffic to servers was failing, viewing and analyzing monitor traffic would determine the
reason.

Answer 276

A.
Viewing monitor traffic could help the administrator to define a more robust monitor.

Question 277

When a pool is created and saved to file, where is the default file and location for the pool
configuration? When a pool is created and saved to file, where is the default file and location for
the pool configuration?
A.
/config/BIG-IP_base.conf
B.
lconfig/BIG-IP.conf
C.
/etc/BIG-IP_base.conf
D.
/config/BigDB.dat

Answer 277

B.
lconfig/BIG-IP.conf

Question 278

Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A.
In addition to administrator-created filters, three always exists a “deny all” filter that processes
traffic last.
B.
Filters cannot prevent access to the management port.
C.
The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied.
D.
Filters cannot prevent the BIG_IP synching process from taking place.

Answer 278

B.
Filters cannot prevent access to the management port.

Question 279

Which action CANNOT be performed by an iRule?
A.
Direct a connection request to a specific pool.
B.
Substitute a server’s response with alternate data.
C.
Chang the virtual server’s default pool.
D.
Direct a client’s request to a pool based on the client’s browser’s language.
E.
Limit a given client to a set amount of bandwidth.
F.
Discard a client before connecting to a server.

Answer 279

C.
Chang the virtual server’s default pool.

Question 280

Which persistence method will always recognize a client when the client returns to the same
virtual server?
A.
SSL
B.
MSRDP
C.
expression [universal]
D.
No persistence method work in all situations.
E.
source address

Answer 280

D.
No persistence method work in all situations.

Question 281

Which are immediate results of entering the following command:(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
Requests sent to this BIG-IP system with a destination port of 80 are load balanced between the
members of PoolA.
B.
No changes will take place since the command is missing the monitor component for PoolA.
C.
The /config/BIG-IP.cinf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named PoolA
D.
A new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.

Answer 281

D.
A new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.

Question 282

Which three statements are true about SNATs? (Choose three.)
A.
SNAT s provide bidirectional traffic initiation.
B.
SNAT s support UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic.
C.
SNAT s provide a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses.
D.
SNAT addresses can be identical to virtual server IP addresses.

Answer 282

B.
SNAT s support UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic.
C.
SNAT s provide a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses.

Question 283

Given the configuration shown below, if a connection request arrived on the BIG-IP with a source
address of 200.10.10.10:1050 and a destination of 150.10.10.75:80, what would the source IP
address of the associated packet be when it arrived on the choosen member of the web_pool self
150.10.10.1 { netmask 255.255.255.0 unit I floating enable vlan external allow tcp https } self
10.10.1.1 { netmask 255.255.255.0 unit I floating enable vlan internal allow default } pool
web_pool { member 10.10.1.11:80 member 10.10.1.12:80 member 10.10.1.13:80 }snatpool
client_pool { member 10.10.1.100 member 150.10.10.15 }virtual VS_web { destination 150.10.10.10:80 ip protocol tcp snat automap pool web_pool }virtual VS_network{ destination 150.10.1 0.0:any mask 255.255.255.0 snatpool client_pool ip protocol tcp pool web_pool } virtual VS_network { destination 150.10.1 0.0:any mask 255.255.255.0 snatpool client_pool ip protocol
tcp pool web_pool } virtual VS_network { destination 150.10.10.0:any mask 255.255.255.0
snatpool client_pool ip protocol tcp pool web_pool }
A.
10.10.1.IA.10.10.1.1
B.
200.10.10.I0D.200.10.10.10
C.
10.10.1.I00B.10.10.1.100
D.
150.10.10.15C.150.10.10.15

Answer 283

C.
10.10.1.I00B.10.10.1.100

Question 284

When a virtual server has an HTTP profile with compression enabled, which traffic is compressed
by the BIG-IP?
A.
selected traffic from the BIG-IP to the client
B.
all sever-side traffic for that virtual server
C.
selected traffic from the pool member to the BIG-IP
D.
all client-side traffic for that virtual server

Answer 284

A.
selected traffic from the BIG-IP to the client

Question 285

An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, 2 SNATs, four self IP addresses defined, and the networks
shown in the exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at
their defaults. Assume port exhaustion has not been reached.
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.10.100.50:2222 and a destination
IP and port of 10.10.2.10:80. When the request is processed, what will be the source and
destination IP addresses?
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
The request will be droped.
B.
Source IP: 10.10.2.1; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
C.
Source IP: 10.10.2.102; Destination IP 10.10.2.10
D.
Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
E.
Source IP: 10.10.2.1; Destination IP: pool in the 172.16/16 network C

Answer 285

D.
Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10

Question 286

Which three parameters could be used to determine whether a connection request will have the
source address translated as the request is processed? (Choose three.)
A.
the client’s router’s IP address
B.
the client’s browser’s preferred language
C.
the client’s IP netmask
D.
the client’s TCP port
E.
the client’s IP address
F.
the client IP fragment offset

Answer 286

B.
the client’s browser’s preferred language
D.
the client’s TCP port
E.
the client’s IP address

Question 287

A BIG-IP has the following objects configured: (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A virtual server at 150.10.30.30:80 that is associated with both the SNAT pool and the
load balancing pool. If a client at IP address 200.10.10.10 initiates a connection to the virtual
server, what will the source IP address be in the packets sent to the chosen pool member?
A.
150.10.33.33
B.
10.10.1.33
C.
10.10.1.10
D.
150.10.30.30
E.
200.10.10.10
F.
It could be any of the addresses of the members of the load balancing pool.

Answer 287

B.
10.10.1.33

Question 288

What does the insert X-Forwarded option in an HTTP profile do?
A.
A BIG-IP self-IP is inserted in the source address field on the server-side connection.
B.
A BIG-IP self-IP is inserted in the source address field on the client-side connection.
C.
The client IP addresses are inserted into messages sent to remote syslog servers.
D.
The client IP addresses are inserted into HTTP header.

Answer 288

D.
The client IP addresses are inserted into HTTP header

Question 289

When defining a load balancing pool using the command line, if the load balancing method is not
specified, what is the result?
A.
The default load balancing method would be used.
B.
The load balancing method of the previous pool would be used.
C.
The system would prompt the user for a load balancing method.
D.
An error would be displayed since no load balancing method was specified.

Answer 289

A.
The default load balancing method would be used.

Question 290

What occurs when a save-config command is issued?
A.
The current configuration files are backed up.
B.
The current configuration files are verified for syntax, then the running configuration is installed in
memory.
C.
The current configuration files are loaded into memory.
D.
The current configuration files are saved into an archive format.

Answer 290

A.
The current configuration files are backed up.

Question 291

How many events can be referenced in a given iRule?
A.
iRules are limited to one event, but a virtual server could be associated with multiple rules.
B.
iRules can have multiple events.
C.
Exactly one.
D.
iRules can have up to event if one is client-side and one is server-side.

Answer 291

B.
iRules can have multiple events.

Question 292

Which statement is true regarding OneConnect processing?
A.
The virtual server must have UDP profile.
B.
Server-side request can utilize existing client-side connections.
C.
The number of client connection is reduced.
D.
Client-side request can utilize existing server-side connections.

Answer 292

D.
Client-side request can utilize existing server-side connections.

Question 293

Which tool is used on BIG-IP systems to capture data packets?
A.
tcpdump
B.
snoop
C.
ethereal
D.
qkview

Answer 293

A.
tcpdump

Question 294

Which statement concerning virtual servers is true?
A.
Virtual servers can keep idle server connections open indefinitely.
B.
Virtual servers can compress data between the BIG-IP and servers.
C.
Virtual servers cannot perform load balancing without performing address translation.
D.
Virtual servers can reuse connections between the BIG-IP and server for multiple HTTP GETs.
E.
Virtual server processing always translates the virtual server address to the address of the
chosen pool member.

Answer 294

D.
Virtual servers can reuse connections between the BIG-IP and server for multiple HTTP GETs.

Question 295

Click the Exhibit Button an LTM has the 3 virtual servers, a SNAT defined, four self IP addresses
defined and the networks shown in the exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown
below. Settings not shown are at their defaults.
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.100.50:80 and a destination IP
and port of 10.10.2.10:80. When the request is processed, what will be the source and
destination IP addresses?
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
The request will be dropped.
B.
Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2010
C.
Source IP: 10.20.100.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
D.
Source IP: 10.10.2.1; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10

Answer 295

B.
Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2010

Question 296

A BIG-IP has the following objects configured: A SNAT pool with 2 members: (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A virtual server at 150.10.30.30:80 that is associated with both the SNAT pool and the
load balancing pool. If a client at IP address 200.10.10.10 initiates a connection to the virtual
server, what will the source IP address be in the packets sent to the chosen pool
member?
A.
150.10.30.30
B.
150.10.33.33
C.
10.10.1.10
D.
It could be any of the addresses of the members of the load balancing pool.
E.
10.10.1.33
F.
200.10.10.10

Answer 296

E.
10.10.1.33

Question 297

Which is a potential result when a trunk is configured on a BIG-IP?
A.
No additional trunks can be configuration since each BIG-IP is limited to one trunk
B.
Packets flowing to the VLAN could arrive on any of the interfaces in the trunk
C.
Since any VLANs associated with the trunk are necessarily associated with multiple interfaces,
the VLAN using the must use tagged packets.
D.
VLAN failsafe is not available for any VLAN associated with any trunks.

Answer 297

B.
Packets flowing to the VLAN could arrive on any of the interfaces in the trunk

Question 298

Which two statements are true concerning capabilities of current BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.
The 1600 hosts more ports than the 3900.
B.
All current BIG-IP platform use both an ASIC. And CPU(s)to process traffic.
C.
All current BIG-IP platform can perform hardware compression.
D.
Only 2U BIG-IP Platform have an option of a second power supply.
E.
All BIG-IP have capacity to perform bulk encryption I decryption of SSL traffic independent of the CPU.

Answer 298

B.
All current BIG-IP platform use both an ASIC. And CPU(s)to process traffic.
E.
All BIG-IP have capacity to perform bulk encryption I decryption of SSL traffic independent of the CPU.

Question 299

Which is the result when multiple monitors are assigned to a pool member?
A.
The member is marked available if sufficient monitors succeed, and as unavailable if insufficient
monitors succeed.
B.
The member is marked as available if any of the monitors succeed.
C.
The member is marked as unavailable if any of the monitors fails.
D.
The member is marked available if all monitors succeed, and as marginal if one or more monitors
fail(s).

Answer 299

A.
The member is marked available if sufficient monitors succeed, and as unavailable if insufficient
monitors succeed.

Question 300

An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, four self IP addresses defined and the networks shown in the
exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at their
defaults.
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.100.50:2222 and a destination
IP and port of 10.10.2.102:80.
When the request is processed, what will be the destination IP address?
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
Destination IP: 10.10.2.102
B.
The request will be dropped.
C.
Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network
D.
Destination IP: pool member in the 172.16/16 network

Answer 300

C.
Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network

Question 301

An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, a SNAT, four self IP addresses defined and the networks
shown in the exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at
their defaults.
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.100.50:2222 and a destination
IP and port of 10.10.2.102:80.
When the request is processed, what will be the destination IP address?
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
B.
Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network.
C.
Destination IP: pool member in the 172.16/16
network
D.
The request will be dropped.

Answer 301

A.
Destination IP: 10.10.2.10

Question 302

A site wishes to use an external monitor. Other than what is coded in the monitor script, what
information must be configured on the BIG-IP for the monitor to be functional? (Choose two.)
A.
BIG-IP services that are running on the system to be tested.
B.
BIG-IP the IP addresses of the devices that will be tested. Must know which
C.
BIG-IP node or member the result are to be applied to. Must know all
D.
BIG-IP must know the name of the program.
E.
BIG-IP must know which function the program is going to test. Must know

Answer 302

C.
BIG-IP node or member the result are to be applied to. Must know all
D.
BIG-IP must know the name of the program.

Question 302

Which statement describes advanced shell access correctly?
A.
Users with advanced shell access can always change, add, or delete LTM objects in all partition.
B.
Users with advance shell access are limited to changing, adding, or deleting LTM object in any
single partition.
C.
Users with advance shell access have the same right as those with mesh access, but right extend
to all partition rather than to a single partition.
D.
All Users can be given advanced shell access.

Answer 302

A.
Users with advanced shell access can always change, add, or delete LTM objects in all partition.

Question 303

Which statement describes advanced shell access correctly? Which statement describes
advanced shell access correctly?
A.
The context determines the values of commands that vary between client and server.
B.
The context has no impact on events.
C.
The context determines which events are available for iRule processing.
D.
The context determines which pools are available for load balancing.

Answer 303

A.
The context determines the values of commands that vary between client and server.

Question 304

An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, 2 SNATs, four self IP addresses defined and the networks
shown in the graphic below. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not
shown are at their defaults. Assume port exhaustion has not been reached.
(SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.10.50:2222 and a destination IP
and port of 10.10.2.102:80.
When the request is processed, what will be the source and destination IP addresses?
(SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
Source IP: 10.20.10.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 172.16/16 network
B.
Source IP: 172316.20.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 182.16/16 network
C.
Source IP: 192.168.1.1; Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network
D.
The request will be dropped.
E.
Source IP: 10.20.10.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16
network
F.
Source IP: 182.16.1.1; Destination IP: pool member in the 172316/16 network
G.
Source IP: 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network
H.
Source IP:192.168.10.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168./16 network

Answer 304

F.
Source IP: 182.16.1.1; Destination IP: pool member in the 172316/16 network

Question 305

The partial configuration below includes an iRule, a virtual server, and pools. When traffic from the client at 160.10.10.10:2056 connects to the virtual server Test_VS and sends an HTTP
request, what will the client’s source address be translated to as the traffic is sent to the chosen
pool member?
(SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
160.10.10.IOC.160.10.10.10
B.
It could be either 10.10.10.10 or 10.10.10.11.E.It could be either 10.10.10.10 or 10.10.10.11.
C.
10.10.10.2
D.
200.10.10.1D.200.10.10.1
E.
10.10.10.1

Answer 305

E.
10.10.10.1

Question 306

What is the expected difference between two source address persistence profiles if profile A has
a mask of 255.255.255.0 and profile B has a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A.
Profile A will have more clients matching existing persistence records.
B.
There are no detectable differences.
C.
Profile B has a greater potential number of persistence records.
D.
Profile B will have fewer persistence records for the sane client base.

Answer 306

D.
Profile B will have fewer persistence records for the sane client base.

Question 307

A BIG-IP has two SNATs, a pool of DNS servers and a virtual server configured to load balance
UDP traffic to the DNS servers. One SNAT’s address is 64.100.130.10; this SNAT is defined for
all addresses. The second SNAT’s address is 64.100.130.20; this SNAT is defined for three
specific addresses, 172.16.3.54, 172.16.3.55, and 172.16.3.56. The virtual server’s destination is
64.100.130.30:53. The SNATs and virtual server have default VLAN associations. If a client with
IP address 172.16.3.55 initiates a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address of
the packet as it reaches the chosen DNS server?
A.
64.100.130.30
B.
172.16.3.55
C.
64.100.130.20
D.
64.100.130.10

Answer 307

C.
64.100.130.20

Question 308

A, steaming profile will do which of the following?
A.
Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string only is responses processed by a virtual
server.
B.
Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string only in request processed by a virtual
server.
C.
Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string in requests and responses processed by
a virtual server.
D.
Search and replace the first occurrence of a specified of a specified string in either a request or
response processed by a virtual server.

Answer 308

C.
Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string in requests and responses processed by
a virtual server.

Question 309

A monitor has been defined using the HTTP monitor template. The send and receive strings were
customized, but all other settings were left at their defaults. Which resources can the monitor be
assigned to?
A.
only specific pool members
B.
most virtual severs
C.
most nodes
D.
most pools

Answer 309

D.
most pools

Question 310

When DNS_REV is used as the probe protocol by the GTM System, which information is
expected in the response from the probe?
A.
a reverse name lookup of the GTM System
B.
the list of root servers known by the local DNS
C.
the FQDN of the local DNS being probed for metric information
D.
the revision number of BIND running on the requesting DNS server

Answer 310

C.
the FQDN of the local DNS being probed for metric information

Question 311

Which three can be a part of a pool’s definition? (Choose three.)
A.
Link
B.
Monitors
C.
Wide IPs
D.
Persistence
E.
Data Centers
F.
Virtual Servers

Answer 311

B.
Monitors
D.
Persistence
F.
Virtual Servers

Question 312

Which two must be included in a Wide-IP definition for the Wide-IP to resolve a DNS query?
(Choose two.)
A.
a name
B.
a monitor
C.
a load balancing method
D.
one or more virtual servers

Answer 312

A.
a name
C.
a load balancing method

Question 313

A GTM System would like to ensure that a given LTM System is reachable and iQuery
communication is allowed prior to sending it client request. What would be the simplest monitor
template to use?
A.
TCP
B.
ICMP
C.
HTTP
D.
BIG-IP
E.
SNMP

Answer 313

D.
BIG-IP

Question 314

Which two ports must be enabled to establish communication between GTM Systems and other
BIG IP Systems? (Choose two.)
A.
22
B.
53
C.
443
D.
4353
E.
4354

Answer 314

A.
22
D.
4353

Question 315

When probing LDNSs, which protocol is used by default?
A.
TCP
B.
ICMP
C.
DNS_REV
D.
DNS_DOT

Answer 315

B.
ICMP

Question 316

Which of the following platforms support both standalone and modular BIG-IP ASM
implementations? (Choose 2)
A.
3900
B.
6800
C.
6900
D.
8800

Answer 316

A.
3900
C.
6900

Question 317

Use a proprietary syntax language. Must contain at least one event declaration. Must contain at
least one conditional statement. Must contain at least one pool assignment statement. What must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
A.
the system’s dossier
B.
the system’s base license
C.
the system’s serial number
D.
the system’s purchase order number

Answer 317

A.
the system’s dossier

Question 318

What is the difference between primary and secondary DNS servers?
A.
Only primary servers can issue authoritative responses.
B.
Primary servers host the original copy of the zone database file.
C.
Primary servers resolve names more efficiently than secondary servers.
D.
Secondary servers act as backups and will respond only if the primary fails.

Answer 318

B.
Primary servers host the original copy of the zone database file

Question 319

If the config tool is complete, which two access methods are available by default for GTM administration and configuration? (Choose two.)
A.
network access via http
B.
network access via https
C.
network access via telnet
D.
direct access via serial port

Answer 319

B.
network access via https
D.
direct access via serial port

Question 320

A GTM System performs a name resolution that is not a Wide-IP. The name is in a domain for
which the GTM System is authoritative. Where does the information come from?
A.
It comes from BIND database (zone) files on the GTM System.
B.
GTM System cannot resolve a host name that is not a Wide-IP.
C.
It comes from the database of previously cached
name resolutions.
D.
It comes from a zone transfer initiated when the request was received.

Answer 320

A.
It comes from BIND database (zone) files on the GTM System.

Question 321

A site wishes to delegate the name .wmysite.com to a GTM System. Which entry would be
appropriate in their current DNS servers?
A.
vww.mysite.com. IN A 132.26.33.15
B.
15.33.addrin.arpa.com IN PRT .wiw.mysite.com.
C.
iw.mysite.com. IN CNAME wwip.mysite.com.
D.
wwmysite.com. IN DEL wiwGTM.mysite.com.

Answer 321

C.
iw.mysite.com. IN CNAME wwip.mysite.com.

Question 322

Which statement about root DNS servers is true?
A.
Root servers have databases of all registered DNS servers.
B.
Root servers have databases of the DNS servers for top-level domains.
C.
Root servers have databases of DNS servers for each geographical area. They direct requests to
appropriate LDNS servers.
D.
Root servers have databases of commonly accessed sites. They also cache entries for additional
servers as requests are made.

Answer 322

B.
Root servers have databases of the DNS servers for top-level domains.

Question 323

What is the advantage of specifying three load balancing methods when load balancing within
pools?
A.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System to use all three methods simultaneously.
B.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System to choose the optimal method for each name
resolution.
C.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System alternate methods if insufficient data is
available for other methods.
D.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System to rotate between the three methods so that no
one method is used too often.

Answer 323

C.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System alternate methods if insufficient data is
available for other methods.

Question 324

A pool is using Round Trip Time as its load balancing method (Alternate: Round Robin; Fallback:
None). The last five resolutions have been C, D, C, D, C. Given the current conditions shown in
the table below, which address will be used for the next resolution? (SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

Answer 324

B.
B

Question 325

A pool is using Global Availability as its load balancing method (Alternate:Round Robin; Fallback:
Return to DNS). The last five resolutions have been C, D, C, D, C. Given the current conditions
shown in the table, which address will be used for the next resolution? (SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF Q#325)
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

Answer 325

B.
B

Question 326

What are some changes that must be made on the GTM System so that log messages are sent to centralized System Log servers?
A.
The IP address of the server must be added to the wideip.conf file.
B.
The IP address of the server must be added to the syslogng.conf file.
C.
The IP address of the server and valid user id/password combination must be added to the
hosts.allow file.
D.
The IP address of the server and valid user id/password combination must be added to the syslog
ng.conf file.

Answer 326

B.
The IP address of the server must be added to the syslogng.conf file.

Question 327

What are two advantages of the Quality of Service (QoS) load balancing method? (Choose two.)
A.
It resolves requests to the site with the highest QoS value in the IP header.
B.
It combines multiple load balancing metric values in a single load balancing method.
C.
It allows the GTM administrator to place relative values on each metric used to determine the
optimum site.
D.
It allows the GTM System to select the optimum virtual server based on all available path and
server metrics.

Answer 327

B.
It combines multiple load balancing metric values in a single load balancing method.
C.
It allows the GTM administrator to place relative values on each metric used to determine the
optimum site.

Question 328

When is a Virtual Server hosted by an LTM System defined with two IP addresses?
A.
Two addresses are used to define the Virtual Server when it is managed by redundant LTM
Systems.
B.
Two addresses are used to define some Virtual Servers so that the GTM System can choose the
better address when resolving the name.
C.
Two addresses are used to define Virtual Servers when the LTM System hosting it is behind a
firewall that is translating the Virtual Server address.
D.
Two addresses are used to define a Virtual Server when the Wide-IP should resolve to a different
address depending on which LTM System is active.

Answer 328

C.
Two addresses are used to define Virtual Servers when the LTM System hosting it is behind a
firewall that is translating the Virtual Server address.

Question 329

What is a characteristic of iQuery?
A.
It uses SSH.
B.
It uses SSL.
C.
It uses SCP.
D.
It uses HTTPS.

Answer 329

B.
It uses SSL.

Question 330

Listeners that correspond to nonfloating self IP addresses are stored in which configuration file?
A.
/config/BIG-IP.conf
B.
/config/BIG-IP_base.conf
C.
/config/gtm/wideip.conf
D.
/config/BIG-IP_local.conf

Answer 330

D.
/config/BIG-IP_local.conf

Question 331

What is the primary benefit of associating Servers with Data Centers?
A.
The primary benefit is in assigning a single IP address to identify a
Data Center.
B.
The primary benefit is in combining probing metrics. Load balancing decisions can be made more
intelligently.
C.
The primary benefit is administrative. It is easier to remember to add servers when they are
categorized by a physical location.
D.
The primary benefit is in load balancing. Clients will not be directed to Data Centers that are
separated from them by great distances.

Answer 331

B.
The primary benefit is in combining probing metrics. Load balancing decisions can be made more
intelligently.

Question 332

Which two are events that can be used to trigger GTM iRule data processing? (Choose two.)
A.
LB_FAILED
B.
DNS_REQUEST
C.
HTTP REQUEST
D.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED

Answer 332

A.
LB_FAILED
B.
DNS_REQUEST

Question 333

How do you support non intelligent DNS resolution in an environment with GTM Systems and
standard DNS servers? (Choose two.)
A.
The GTM System must be a secondary server in all of your zones.
B.
Your GTM System must delegate some DNS names to the DNS Servers.
C.
Your DNS servers may delegate some DNS names to the GTM Systems.
D.
The GTM System may have a Listener set for your DNS server’s address.
E.
The GTM System may have a Listener set for the GTM’s loopback address.

Answer 333

C.
Your DNS servers may delegate some DNS names to the GTM Systems.
D.
The GTM System may have a Listener set for your DNS server’s address.

Question 334

iQuery is a proprietary protocol that distributes metrics gathered from which three sources?
(Choose three.)
A.
SNMP
B.
DNS root servers
C.
path probes such as ICMP
D.
monitors from LTM Systems
E.
monitors from Generic Host Servers

Answer 334

A.
SNMP
C.
path probes such as ICMP
D.
monitors from LTM Systems

Question 335

What is the purpose of the GTM Systems Address Exclusion List concerning local DNS servers?
A.
to prevent probing of specific local DNSs
B.
to prevent name resolution to specific Virtual Servers
C.
to prevent name resolution for requests from specific local DNSs
D.
to prevent probing of any local DNS servers by specific F5 devices

Answer 335

A.
to prevent probing of specific local DNSs

Question 336

Which three must be done so that Generic Host Servers can be monitored using SNMP?
(Choose three.)
A.
The SNMP monitor must be added to all BIG-IP Systems.
B.
The Generic Host Server must be running the big3d agent.
C.
The GTM System must be configured for the appropriate MIB.
D.
The Generic Host Server must be added to the GTM Configuration.
E.
The Generic Host Server must be enabled to answer SNMP queries.

Answer 336

C.
The GTM System must be configured for the appropriate MIB.
D.
The Generic Host Server must be added to the GTM Configuration.
E.
The Generic Host Server must be enabled to answer SNMP queries.

Question 337

Monitors can be assigned to which three resources? (Choose three.)
A.
Pools
B.
Servers
C.
Wide-IPs
D.
Data Centers
E.
Pool Members

Answer 337

A.
Pools
B.
Servers
E.
Pool Members

Question 338

What will likely happen if you were to define a LTM System in the wrong Data Center?
A.
There would be no effect if the LTM System is defined in the wrong Data Center.
B.
The GTM System would not be able to communicate with that LTM System.
C.
Data from probes from that LTM System might result in inaccurate path metrics and load
balancing decisions.
D.
The GTM System would not be able to resolve Wide-IPs to the addresses associated with that
LTM System’s Virtual Servers.

Answer 338

C.
Data from probes from that LTM System might result in inaccurate path metrics and load
balancing decisions.

Question 339

When initially configuring the GTM System using the config tool, which two parameters can be
set? (Choose two.)
A.
System hostname
B.
IP Address of management port
C.
IP Address of the external VLAN
D.
Default route for management port
E.
Port lockdown of management port

Answer 339

B.
IP Address of management port
D.
Default route for management port

Question 340

Without creating a user defined region, what is the most specific group a topology record can
identify?
A.
city
B.
country
C.
continent
D.
state/province
E.
region of country

Answer 340

D.
state/province

Question 341

The SNMP monitor can collect data based on which three metrics? (Choose three.)
A.
packet rate
B.
memory utilization
C.
content verification
D.
current connections
E.
hops along the network path

Answer 341

A.
packet rate
B.
memory utilization
D.
current connections

Question 342

Which facility logs messages concerning GTM System parameters?
A.
local0
B.
local1
C.
local2
D.
local3

Answer 342

C.
local2

Question 343

When users are created, which three access levels can be granted through the GTM Configuration
Utility? (Choose three.)
A.
Root
B.
Guest
C.
Operator
D.
Administrator
E.
CLI + Web Read Only

Answer 343

B.
Guest
C.
Operator
D.
Administrator

Question 344

The BIG-IP ASM System is configured with a virtual server that contains an HTTP class profile
and the protected pool members are associated within the HTTP class profile pool definition. The
status of this virtual server is unknown (Blue). Which of the following conditions will make this
virtual server become available (Green)?
A.
Assign a successful monitor to the virtual server
B.
Assign a successful monitor to the members of the HTTP class profile pool
C.
Associate a fallback host to the virtual server and assign a successful monitor to the fallback host
D.
Associate a default pool to the virtual server and assign a successful monitor to the pool members

Answer 344

D.
Associate a default pool to the virtual server and assign a successful monitor to the pool members

Question 345

Which of the following does not pertain to protecting the Requested Resource (URI) element?
A.
File type validation
B.
URL name validation
C.
Domain cookie validation
D.
Attack signature validation

Answer 345

C.
Domain cookie validation

Question 346

Which of the following protocol protections is not provided by the Protocol Security Manager?
A.
FTP
B.
SSH
C.
HTTP
D.
SMTP

Answer 346

B.
SSH

Question 347

Which of the following is correct regarding User-defined Attack signatures?
A.
User-defined signatures use an F5-supplied syntax
B.
User-defined signatures may only use regular expressions
C.
Attack signatures may be grouped within system-supplied signatures
D.
User-defined signatures may not be applied globally within the entire policy

Answer 347

A.
User-defined signatures use an F5-supplied syntax

Question 348

Which of the following methods of protection is not available within the Protocol Security Manager
for HTTP traffic?
A.
Data guard
B.
Attack signatures
C.
Evasion techniques
D.
File type enforcement

Answer 348

B.
Attack signatures

Question 349

There are many user roles configurable on the BIG-IP ASM System. Which of the following user
roles have access to make changes to ASM policies? (Choose three.)
A.
Guest
B.
Operator
C.
Administrator
D.
Web Application Security Editor
E.
Web Application Security Administrator

Answer 349

C.
Administrator
D.
Web Application Security Editor
E.
Web Application Security Administrator

Question 350

Which of the following statements are correct regarding positive and negative security models?
(Choose two.)
A.
Positive security model allows all transactions by default.
B.
Negative security model denies all transactions by default.
C.
Negative security model allows all transactions by default and rejects only transactions that
contain attacks.
D.
Positive security mode l denies all transactions by default and uses rules that allow only those
transactions that are considered safe and valid.

Answer 350

C.
Negative security model allows all transactions by default and rejects only transactions that
contain attacks.
D.
Positive security mode l denies all transactions by default and uses rules that allow only those
transactions that are considered safe and valid.

Question 351

Which events are valid iRule events triggered by BIG-IP ASM processing? (Choose two.)
A.
ASM_REQUEST_BLOCKING
B.
ASM_REQUEST_ACCEPTED
C.
ASM_REQUEST_VIOLATION
D.
ASM_RESPONSE_BLOCKING

Answer 351

A.
ASM_REQUEST_BLOCKING
C.
ASM_REQUEST_VIOLATION

Question 352

Which of the following methods of protection is not available within the Protocol Security Manager
for FTP protection?
A.
Session timeout
B.
Command length
C.
Allowed commands
D.
Anonymous FTP restriction

Answer 352

A.
Session timeout

Question 353

Logging profiles are assigned to?
A.
HTTP class
B.
Security policies
C.
Web applications
D.
Attack signatures

Answer 353

C.
Web applications

Question 354

Which of the following is a language used for content provided by a web server to a web client?
A.
FTP
B.
TCP
C.
HTTP
D.
HTML

Answer 354

D.
HTML

Question 355

Which of the following methods are used by the BIG-IP ASM System to protect against SQL
injections?
A.
HTTP RFC compliancy checks
B.
Metacharacter enforcement and attack signatures
C.
HTTP RFC compliancy checks and length restrictions
D.
Response scrubbing, HTTP RFC compliancy checks, and metacharacter enforcement

Answer 355

B.
Metacharacter enforcement and attack signatures

Question 356

Which of the following can be associated with an XML profile?
A.
Flow
B.
Method
C.
Parameter
D.
File type

Answer 356

C.
Parameter

Question 357

An HTTP class is available
A.
on any BIG-IP LTM system
B.
only when ASM is licensed.
C.
only when ASM or WA are licensed.
D.
only when a specific license key is required.

Answer 357

A.
on any BIG-IP LTM system

Question 358

Which of the following methods of protection operates on server responses?
A.
Dynamic parameter protection
B.
Response code validation and response scrubbing
C.
Response code validation and HTTP method validation
D.
HTTP RFC compliancy check and metacharacter enforcement

Answer 358

B.
Response code validation and response scrubbing

Question 359

Which of the following is not a configurable parameter data type?
A.
Email
B.
Array
C.
Binary
D.
Decimal

Answer 359

B.
Array

Question 360

When we have a * wildcard entity configured in the File Type section with tightening enabled, the
following may occur when requests are passed through the policy. Which is the most accurate
statement?
A.
File type violations will not be triggered.
B.
File type violations will be triggered and learning will be available based on these violations.
C.
File type entities will automatically be added to the policy (policy will tighten).
D.
File type violations will not be triggered and the entity learning section will be populated with file
type recommendations.

Answer 360

B.
File type violations will be triggered and learning will be available based on these violations.

Question 361

A request is sent to the BIG-IP ASM System that generates a Length error violation. Which of the
following length types provides a valid learning suggestion? (Choose three.)
A.
URL
B.
Cookie
C.
Response
D.
POST data
E.
Query string

Answer 361

A.
URL
D.
POST data
E.
Query string

Question 362

There are multiple HTTP class profiles assigned to a virtual server. Each profile has Application
Security enabled. Which statement is true?
A.
Traffic will process through every HTTP class profile every time.
B.
Traffic will process through the first HTTP class profile that it matches and then stops.
C.
Traffic will process through one HTTP class profile and if the traffic matches another profile, BIGIP System will send a redirect to the client.
D.
Traffic will only process through the HTTP class profile that it matches but always processes
through the whole list and will process through each HTTP class profile it matches.

Answer 362

B.
Traffic will process through the first HTTP class profile that it matches and then stops.

Question 363

A security audit has determined that your web application is vulnerable to a cross site scripting
attack. Which of the following measures are appropriate when building a security policy? (Choose
two.)
A.
Cookie length must be restricted to 1024 bytes.
B.
Attack signature sets must be applied to any user input parameters.
C.
Parameter data entered for explicit objects must be checked for minimum and maximum values.
D.
Parameter data entered for flow level parameters must allow some metacharacters but not
others.

Answer 363

B.
Attack signature sets must be applied to any user input parameters.
D.
Parameter data entered for flow level parameters must allow some metacharacters but not
others.

Question 364

The BIG-IP ASM System sets two types of cookies to enforce elements in the security policy. The
two types are main and frame cookies. What is the purpose of the frame cookie? (Choose two.)
A.
Validates domain cookies
B.
Detects session expiration
C.
Stores dynamic parameters and values
D.
Handles dynamic parameter names and flow extractions

Answer 364

C.
Stores dynamic parameters and values
D.
Handles dynamic parameter names and flow extractions

Question 365

Which statement is correct concerning differences between BIG-IP ASM platforms?
A.
The 3900 has more ports than the 6800.
B.
The 3900 and 6800 have the same number of ports.
C.
The 3900 and 6800 can support both the module and standalone versions of BIG-IP ASM.
D.
The 3900 can support both module and standalone versions of BIG-IP ASM whereas the 6800 can
support only the module version of BIG-IP ASM.

Answer 365

D.
The 3900 can support both module and standalone versions of BIG-IP ASM whereas the 6800 can
support only the module version of BIG-IP ASM.

Question 366

Which of the following mitigation techniques is based on anomaly detection? (Choose two)
A.
Brute force attack prevention
B.
Cross site request forgery prevention
C.
Web scraping attack prevention
D.
Parameter tampering prevention

Answer 366

A.
Brute force attack prevention
C.
Web scraping attack prevention

Question 367

Which of the following are default settings when using the Policy Builder to build a security policy
based on the QA lab deployment scenario? (Choose two.)
A.
All learned entities are placed in staging.
B.
Attack signatures are not placed in staging
C.
The security policy is placed in blocking mode
D.
Tightening is enabled only on file types and parameters.

Answer 367

B.
Attack signatures are not placed in staging
C.
The security policy is placed in blocking mode