ActualTest Questions Flashcards
(368 cards)
1
Q
To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can create a _______
containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it within the policy? (Fill in)
A.
Visual Policy Editor
B.
Policy Editor
C.
Visual Editor
D.
Policy creator
A
A.
Visual Policy Editor
2
Q
To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can create a policy
containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it within the policy using the
________. (Fill in)
A.
Deployment Wizard
B.
Setup Wizard
C.
Policy Wizard
D.
Visual Wizard
A
A.
Deployment Wizard
3
Q
QUESTION NO: 3
The Policy Builder benefits include:
A.
Doesn’t require in depth web application knowledge
B.
Only requires limited ASM knowledge
C.
All of the above
D.
Very low administrative impact
A
C.
All of the above
4
Q
APM administrators can configure access policies granting users which two types of access?
A.
CIFS access
B.
Client/server access
C.
Web application access
D.
Proxy access
E.
RDC access
A
D.
Proxy access
5
Q
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following is a benefit of using iRules?
A.
They provide a secure connection between a client and LTM
B.
They enable granular control of traffic
C.
They can be used as templates for creating new applications
D.
They can use Active Directory to authenticate and authorize users
E.
They provide an automated way to create LTM objects
A
B.
They enable granular control of traffic
6
Q
APM provides access control lists at which two OSI layers? (Choose two.)
A.
Layer 5
B.
Layer 4
C.
Layer 7
D.
Layer 6
E.
Layer 2
A
B.
Layer 4
C.
Layer 7
7
Q
TMOS is an F5 software module that runs on the BIG-IP platform.
A.
True
B.
False
A
Answer: B
Explanation:
TMOS is multi-module OS on Big-IP platform
8
Q
Which four F5 products are on the TMOS platform? (Choose four.)
A.
ARX
B.
GTM
C.
WOM
D.
APM
E.
ASM
F.
Firepass
A
B.
GTM
C.
WOM
D.
APM
E.
ASM
9
Q
Which of the following is NOT a profile type on the BIG-IP?
A.
Protocol
B.
Application
C.
Persistence
D.
Authentication
E.
SSL
A
B.
Application
10
Q
The BIG-IP determines the lowest connection speed between the client and the server and then
uses that for both connections.
A.
True
B.
False
A
B.
False
11
Q
Another name for the F5 OneConnect feature is TCP multiplexing.
A.
True
B.
False
A
A.
True
12
Q
LTM runs on______F5’s proprietary product platform. (Fill in the correct answer)
A.
ARX
B.
Firepass
C.
Acopia
D.
TMOS
A
D.
TMOS
13
Q
Which programming language is the basis for F5 iRules?
A.
Lisp
B.
C++
C.
Java
D.
TCL
E.
AWK
A
D.
TCL
14
Q
What are the two most common methods of placing a BIG-IP device into a network environment?
(Choose two.)
A.
Channeled configuration
B.
VLAN configuration
C.
NAT configuration
D.
SNAT configuration
E.
Asymmetric configuration
F.
Routed configuration
A
D.
SNAT configuration
F.
Routed configuration
15
Q
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using SSL offload?
A.
It increases the bandwidth between the client and LTM.
B.
It enables LTM to decrypt traffic, examine the payload, and then re-encrypt before sending it to a
pool member.
C.
The organization requires far less SSL certificates.
D.
The CPU processing load on backend servers is reduced.
E.
It enables iRules to be used on traffic arriving to LTM that is encrypted.
A
A.
It increases the bandwidth between the client and LTM.
Explanation:
SSL offload:
It enables LTM to decrypt traffic, examine the payload, and then re-encrypt before sending it to a
pool member.
The organization requires far less SSL certificates.
The CPU processing load on backend servers is reduced.
It enables iRules to be used on traffic arriving to LTM that is encrypted.
16
Q
When using a routed configuration, the real server must point to the LTM as the ________.
A.
NTP Server
B.
DNS Server
C.
Virtual IP
D.
WINS server
E.
Default gateway
A
E.
Default gateway
17
Q
TCP Express is licensed separately from LTM
A.
True
B.
False
A
B.
False
Explanation: TCP Express is licensed including in LTM
18
Q
LTM can only load balance outbound traffic by using iRules
A.
True
B.
False
A
A.
True
19
Q
Which two of these statements about OneConnect are true? (Choose two.)
A.
It decreases the CPU load on LTM
B.
It aggregates multiple client connections into a single server connection
C.
It decreases the amount of traffic between multiple clients and LTM
D.
It requires SNAT to be configured
E.
It decreases the CPU load on pool members
A
B.
It aggregates multiple client connections into a single server connection
E.
It decreases the CPU load on pool members
20
Q
GTM solves which three of these standard DNS limitations? (Choose three.)
A.
It can verify that a host is available before resolving a host name for a client.
B.
It can use HTTPS for the connection between itself and the client.
C.
It can ensure that clients remain at the same data center for stateful applications.
D.
It can verify that a client does not have any viruses before sending the IP address.
E.
It has more complex load balancing methods.
A
A. It can verify that a host is available before resolving a host name for a client.
C. It can ensure that clients remain at the same data center for stateful applications
E. It has more complex load balancing methods.
Explanation:
GTM solves three of these standard DNS limitations
It can verify that a host is available before resolving a hostname for a client
It can ensure that clients remain at the same data center for stateful applications
It has more complex load balancing methods
21
Q
Using IP Geolocation, an organization can always direct a client request from France to a
datacenter in Dublin.
A.
True
B.
False
A
A.
True
22
Q
Which three of these software modules can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device? (Choose
three.)
A.
Web Accelerator
B.
APM
C.
ARX
D.
GTM
E.
Firepass
F.
Enterprise Manager
A
A.
Web Accelerator
B.
APM
D.
GTM
Explanation:
These software modules can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device are AAM, APM and
GTM.
23
Q
Customers can purchase LTM as a stand-alone product, or layer it with additional software
modules to increase the functionality of the BIG-IP device.
A.
True
B.
False
A
A.
True
24
Q
Which two of the following options can LTM use when all of the pool members are not available or
if the pool is overloaded?
A.
Floating IPs
B.
Fallback host
C.
Auto last hop
D.
SNAT automap
E.
Pool offload
F.
Priority group activation
A
D.
SNAT automap
25
The least connections load balancing method functions best when all pool members share similar
characteristics.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
26
The layer 3 security feature _______ Cookies that protects against SYN floods, DoS, and DDoS
attacks. (Fill in)
Answer:
contain / include
27
A top-level DNS zone uses a CNAME record to point to a sub-zone. Which of the following is an
example of a sub-zone?
A.
www.F5.com/sub
B.
www.F5.com
C.
www.gslb.F5.com
D.
.com
E.
f5.com
C.
www.gslb.F5.com
28
A _______ object maps a FQDN to virtual servers. (Fill in)
Answer:
Wide IP
29
Which three of the following must be done in order for GTM to properly communicate LTM?
(Choose three.)
A.
Connect the GTM and LTM with a network crossover cable.
B.
Synchronize the big3d versions between GTM and LTM.
C.
Add the LTM object to the GTM configuration.
D.
Configure the GTM and LTM to we MAC masquerading.
E.
Ensure that GTM and LTM use the same floating IP address.
F.
Exchange SSL certificates between the two devices.
B.
Synchronize the big3d versions between GTM and LTM.
C.
Add the LTM object to the GTM configuration.
F.
Exchange SSL certificates between the two devices.
30
DNSSEC is a GTM add-on licensing feature.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
31
GTM uses the F5 ___________ protocol to synchronize performance metrics between GTM
devices. (Fill in)
Answer:
iQuery
32
Which four of the monitoring methods listed below can GTM use to determine the status and
performance of BIG-IP and servers? (Choose four.)
A.
ping
B.
Application monitors
C.
Inband monitors
D.
SSH
E.
iQuery
F.
SNMP
A.
ping
B.
Application monitors
E.
iQuery
F.
SNMP
33
What happens when the data center that GTM recommends for a client is unavailable?
A.
GTM uses cached information to determine an alternate route.
B.
GTM queries the local DNS server.
C.
GTM sends subsequent queries to the next preferred data center.
D.
GTM directs the client to use its DNS cache to select an alternate location.
E.
The client continues to attempt to access the preferred data center.
C.
GTM sends subsequent queries to the next preferred data center.
34
GTM can load balance to LTM in addition to non-BIG-IP hosts.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
35
Which of the following is NOT included on the F5 DevCentral site?
A.
Subscription purchasing options
B.
Actual iRules written by other customers
C.
iRules reference materials
D.
Forums
E.
The F5 iRule editor
A.
Subscription purchasing options
Explanation:
Subscription purchasing options is in Partner Resource Center
36
If LTM uses the least connections load balancing method, which pool member in the following
diagram receives the next request? (see diagram in original pdf)
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
B
37
Why does deploying LTM into an existing network immediately improve security?
A.
Only requests for specific ports are allowed through LTM.
B.
All traffic through LTM is checked for DDoS attacks.
C.
No traffic A allowed through LTM until it has been specified.
D.
All users must authenticate before accessing applications through LTM.
E.
Only LAN administrators can access resources through LTM.
C.
No traffic A allowed through LTM until it has been specified.
38
You can use an HTTP class profile to forward traffic that matches which three of these types of
criteria? (Choose three.)
A.
Port
B.
HTTP header
C.
URI path
D.
User name
E.
Protocol
F.
Host name
B.
HTTP header
C.
URI path
F.
Host name
39
When an optimized TCP connection exists between LTM and the pool member, LTM can accept
server responses faster than the client. What is the name of this feature?
A.
HTTP caching
B.
OneConnect
C.
TCP connection queuing
D.
Content spooling
E.
Priority activation
D.
Content spooling
40
As a full TCP proxy, LTM acts as the termination point for both requests from the client and
responses from the server.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
41
FastCache will NOT work with compressed objects.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
42
Which of the following can be accomplished using iRules?
A.
Track inbound and outbound traffic
B.
Perform deep packet inspection
C.
Inspect traffic and drop it
D.
All of the above
E.
Intercept traffic and redirect it
D.
All of the above
43
GTM uses Auto Discovery to add virtual servers from both LTM and non-BIG-IP load balancers.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
44
Which four of the following statements about LDNS probes are true? (Choose four.)
A.
Only GTM devices can act as a prober.
B.
They check each requesting LDNS that has made a request of the GTM.
C.
They can determine available cache size on the client.
D.
They are used to develop path metrics.
E.
They verify the link between a data center and an LDNS.
F.
Probing only takes place if GTM is configured to use dynamic load balancing.
B.
They check each requesting LDNS that has made a request of the GTM.
D.
They are used to develop path metrics.
E.
They verify the link between a data center and an LDNS.
F.
Probing only takes place if GTM is configured to use dynamic load balancing.
45
Similar to LTM monitors, GTM monitors use both an Interval and a Timeout value.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
46
Since F5 built GTM on the TMOS platform it can exist on the same BIGIP device as LTM:
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
47
An administrator is adding GTM to the network infrastructure. Which of the following requirements
would lead them to select an Authoritative Screening architecture rather than Delegation?
A.
They want GTM to examine all DNS queries.
B.
They want GTM to make load balancing decisions based on metrics.
C.
They have data centers in several countries.
D.
They are using several operating systems for the local DNS servers.
C.
They have data centers in several countries.
48
The BIG-IP full proxy architecture has full visibility from the client to the server and from the server
to the client.
What security benefit does this provide to customers?
A.
Offloads security functionality from other devices such as network firewalls and Intrusion
Prevention Systems (IPS), which may experience performance degradation when inspecting DNS
queries and responses.
B.
provides enhanced support for DNS servers.
C.
Establishes highly detailed policies based on your customer's business in requirements, performs
multiple factors of authentication, detects corporate versus non-corporate devices, checks OS
patch levels, and determines antivirus patch levels.
D.
Provides industry-leading knowledge of application behavior as it travels through a network, and it
applies that knowledge to security because it knows how an application behaves at any point in
the reply request process
D.
Provides industry-leading knowledge of application behavior as it travels through a network, and it
applies that knowledge to security because it knows how an application behaves at any point in
the reply request process
49
Select the key reasons F5 is able to handle DNS DDoS attacks so effectively? Select two.
A.
F5 can ensure a DNS DDoS attack is not successful.
B.
F5 has high performance DNS services.
C.
F5 can answer the DNS queries directly.
D.
With Global Traffic Manager (GTM), F5 completely stops all DNS DDoS attacks.
E.
F5 can ensure a customer never faces a DNS DDoS attack.
C.
F5 can answer the DNS queries directly.
E.
F5 can ensure a customer never faces a DNS DDoS attack.
50
Which of the following are the three main business drivers for placing LTM into a network?
(Choose three.)
A.
Secure the connection between WAN sites.
B.
Improve application availability and scalability.
C.
Authenticate and authorize users.
D.
Boost application performance.
E.
Include application security.
F.
Act as a Web application firewall
B.
Improve application availability and scalability.
D.
Boost application performance.
E.
Include application security.
51
If a customer has an application that uses a customized protocol, what LTM feature can help
optimize the traffic from the application?
A.
iRules
B.
Network virtual servers
C.
HTTP classes
D.
Packet filtering
E.
Transparent virtual servers
A.
iRules
52
An LTM object represents a downstream server that hosts a secure Web site and contains the IP
address and port combination 192.168.9.250:443. What is this object?
A.
Self IP
B.
Virtual Server
C.
Pool
D.
Node
E.
Pool Member
E.
Pool Member
53
Adding more RAM to a GTM device drastically improves query performance.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
54
Which of the following are four of the security benefits of TMOS? (Choose four.)
A.
It verifies traffic based on antivirus signatures.
B.
It provides protection against DDoS.
C.
It uses SYN cookies and dynamic connection reapers.
D.
It supplies guidance for poorly developed applications.
E.
It denies all traffic that hasn't been defined.
F.
It can hide confidential information from outbound traffic.
B.
It provides protection against DDoS.
C.
It uses SYN cookies and dynamic connection reapers
E.
It denies all traffic that hasn't been defined.
F.
It can hide confidential information from outbound traffic.
55
The LTM "Manager" authentication role can create iRules.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
56
Which of the following statements about cookie persistence is NOT true?
A.
The cookie's timeout value can be customized.
B.
They are F5's preferred persistence method.
C.
No persistence information is placed on LTM.
D.
Web servers must be configured to send cookies to clients.
E.
They do not add a performance impact on LTM.
D.
Web servers must be configured to send cookies to clients.
57
An LTM object that represents a downstream server contains the IP address 192.168.9.250 and
no port. What is this object?
A.
Pool member
B.
Virtual server
C.
Pool
D.
Self IP
E.
Node
E.
Node
58
Which three of the metrics listed below can GTM use when making load balancing decisions for a
client? (Choose three.)
A.
TCP payload
B.
IP geolocation
C.
Hop count
D.
Round trip time
E.
Browser user agent
B.
IP geolocation
C.
Hop count
D.
Round trip time
59
In order to improve GTM performance, administrators should use multiple complex monitors to
ensure resources are functioning properly:
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
60
Which three of the following are unique differentiators for F5 in the marketplace? (Choose three.)
A.
VLANs
B.
Load-balancing pools
C.
Secure remote access
D.
TMOS
E.
OneConnect
F.
iRules
D.
TMOS
E.
OneConnect
F.
iRules
61
Which three of these file types work well with HTTP compression? (Choose three.)
A.
MP4 videos
B.
Digital photos
C.
Text files
D.
Static HTML Web pages
E.
CD quality songs
F.
Microsoft Word documents
C.
Text files
D.
Static HTML Web pages
F.
Microsoft Word documents
62
Match each persistence method with the correct statement describing it:
A.
Cookie persistence
B.
Source address persistence
C.
SSL persistence
D.
Universal persistence
B.
Source address persistence
63
Which two of the following LTM load balancing methods require the least amount of resources?
(Choose two.)
A.
Round robin
B.
Ratio
C.
Observed
D.
Fastest
E.
Predictive
F.
Least connections
A.
Round robin
B.
Ratio
64
When using a redundant pair of LTMs, it is most advantageous to use them in an Active/Active
scenario because this provides additional load balancing capabilities.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
65
An LTM object contains both IP address and port combinations 20.18.9.250:80 and
20.18.9.251:80 and host the same Web application. What is this object?
A.
Pool
B.
Self-IP
C.
Node
D.
Pool member
E.
Virtual Server
A.
Pool
66
Which of the following are four of the benefits of the TMOS architecture? (Choose four.)
A.
User authentication
B.
Server-side optimization
C.
Dynamic DDoS protection
D.
Web application security
E.
Client-side optimization
F.
Antivirus checking
B.
Server-side optimization
C.
Dynamic DDoS protection
D.
Web application security
E.
Client-side optimization
67
In order to further accelerate applications, the external router can direct subsequent client traffic to
bypass LTM and communicate directly with the server.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
68
LTM runs on________F5's proprietary product platform. (Fill in the correct answer)
Answer:
TMOS
69
When using only LTM in redundant pairs, a customer can load balance to multiple data centers.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
70
Application templates save the time it typically takes to create nodes, pools, pool members, virtual
servers, and monitors.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
71
Which of the following TMOS feature enables BIG-IP to scale performance based to the available
CPU cores?
A.
Clustered multi-processing
B.
OneConnect
C.
HTTP class
D.
Session persistence
E.
Auto Last Hop
A.
Clustered multi-processing
72
In a routed configuration, what does LTM do with the packet before sending it to the pool
member?
A.
Change the source IP and the destination IP address
B.
Leave it unchanged and forward it
C.
Change the source IP address
D.
Change the destination IP address
D.
Change the destination IP address
73
If the BIG-IP device is NOT always located between the client and the server, it will NOT provide
full optimization and security.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
74
TCP Express enables LTM to use different TCP settings for the connection between the client and
LTM, and the connection between LTM and the pool member.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
75
Where do you configure GTM client persistence?
Case Study Title (Case Study):
A.
On a DNS listener object
B.
On a wide IP object
C.
Within a load balancing method
D.
On a DNS pool object
E.
On a virtual server object
B.
On a wide IP object
76
Administrators can configure which three of the following load balancing options in GTM? (Choose
three.)
A.
Alternate
B.
Fallback
C.
Required
D.
Preferred
E.
Backup
F.
Optional
A.
Alternate
B.
Fallback
D.
Preferred
77
Over the years, F5 has led the industry in which of the four following areas? (Choose three.)
A.
Security
B.
Acceleration
C.
Application availability
D.
Application scalability
E.
Application design
F.
Remote access
A.
Security
B.
Acceleration
D.
Application scalability
78
Which of the following is NOT a method that TMOS uses to improve the performance of
applications?
A.
Caching HTTP data
B.
Optimizing the TCP connection between the client and the BIG-IP device
C.
Offloading SSL decryption from downstream servers
D.
Discarding unnecessary data from server responses before sending to the client
E.
Compressing HTTP data
D.
Discarding unnecessary data from server responses before sending to the client
79
The drawback to having BIG-IP act as a full application proxy is the decrease in application
performance.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
80
The Policy Builder benefits include:
A.
Doesn't require in depth web application knowledge
B.
Only requires limited ASM knowledge
C.
All of the above
D.
Very low administrative impact
C.
All of the above
81
CSRF is difficult to detect because:
A.
The attacks are requests a user should be allowed to make
B.
The attacks always utilize obfuscation
C.
The attacks are always encrypted
D.
All of the above
A.
The attacks are requests a user should be allowed to make
82
Information leakage is a major obstacle to achieving PCI DSS compliance.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
83
Requests that do not meet the ASM security policies can:
A.
Generate learning suggestions
B.
Be blocked
C.
All of the above
D.
Be logged
C.
All of the above
84
What is NOT a benefit of using a SNAT?
A.
ASM can be deployed easily
B.
No changes are needed on the servers
C.
Fail open is easy to add
D.
Higher performance than other configuration
D.
Higher performance than other configuration
85
ASM's Web Scraping protection:
A.
Is simple to configure
B.
Cannot accommodate good scrapers
C.
Will protect the site by blocking all requests
D.
Is difficult to configure
A.
Is simple to configure
86
The PCI compliance report is proof that a company is secure.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
87
ASM offers the most extensive, effective, and simplest to configure CSRF protection in the WAF
market.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
88
The APM Dashboard enables administrators to monitor which two of these metrics? (Choose two.)
A.
Number of active sessions
B.
Number of new sessions
C.
Number of denied users
D.
Number of users from each country
A.
Number of active sessions
B.
Number of new sessions
89
Although APM can interoperate with LTM, it is unable to use iRules for advanced processing.
A.
True
B.
false
B.
false
90
APM provides access control lists at which two 051 layers
A.
Layer 6
B.
Layer 5
C.
Layer 7
D.
Layer 4
E.
Layer 3
F.
Layer 2
C.
Layer 7
D.
Layer 4
91
Which of the following statements about Web server offload is NOT true?
A.
It performs rate shaping to reduce overflow.
B.
It forces the client browser to use multiple connections streams.
C.
It uses OneConnect to reduce multiple TCP connections.
D.
It utilizes cached content to prevent unnecessary trips for the same content.
E.
It uses specialized hardware for SSL offload.
B.
It forces the client browser to use multiple connections streams.
92
A network administrator tells you that they do NOT need WebAccelerator because their Web
application is fine. What is your best response?
A.
Challenge them to run performance testing on their Web site.
B.
Access their Web site with them to display its response.
C.
Request a follow up meeting within the next three months.
D.
Ask for an opportunity to speak with the CIO or a member of their Web application team.
D.
Ask for an opportunity to speak with the CIO or a member of their Web application team.
93
When sizing a WebAccelerator deployment, you should base the WA capacity on the
LTMcapacity.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
94
Which three of the following are benefits of adding WebAccelerator to the network infrastructure?
(Choose three.)
A.
It adds a layer, security to a Web site
B.
It speeds up a secure Web site
C.
It reduces the need to purchase additional bandwidth
D.
It analyzes Web content, and caches and compresses it accordingly
E.
It improves the performance, large object file transfers
B.
It speeds up a secure Web site
C.
It reduces the need to purchase additional bandwidth
D.
It analyzes Web content, and caches and compresses it accordingly
95
IP Enforcer blocks IP addresses that have repeatedly and regularly attacked the site.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
96
One reason APM beats the competition is its ability to perform both user authentication and
authorization on a single device.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
97
Which three of these scenarios should you identify as being an APM opportunity? (Choose three.)
A.
An organization using Novell Netware for authentication.
B.
An organization that has been recently fined for failing security compliance.
C.
An organization with a traveling sales force.
D.
An organization with a single location and no remote employees.
E.
An organization that needs to ensure users are using Symantec antivirus software.
F.
An organization sharing a public Web site for all Internet users.
B.
An organization that has been recently fined for failing security compliance.
C.
An organization with a traveling sales force.
E.
An organization that needs to ensure users are using Symantec antivirus software.
98
When an administrator creates a new access policy in the Visual Policy Editor, which three options
are included by default? (Choose three.)
A.
A fallback option
B.
An Allow Ad box
C.
A Deny End box
D.
An empty Resource Assign item
E.
A Start box
F.
A Block All option
A.
A fallback option
C.
A Deny End box
E.
A Start box
99
Poor Web application performance contributes to which four of these issues for businesses?
(Choose four.)
A.
A Web site that goes unused
B.
Increased support calls
C.
Loss of users
D.
Loss of revenue
E.
DDoS attacks
F.
Identity theft
A.
A Web site that goes unused
B.
Increased support calls
C.
Loss of users
D.
Loss of revenue
100
Organizations are moving towards a cloud solution are good candidates for F5 WOM solutions.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
101
Using WOM for vMotion transfers across the WAN prevents VMware users from experiencing
interruptions.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
102
The administrator must specify APM access control entries as either L4 or L7.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
103
Administrators can customize APM to resemble other internal Web applications in the
organization.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
104
Which of the following is a client-side action in the Visual Policy Editor that prevents external
access and deletes any files created during a secure access session?
A.
Windows Group Policy
B.
Resource Assign
C.
Protected Workspace
D.
Virtual Keyboard
E.
Browser Cache and Session Control
C.
Protected Workspace
105
The main drawback to using an APM Deployment Wizard is that it is not possible to edit the
resulting objects, including the access policy.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
106
Mobile device browsers typically display Web pages more slowly than PC browsers.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
107
Which two of the following factors are often responsible for poor Web application performance?
(Choose two.)
A.
The time it takes to generate an HTTP request.
B.
The time it takes to deliver the HTTP response over the network.
C.
The time it takes to display the HTTP response in the browser.
D.
The time it takes to generate the HTTP response.
B.
The time it takes to deliver the HTTP response over the network.
D.
The time it takes to generate the HTTP response
108
WebAccelerator uses three tiers to improve performance. What are the three tiers? (Choose
three.)
A.
Bandwidth offload
B.
Client offload
C.
Application offload
D.
Protocol offload
E.
Web server offload
F.
Network offload
C.
Application offload
E.
Web server offload
F.
Network offload
109
ASM can detect Layer 7 DoS attacks by which four ways of monitoring: (Choose four.)
A.
Monitoring for a threshold of increased number of transactions per second per URL.
B.
Monitoring for a % change in transactions per second per URL.
C.
Monitoring for a % change in server latency or TPS.
D.
Monitoring for a threshold of increased server latency or TPS.
E.
Monitoring ASM policy builder performance.
F.
Monitoring BIG-IP CPU utilization.
G.
Deep Packet inspection.
A.
Monitoring for a threshold of increased number of transactions per second per URL.
B.
Monitoring for a % change in transactions per second per URL.
C.
Monitoring for a % change in server latency or TPS.
D.
Monitoring for a threshold of increased server latency or TPS.
110
Application trends and drivers that increase the need for application security are:
A.
Intelligent Browsers
B.
Webification
C.
Targeted attacks
D.
All the above
D.
All the above
111
The Rapid Deployment Policy is used to:
A.
Improve website performance
B.
Quickly protect web sites for most common attacks
C.
Improve ASM performance
D.
Provide wizard functionality for quick policy creation
B.
Quickly protect web sites for most common attacks
112
ASM combined with LTM provides protection against:
A.
Layer 7 DoS attacks
B.
All of the above
C.
Layer 4 DoS attacks
D.
DDoS attacks
B.
All of the above
113
When using a single BIG-IP with APM, an organization can support up to 60,000 concurrent
remote access users.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
114
An F5 customer must install WebAccelerator on top of LTM:
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
115
The Protected Workspace client-side action provides more client-side security than the Cache and
Session Control action.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
116
Which WOM feature replaces a long byte pattern, such as "100000111000110101", with a shorter
reference to the pattern?
A.
Symmetric adaptive compression
B.
Symmetric data deduplication
C.
Bandwidth allocation
D.
Application protocol acceleration
E.
TCP optimization
B.
Symmetric data deduplication
117
In order to ensure that a specific file type is never moved down to a secondary file tier, the
administrator should:
A.
Set up an automated bot that accesses that file once a week.
B.
This is not possible on the ARX.
C.
Set a policy that the file type remains on primary storage.
D.
Instruct the end users to put the file in a non-tiered directory.
C.
Set a policy that the file type remains on primary storage.
118
How does the ARX eliminate the disruption caused by re-provisioning storage?
A.
By identifying data that has not been modified and moving it to a secondary tier.
B.
By reducing the time necessary to run a complete backup.
C.
By allowing system administrators to apply policy to specific types data.
D.
By automating capacity balancing and allowing seamless introduction of file systems into the
environment after the ARX is installed.
D.
By automating capacity balancing and allowing seamless introduction of file systems into the
environment after the ARX is installed.
119
Which of the following statements is true about ARX's capacity balancing ability?
A.
When new files are created, the ARX can determine in real time where to place each file based on
the available space on each storage device
B.
When configuring the ARX, customers can choose to implement either an age-based policy or a
capacity based policy, but are not able to run both policies at the same time
C.
All files created at approximately the same time (within 10 minutes) will be stored on the same tier
of storage to minimize latency and improve the user experience
D.
The ARX balances capacity within tiers A storage, but cannot balance capacity across tiers of
storage
A.
When new files are created, the ARX can determine in real time where to place each file based on
the available space on each storage device
120
The Device Inventory option in Enterprise Manager can replace an organization's static Excel
spreadsheet containing similar data.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
121
Which of the following statements best describes the ARX architecture?
A.
The ARX's split path architecture has a data path that handles the most common operations, and
a control path that handles other operations requiring deeper inspection and updating of the index.
B.
The ARX's architecture has redundancy built in, allowing a single ARX to be deployed in most use
cases which provides a huge cost savings to customers.
C.
All of the above.
D.
It is a software agent that installs on the storage device.
A.
The ARX's split path architecture has a data path that handles the most common operations, and
a control path that handles other operations requiring deeper inspection and updating of the index.
122
The ARX is like a mini network manager. It is able to check the health of the environment and can
raise alerts when thresholds are reached.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
123
Which two of the following are costs businesses may face in dealing with unstructured data?
(Choose two.)
A.
Lost productivity due to server downtime
B.
Buying backup media
C.
Buying additional storage capacity
D.
Paying to convert unstructured data into structured data
B.
Buying backup media
C.
Buying additional storage capacity
124
Place the following items in the order that the BIG-IP device uses when processing a packet.
Refer to image on the original doc
1) Check for a match with a self-IP
2) Search for an existing connection
3) Examine source IP for a standalone SNAT
4) Check if the destination matches a NAT
5) Look for a virtual server address match
6) Look for a match in a packet filter rule
125
In the current version of BIG-IP, what happens if the GTM does not find a wide IP that matches the
DNS request?
A.
It sends a broadcast request to all GTM devices.
B.
It uses iQuery to request the information from LTM.
C.
It sends a request to its configured backup GTM device.
D.
It sends an un-resolvable error to the client.
E.
It sends the request to an external DNS.
E.
It sends the request to an external DNS.
126
Using IP Geolocation, an organization can always direct a client request from France to a data enter in Dublin.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
127
In most cases, F5 recommends using round robin load balancing.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
128
Which three of the following statements describe a data center object?
A.
It attempts to match a DNS request with a configured wide IP.
B.
It is attached to multiple Internet links.
C.
It becomes available for use when an assigned server is up.
D.
It retains statistics for each data center.
E.
It is a logical representation of a physical location.
F.
It specifies how users access the Internet.
B.
It is attached to multiple Internet links.
C.
It becomes available for use when an assigned server is up.
129
Which four of the following items are physical objects used by GTM?
A.
Virtual servers
B.
Links
C.
Servers
D.
Wide IPs
E.
Data centers
F.
Pools
A.
Virtual servers
B.
Links
C.
Servers
E.
Data centers
130
Which three are GTM server dynamic load balancing modes? (Choose three.)
A.
Packet Rate
B.
Virtual Server Score
C.
CPU
D.
Fallback IP
E.
Ratio
A.
Packet Rate
B.
Virtual Server Score
C.
CPU
131
Which four are GTM server static load balancing modes? (Choose four.)
A.
Return to DNS
B.
CPU
C.
Packet Rate
D.
Drop Packet
E.
Round Robin
F.
Static Persist
A.
Return to DNS
D.
Drop Packet
E.
Round Robin
F.
Static Persist
132
The F5 Application Delivery Firewall has the ability to outperform traditional and next
generation firewalls during DDoS attacks by leveraging the performance and scalability of BIG-IP
to hand extremely high loads, including high throughput, high connection count, and high number
of connections per second.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
133
What is the main cause of high latency in a Web application?
A.
The version, the client's browser
B.
The distance between the client and Web server
C.
The number of CPUs on the Web server
D.
The size of the objects on the page
B.
The distance between the client and Web server
134
Match these terms with their description.
Refer to the image in the original PDF
Disaster recovery SLA – Measured by RPOs and RTOs
Recovery point objective – The amount of data that can be lost
Recovery time objective – How fast operations need to return to normal
135
Network Security personnel are entirely responsible for web application security.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
136
ASM Geolocation reporting provides information regarding:
A.
The number of attacks from a specific state
B.
The types of attacks from a city
C.
All of the above
D.
The countries from which the attacks originated
D.
The countries from which the attacks originated
137
An inline ASM configuration requires:
A.
Two network connections
B.
None of the above
C.
Two disk drives
D.
Two power supplies
A.
Two network connections
138
Which three of these are the potential ending options for branches in the Visual Policy Editor?
(Choose three.)
A.
Reject
B.
Fallback
C.
Allow
D.
Deny
E.
Limit
F.
Redirect
C.
Allow
D.
Deny
F.
Redirect
139
The Protected Workspace client-side action provides more client-side security than the Cache and
Session Control action.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
140
Which of the following is NOT a logging option within an APM access control entry?
A.
Packet
B.
Verbose
C.
Nominal
D.
Summary
E.
None
C.
Nominal
141
Administrators can specify an APM access profile when defining a virtual server in LTM.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
142
Using Fast Cache with ASM will:
A.
Improve user experience
B.
Improve server performance
C.
All of the above
D.
Improve BIG-IP ASM performance
C.
All of the above
143
ASM provides antivirus protection by:
A.
Extracting files being uploaded and sending them to an AV system via ICAP
B.
Running a local antivirus program on the BIG-IP
C.
None of the above
D.
Using IP Penalty enforcement to block requests from hackers IPs
A.
Extracting files being uploaded and sending them to an AV system via ICAP
144
APM can verify which four of the following details before granting a user access to a resource?
(Choose four.)
A.
The user's Web browser
B.
The user's computer
C.
User's hard drive encryption software
D.
Groups the user is a member of
E.
The network speed
F.
The user's username
A.
The user's Web browser
B.
The user's computer
D.
Groups the user is a member of
F.
The user's username
145
Which four of these benefits does APM provide? (Choose four.)
A.
Enables remote access by several thousand simultaneous users.
B.
Basic Web application firewall capabilities.
C.
User authentication based on identity.
D.
Acceleration of Web content to the client.
E.
Granular authorization to resources.
F.
Client workstation security checking.
A.
Enables remote access by several thousand simultaneous users
C.
User authentication based on identity.
E.
Granular authorization to resources.
F.
Client workstation security checking.
146
Which four of these statements regarding object size and WebAccelerator performance are true?
(Choose four.)
A.
Large objects such as video cache well
B.
Large objects allow fewer requests per second
C.
Large objects result in higher throughput
D.
Small objects result in higher throughput
E.
Small objects such as images cache well
F.
Small objects allow more requests per second
B.
Large objects allow fewer requests per second
C.
Large objects result in higher throughput
E.
Small objects such as images cache well
F.
Small objects allow more requests per second
147
Which four of these scenarios will benefit from F5's WAN Optimization Module? (Choose four.)
A.
An international organization with data centers in different countries.
B.
An organization that does not want to rely on using tape backup.
C.
An organization with one site but hundreds of Web servers.
D.
An organization whose users create extremely large files.
E.
An organization that expects their Web site usage to double in the next year.
F.
An organization attempting to lower costs by reducing the number of data centers.
A.
An international organization with data centers in different countries.
B.
An organization that does not want to rely on using tape backup.
D.
An organization whose users create extremely large files.
F.
An organization attempting to lower costs by reducing the number of data centers.
148
An administrator is planning on solving latency issues by placing the backup data center in a
neighboring city to the primary data center. Why isn't this effective solution?
A.
It does not provide an acceptable disaster recovery solution.
B.
It won't improve latency between the data centers.
C.
It won't improve the backup time from the primary data center to the backup data center.
D.
Users near the data centers will find their connections going back and forth between the two site
E.
It costs more to have the data centers close together than further apart.
A.
It does not provide an acceptable disaster recovery solution.
Explanation: It does not provide an acceptable disaster recovery solution, it is too close in proximity
149
Which is NOT an ASM protection method for cross site scripting?
A.
Signatures
B.
URl character set limiting
C.
Token injection
D.
Parameter character set limiting
C.
Token injection
150
Which item is NOT a function of a properly deployed and configured ASM?
A.
Detects attacks
B.
Stops hackers from attacking
C.
Provides protection visibility
D.
Provides security agility
B.
Stops hackers from attacking
151
Which is NOT a function of ASM?
A.
Attack signature enforcement
B.
HTTP protocol enforcement
C.
Network security
D.
Parameter value enforcement
C.
Network security
152
True or False, WOM speeds up large file data transfer across the WAN between a Windows client
and a Windows file Server.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
153
Which item is NOT a function of ASM?
A.
Provides authentication and authorization services
B.
Logs and reports full HTTP messages
C.
Provides comprehensive Web application security
D.
Provides application level performance information
A.
Provides authentication and authorization services
154
Learning suggestions can be the result of:
A.
A false positive
B.
A malicious attack
C.
A change in the web site content
D.
All the above
D.
All the above
155
Identifying users by their IP address is a sufficient method of performing authentication and
authorization.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
156
A user's access to resources can change based on the computer they connect from.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
157
Replicating a large database between sites could take several hours without WOM, and only
several minutes with WOM.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
158
Brute force protection will:
A.
Block a user after a specified number, unsuccessful login attempts
B.
Block a user after a specified number of page requests are attempted
C.
None of the above
D.
Block a user from downloading too much content from the site
A.
Block a user after a specified number, unsuccessful login attempts
159
What technology does ARX use to create a logical abstraction of the physical storage
environment?
A.
Data de-duplication
B.
File virtualization
C.
Server virtualization
D.
SSL encryption
B.
File virtualization
160
Using file virtualization, what can the ARX do for customers?
A.
Match data to the most appropriate tier of storage (e.g. critical data on tier 1 storage; older data on
secondary storage tier).
B.
All of the above.
C.
Move individual files or entire file systems in real-time without disruption of down-time.
D.
Automate many storage management tasks such as storage tiering, dynamic capacity balancing,
and no disruptive data migration.
B.
All of the above.
161
A customer says his business wouldn't benefit from buying ARX because it already has block
based storage virtualization in place. Is he right? Why or why not?
A.
Yes. Block based storage virtualization is just another name for file virtualization.
B.
No. ARX allows customers to implement storage tiering benefits, but block based storage
virtualization does not.
C.
Yes. Block based storage virtualization offers the same functionality as ARX's file virtualization,although it uses slightly different technology.
D.
No. Both technologies attempt to solve similar problems, but only the ARX allows the customer to
have visibility into their data and apply business policy at the file level. Block based virtualization
has no visibility into the type of data.
D.
No. Both technologies attempt to solve similar problems, but only the ARX allows the customer to
have visibility into their data and apply business policy at the file level. Block based virtualization
has no visibility into the type of data.
162
Select F5 platforms have which three certifications? (Choose three.)
A.
FIPS
B.
SECG
C.
NEBS
D.
IEEE
E.
Common Criteria
F.
AFSSI
A.
FIPS
C.
NEBS
E.
Common Criteria
163
Which three of the following are some of the methods that F5 uses with its environmental stress
screening chamber? (Choose three.)
A.
Varying the voltage from extreme high to extreme low.
B.
Running a product 300 to 500 times on each cycle.
C.
Repairing failed components until they function properly.
D.
Alternate temperature from -5 degrees Celsius to 60 degrees Celsius.
E.
Ensuring continual functioning through fire or flooding conditions.
A.
Varying the voltage from extreme high to extreme low.
B.
Running a product 300 to 500 times on each cycle.
D.
Alternate temperature from -5 degrees Celsius to 60 degrees Celsius.
164
The ARX can see ________ when a data modification takes place and will cue that file to be
migrated back to the primary tier.
A.
In real time
B.
Nightly
C.
Weekly
D.
At the time of a system scan
E.
When scheduled by administrator
A.
In real time
165
Match the five elements of the intelligent file virtualization with the appropriate ARX feature:
Refer to image in the original PDF
A. Real Time
B. Non-Disruptive
C. Heterogeneous
D. Data Integrity
E. Scale and Performance
166
ARX can classify data based on all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Paths
B.
File Size
C.
Extensions
D.
Security Level
E.
File Name
D.
Security Level
167
For a typical business, what percentage of data does the ARX usually move to a secondary tier?
A.
20-30%
B.
50-60%
C.
80-90%
D.
0-10%
C.
80-90%
168
It is common for free storage space to exist somewhere in a business network that is not easy for
storage administrators to utilize. What solution can the ARX provide in this situation?
A.
The ARX identifies the exact location of the free storage, which allows network administrators to
target those locations when provisioning additional storage.
B.
The ARX extends the capacity of each server by 10-15, through intelligent file virtualization.
C.
The ARX uses the extra storage for transaction logs and index files.
D.
The ARX allows the customer to pool storage from anywhere within the enterprise and capacity
balance the overflow across devices.
D.
The ARX allows the customer to pool storage from anywhere within the enterprise and capacity
balance the overflow across devices.
169
Which of the following does NOT describe network performance management?
A.
Updating software on various devices
B.
Seeing graphs in near real-time
C.
Visibility into multiple network devices
D.
Being alerted to an issue as it happens
E.
Viewing virtual server statistics
A.
Updating software on various devices
170
What is the main business driver for bringing Enterprise Manager into the network infrastructure?
A.
Consolidate management of administrator and user accounts
B.
Consolidate management of licenses
C.
Consolidate management of SSL certificates
D.
Consolidate management of BIG-IP devices
E.
Consolidate management of access policies
D.
Consolidate management of BIG-IP devices
171
To function properly, an Enterprise Manager device is required within each data center.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
172
Which two F5 platforms include specialized compression hardware? (Choose two.)
A.
4200
B.
3900
C.
1600
D.
11050
E.
6900
F.
8900
E.
6900
F.
8900
173
ARX will detect any modification to a file on the second tier because all clients are being _______
by the ARX to get to the storage.
A.
Moved
B.
Copied
C.
Proxied
D.
Backed up
E.
Deleted
C.
Proxied
174
In the next few years, 75% of new storage capacity will shift to unstructured data (also known as
file data). Which two of the following are examples of unstructured data? (Choose two.)
A.
CAD drawings
B.
Location data in a GIS (geographic information system)
C.
Customer records and product records in a CRM (customer relationship management) database
D.
Microsoft Office and PDF documents
A.
CAD drawings
D.
Microsoft Office and PDF documents
175
The ARX saves customers time, money and frustration through a stub-based system that makes a
slight modification to each file in order to more efficiently sort and store end user data.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
176
Which two of the following statements are accurate descriptions of the ARX index? (Choose two.)
A.
The ARX index stores the bulk of its data as bit arrays and answers most questions by performing
bitwise logical operations on these bitmaps.
B.
The ARX index contains the index keys in sorted order, with the leaf level of the index containing
the pointer to the page and the row number in the data page.
C.
The ARX index is the key enabler of transparent data mobility because the ARX tracks where files
reside at all times, from creation through migration and deletion.
D.
The ARX index is 100% disposable and can be rebuilt at any point in time without disrupting client
or application access to data.
B.
The ARX index contains the index keys in sorted order, with the leaf level of the index containing
the pointer to the page and the row number in the data page
D.
The ARX index is 100% disposable and can be rebuilt at any point in time without disrupting client
or application access to data.
177
To share device information with F5 technical support, a customer must either verbally share the
information over the phone or copy and send the information in an Email.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
178
When installing LTM on different VIPRION performance blades, each instance of LTM needs to be
licensed separately.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
179
The VIPRION provides hot-pluggable capabilities for which four of these types of hardware?
(Choose four.)
A.
LCD displays
B.
Fan trays
C.
Memory
D.
Power supplies
E.
Performance blades
F.
CompactFlash
B.
Fan trays
C.
Memory
D.
Power supplies
E.
Performance blades
180
A customer wants the best possible throughput but only has a maximum of 3RU rack space.
Which F5 platform should you recommend?
A.
BIG-IP 11050
B.
VIPRION with only 1 performance blade
C.
BIG-IP 8950
D.
BIG-IP 8900
E.
VIPRION with 4 performance blades
A.
BIG-IP 11050
181
Which of the following business benefits does storage tiering offer to customers?
A.
Reduces time for backups because data on the secondary tier can have a less time intensive
backup policed applied to it.
B.
All of the above.
C.
Enables customers to apply a more aggressive RTO/RPO for business critical Tier-1 unstructured
data.
D.
Reduces money spent on storage since the majority of data can be moved to less expensive
secondary tier storage.
B.
All of the above.
182
An age-based policy is set up on the ARX that retains only data modified in the last 3 months on
tier 1 storage and moves the rest of the data to secondary storage. What happens when the end
user tries to access data that has not been touched in 6 months?
A.
The end user is unaware that the data has been moved to secondary tier storage and is able to
access the data without difficulty.
B.
The networking mapping window appears, allowing the end user to re-establish direct access to
the data even though it has been moved to secondary storage.
C.
An error message appears saying "File is no longer unavailable."
D.
A message appears explaining that the file has been archived, and a link to the new secondary
storage tier location is provided
A.
The end user is unaware that the data has been moved to secondary tier storage and is able to
access the data without difficulty.
183
Although not all modules run on all platforms, each F5 hardware platform can run LTM plus at
least one additional software module.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
184
The production version of BIG-IP Virtual Edition is limited to 200 Mbps throughput.
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
Explanation:
The production version of BIG-IP Virtual Edition can be at 25Mbps / 200Mbps / 1Gbps / or 5Gbps
throughput served and maybe higher in the next versions.
185
What percentage of storage in a typical environment is actively used and modified?
A.
5%
B.
50%
C.
25%
D.
10%
E.
90%
D.
10%
186
________% of F5 products are sent through thorough software testing before being sold to
customers.
A.
100
B.
50
C.
60
D.
80
A.
100
187
Which of these statements about a stream profile is false?
A.
It is applied to an HTTP class profile.
B.
It is not recommended for telnet traffic.
C.
It can replace one data string for another for all traffic going through a virtual server.
D.
It applies to both inbound and outbound traffic.
E.
It will not inspect HTTP headers when an HTTP profile is present.
A.
It is applied to an HTTP class profile.
188
If LTM uses the round robin load balancing method, which pool member in the diagram above will
receive the next request? (Refer to image in the original PDF)
Answer: D
Explanation:
LTM uses the round robin load balancing method so after A will be B.
189
Basic F5 IP Geo location provides which four types of client information? (Choose four.)
A.
State
B.
Continent
C.
Postal code
D.
City
E.
Carrier
F.
Country
A. State
B. Continent
E. Carrier
F. Country
Explanation:
State - Country - Continent - City
State - Country - Postal code - City
The BIG-IP system uses geo location software to identify the geographic location of a client or web
application user. The default IP geo location database provides IPv4 addresses at the continent,
country, state, ISP, and organization levels, and IPv6 addresses at the continent and country
levels. The database consists of the following files:
F5GeoIP.dat
F5GeoIPv6.dat
F5GeoIPISP.dat
F5GeoIPOrg.dat
190
All members of a pool must share the same service port?
A.
True
B.
False
B.
False
191
When using SNAT, which additional IP addresses will the BIG-IP system change? (Choose two.)
A.
The source IP address on the client to BIG-IP request packet.
B.
The source IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
C.
The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
D.
The source IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.
E.
The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.
F.
The destination IP address on the pool member to BIG-IP response packet.
B.
The source IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
E.
The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.
192
Which two of the following statements about how TMOS typically manages traffic between a client
and server are accurate? (Choose two.)
A.
It changes the destination address before forwarding a request to the server.
B.
It changes the destination address before sending a response to the client.
C.
It changes the source address before sending a response to the client.
D.
It changes the source address before forwarding a request to the server.
B.
It changes the destination address before sending a response to the client
D.
It changes the source address before forwarding a request to the server.
193
DRAG DROP- Refer to the original Image on the PDF
Match the security-related term with the correct definition.
1. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
2. Denial of service (DoS)
3. DNS Express
4. DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC)
5. Endpoint inspection
1. Demilitarized zone (DMZ) – A portion of an enterprise network that sits behind a firewall but
outside of or segmented from the internal network.
2. Denial of service (DoS) – An attack that floods a network or server with requests and data
making it unavailable.
3. DNS Express – A high-speed in-memory authoritative DNS slave that can dramatically reduce
the DNS server infrastructure.
4. DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC) – A set of standards created to address vulnerabilities in
the Domain Name System (DNS) and protect it from online threats.
5. Endpoint inspection – Ensures a client device does not present a security risk before it is
granted a remote-access connection to the network.
194
What feature of the F5 Exchange solution helps administrators to streamline implementation for
added security and granular control?
A.
iControl
B.
Enterprise Manager
C.
iApps
D.
WebAccelerator
A.
iControl
195
Select the key question you would use to ask your customer related to DNS attacks?
A.
Do you over-provision your DNS infrastructure?
B.
Do you regularly update BIND or some other DNS application to the latest release?
C.
Do you rely on your network firewall to protect your DNS server?
D.
How do you secure your DNS infrastructure against attacks?
D.
How do you secure your DNS infrastructure against attacks?
196
When a business is hacked, they often lose more than money. What are the other
consequences to a business as a result of being hacked? Select two.
A.
Helpful third party reviews of the security needs of the customer's web applications.
B.
Valuable free press that occurs as companies address hacking incidents.
C.
Penalties related to non-compliance with laws and regulations.
D.
Final resolution of all security vulnerabilities of the business' web applications.
E.
Loss of customers when slow connections drive customers to competitor's site.
A.
Helpful third party reviews of the security needs of the customer's web applications.
D.
Final resolution of all security vulnerabilities of the business' web applications.
197
Match the security-related term with the correct definition. Refer to the original Image on the PDF
1. OWASP Top 10
2. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
3. Bot
4. Certificate
5. Content scrubbing
1. OWASP Top 10 – A list of the 10 most dangerous current Web application security flaws, along
with the effective methods of dealing with those flaws.
2. Secure Socket Layer (SSL) – A cryptographic protocol used to secure communications over the
Internet.
3. Bot – Malicious software placed on other people’s computers to perform automated tasks over
the Internet.
4. Certificate – A digitally signed statement issued by a trusted organization that contains
information about an entity and the entity’s public key.
5. Content scrubbing – Obfuscating identity information to prevent confidential information from
being sent in a web application response.
198
Complete the statement below by choosing the correct word or phrase to complete the sentence.
By identifying IP addresses and security categories associated with malicious activity, the BIG-IP
_______ service can incorporate dynamic lists of threatening IP addresses into the BIG-IP
platform, adding context to policy decisions.
A.
Edge Client
B.
iRules
C.
LTM
D.
IP intelligence
E.
iApps
D.
IP intelligence
199
Even though F5 is an application delivery controller, it can also effectively mitigate attacks directed
at the network layer.
A.
True
B.
False
A.
True
200
Select the best word or phrase to complete the following sentence.
Using the _______ feature in GTM, F5's Application Delivery Firewall solution can handle a
significantly higher number of queries than traditional DNS servers.
A.
DNS Express
B.
BIND
C.
Site availability request
D.
Location-based routing
A.
DNS Express
201
If your customer has a policy requirement that cannot be handled in the Visual Policy
Editor, what would you use to supplement the Visual Policy Editor?
A.
iApps
B.
TMOS
C.
iControl
D.
iRules
D.
iRules
202
Which aspect of F5's Intelligent Services Platform helps you extend your security conversation to
include F5professionals and customers?
A.
Modular Functionality
B.
iApps
C.
TMOS
D.
DevCentral
D.
DevCentral
203
Why is BIG-IP ASM ideally suited to protect against layer 7 attacks, including HTTP and
HTTPS/SSL traffic, when compared to an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
A.
An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is based on Packet Filtering.
B.
An IPS doesn't have the visibility into HTTPS traffic. it doesn't understand what applications are in
the network.
C.
An IPS only focus on operating system attacks; it doesn't understand what application are in the
network.
D.
An IPS can only look at overall traffic patterns; it doesn't understand what applications are in the
network.
D.
An IPS can only look at overall traffic patterns; it doesn't understand what applications are in the
network.
204
The F5 Visual Policy Editor (VPE) is unique to the F5 BIG-IP APM module; no other access
management tool has this capability. Select the features that the VPE provides. Select two.
A.
Develop customized reports on user access
B.
Customize landing or login pages
C.
Establish highly detailed policies based on customer business requirements
D.
Configure authentication server objects
E.
Perform multiple factors of authentication
C.
Establish highly detailed policies based on customer business requirements
E.
Perform multiple factors of authentication
205
The F5 Visual Policy Editor (VPE) is unique to the F5 BIG-IP APM module; no other access
management tool has this capability. Select the features that the VPE provides. Select two.
A.
Determines antivirus patch levels
B.
Customizes landing or login page
C.
Provides vulnerability scanning
D.
Checks operating system patch levels
E.
Assigns a lease pool address
A.
Determines antivirus patch levels
D.
Checks operating system patch levels
206
Select the two best questions you would use to ask your customer about their current web access
management solution. Select two.
A.
What impact are slow remote access connections having on productivity?
B.
Are you using Google multi-factor authentication?
C.
Is user authentication data sitting on partner systems outside your control?
D.
Have you standardized on Androids or iPhones?
E.
How are you planning to extend Exchange to your mobile users?
F.
How do you think a global remote access deployment with integrated acceleration and availability
services might benefit your business?
A.
What impact are slow remote access connections having on productivity?
F.
How do you think a global remote access deployment with integrated acceleration and availability
services might benefit your business?
207
Data centers often rely on either traditional firewalls or next generation firewalls. Select the core
weakness of the traditional or next generation firewalls when it comes to DDoS attacks.
A.
They are limited in amount of connections per second and the amount of sustained connections
they can handle
B.
The cost performance ratio of next generation firewalls is too high.
C.
The agility of traditional firewalls is too limited when it comes to DDoS attacks.
D.
Data center traffic is primarily outbound.
A.
They are limited in amount of connections per second and the amount of sustained connections
they can handle
208
Select the question you would ask your customer related to DNS attacks. Based on the material,
choose the most appropriate question.
A.
How do you secure you DNS infrastructure against attacks?
B.
Do you rely on your network firewall to protect you DNS server?
C.
Do you over-provision your DNS infrastructure?
D.
Do you regularly update BIND or some other DNS application to the latest release?
A.
How do you secure you DNS infrastructure against attacks?
209
Why does the F5 Application Delivery Firewall solution mitigate SSL attacks more effectively than
any other firewalls?
A.
Because F5 has unlimited capacity to handle SSL traffic.
B.
Because F5 has full visibility and control of SSL traffic.
C.
Because F5 has a separate iApp to handle SSL traffic.
D.
Because F5 supports large SSL key sizes.
B.
Because F5 has full visibility and control of SSL traffic.
210
Assume a client's traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or virtual server processing
takes place. Also assume that the NAT definition specifies a NAT address and an origin address
while all other settings are left at their defaults. If the origin server were to initiate traffic via the
BIG-IP, what changes, if any, would take place when the BIG-IP processes such packets?
A.
The BIG-IP would drop the request since the traffic didn’t arrive destined to the NAT address.
B.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be changed to the NAT
address.
C.
The source address would be changed to the NAT address and destination address would be left
unchanged.
D.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be changed to a self-IP
of the BIG-IP.
C.
The source address would be changed to the NAT address and destination address would be left
unchanged.
211
A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets arriving from the Internet for clients
sing some pools but not others. The determination is not based on the client's IP address, but on
the pool they are load balanced to. What could best accomplish this goal?
A.
A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select
pools.
B.
The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal
cannot be achieved.
C.
For each virtual server, regardless their default load balancing pools, association with SNAT
pools could vary dependent upon need.
D.
The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client's address (or
network). Thus, this goal cannot be achieved.
A.
A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select
212
Which two statements are true about SNATs? (Choose two.)
A.
SNATs are enabled on all VLANs, by default.
B.
SNATs can be configured within a Profile definition.
C.
SNATs can be configured within a Virtual Server definition.
D.
SNAT's are enabled only on the VLAN where origin traffic arrives, by default.
A.
SNATs are enabled on all VLANs, by default.
C.
SNATs can be configured within a Virtual Server definition.
213
What is the purpose of floating self-IP addresses?
A.
to define an address that grants administrative access to either system at any time
B.
to define an address that allows either system to initiate communication at any time
C.
to define an address that allows network devices to route traffic via a single IP address
D.
to define an address that gives network devices greater flexibility in choosing a path to forward
traffic
C.
to define an address that allows network devices to route traffic via a single IP address
214
Which parameters are set to the same value when a pair of BIG-IP devices are synchronized?
A.
host names
B.
system clocks
C.
profile definitions
D.
VLAN failsafe settings
E.
MAC masquerade addresses
C.
profile definitions
215
Which two statements are true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair
of BIG-IP systems? (Choose two.)
A.
Synchronization occurs via a TCP connection using ports 683 and 684.
B.
Connection mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.
C.
Persistence mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.
D.
Connection mirroring data is shared through the serial failover cable unless network failover is
enabled.
B.
Connection mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.
C.
Persistence mirroring data is shared via a TCP connection using port 1028.
216
Which two methods can be used to determine which BIG-IP is currently active? (Choose two.)
A.
The bigtop command displays the status.
B.
Only the active system's configuration screens are active.
C.
The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in
the command prompt.
D.
The ifconfig a command displays the floating addresses on the active system.
A.
The bigtop command displays the status.
C.
The status (Active/Standby) is embedded in
the command prompt.
217
As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP.
What would be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?
A.
Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication.
B.
In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is
synchronized between the systems.
C.
The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same selfIP addresses as the source system
D.
When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they will
always connect to the active system.
C.
The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same selfIP addresses as the source system.
218
When network failover is enabled, which of the following is true?
A.
The failover cable status is ignored. Failover is determined by the network status only.
B.
Either a network failure or loss of voltage across the failover cable will cause a failover.
C.
A network failure will not cause a failover as long as there is a voltage across the failover cable.
D.
The presence or absence of voltage over the failover cable takes precedence over network
failover.
C.
A network failure will not cause a failover as long as there is a voltage across the failover cable.
219
Where is connection mirroring configured?
A.
It an option within a TCP profile.
B.
It is an optional feature of each pool.
C.
It is not configured; it is default behavior.
D.
It is an optional feature of each virtual server.
D.
It is an optional feature of each virtual server.
220
Which statement is true regarding failover?
A.
Hardware failover is disabled by default.
B.
Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover.
C.
If the hardware failover cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will
always assume the active role.
D.
By default, hardware failover detects voltage across the failover cable and monitors traffic across
the internal VLAN.
B.
Hardware failover can be used in conjunction with network failover
221
Where is persistence mirroring configured?
A.
It is always enabled.
B.
It is part of a pool definition.
C.
It is part of a profile definition.
D.
It is part of a virtual server definition.
C.
It is part of a profile definition.
222
Assume the bigd daemon fails on the active system. Which three are possible results? (Choose
three.)
A.
The active system will restart the bigd daemon and continue in active mode.
B.
The active system will restart the TMM daemon and continue in active mode.
C.
The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode.
D.
The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode.
E.
The active system will continue in active mode but gather member and node state information
from the standby system.
A.
The active system will restart the bigd daemon and continue in active mode.
C.
The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode.
D.
The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode.
223
What is the purpose of MAC masquerading?
A.
to prevent ARP cache errors
B.
to minimize ARP entries on routers
C.
to minimize connection loss due to ARP cache refresh delays
D.
to allow both BIG-IP devices to simultaneously use the same MAC address
C.
to minimize connection loss due to ARP cache refresh delays
224
Which process or system can be monitored by the BIG-IP system and used as a failover trigger in
a redundant pair configuration.
A.
bandwidth utilization
B.
duplicate IP address
C.
CPU utilization percentage
D.
VLAN communication ability
D.
VLAN communication ability
225
Assuming there are open connections through an active system's NAT and a failover occurs, by
default, what happens to those connections? (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
All open connections will be lost.
B.
All open connections will be maintained.
C.
The "Mirror" option must be chosen on the NAT and the setting synchronized prior to the
connection establishment.
D.
Long-lived connections such as Telnet and FTP will be maintained while short-lived connections
such as HTTP will be lost.
E.
All open connections are lost, but new connections are initiated by the newly active BIG-IP,
resulting in minimal client downtime.
B.
All open connections will be maintained.
226
A virtual server is defined per the charts. The last five client connections were to members C, D,
A, B, B. Given the conditions shown in the above graphic, if a client with IP address 205.12.45.52
opens a connection to the virtual server, which member will be used for the connection? (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
172.16.20.1:80
B.
172.16.20.2:80
C.
172.16.20.3:80
D.
172.16.20.4:80
E.
172.16.20.5:80
D.
172.16.20.4:80
227
Which statement is correct if a TOP-based monitor is assigned to an LTM System and an
HTTP-based monitor is assigned to one of that LTM System's Virtual Servers?
A.
The Virtual Server status is based on the TCP monitor only.
B.
The Virtual Server status is based on the HTTP monitor only.
C.
GTM Systems do not allow monitors on both an LTM System and one of its Virtual Servers.
D.
The Virtual Server status is based on both the TOP and HTTP monitor; if either fails, the Virtual
Server is unavailable.
E.
The Virtual Server status is based on both the TOP and HTTP monitor; if either succeeds, the
Virtual Server is available.
B.
The Virtual Server status is based on the HTTP monitor only.
228
With standard DNS, assuming no DNS request failures, which process describes the normal
resolution process on a "first time" DNS request?
A.
Client requests address from root server, root server returns IP address to Authoritative DNS,
Authoritative DNS returns requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.
B.
Client requests address from LDNS, LDNS requests from GTM, GTM requests from Authoritative
DNS, Authoritative DNS returns requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to
client.
C.
Client requests address from LDNS, Authoritative DNS receives request from root server, root
server returns LDNS address, LDNS returns client address, Authoritative DNS returns requested
IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.
D.
Client requests address from LDNS, LDNS requests from root server, root server returns
Authoritative DNS address, LDNS requests from Authoritative DNS, Authoritative DNS returns
requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.
D.
Client requests address from LDNS, LDNS requests from root server, root server returns
Authoritative DNS address, LDNS requests from Authoritative DNS, Authoritative DNS returns
requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.
229
What is the purpose of provisioning?
A.
Provisioning allows modules that are not licensed to be fully tested.
B.
Provisioning allows modules that are licensed be granted appropriate resource levels.
C.
Provisioning allows the administrator to activate modules in nonstandard combinations.
D.
Provisioning allows the administrator to see what modules are licensed, but no user action is ever
required.
B.
Provisioning allows modules that are licensed be granted appropriate resource levels.
230
Which three properties can be assigned to nodes? (Choose three.)
A.
ratio values
B.
priority values
C.
health monitors
D.
connection limits
E.
load balancing mode
A.
ratio values
C.
health monitors
D.
connection limits
231
Where is the load balancing mode specified?
A.
within the pool definition
B.
within the node definition
C.
within the virtual server definition
D.
within the pool member definition
A.
within the pool definition
232
Which statement accurately describes the difference between two load balancing modes specified as "member" and "node"?
A.
There is no difference; the two terms are referenced for backward compatibility purposes.
B.
When the load balancing choice references "node", priority group activation is unavailable.
C.
Load balancing options referencing "nodes" are available only when the pool members are
defined for the "any" port.
D.
When the load balancing choice references "node", the addresses' parameters are used to make
the load balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.
D.
When the load balancing choice references "node", the addresses' parameters are used to make
the load balancing choice rather than the member's parameters.
233
Which two can be a part of a virtual server's definition? (Choose two.)
A.
rule(s)
B.
pool(s)
C.
monitor(s)
D.
node address(es)
E.
load balancing method(s)
A.
rule(s)
B.
pool(s)
234
Assume a BIG-IP has no NATs or SNATs configured. Which two scenarios are possible when
client traffic arrives on a BIG-IP that is NOT destined to a self-IP? (Choose two.)
A.
If the destination of the traffic does not match a virtual server, the traffic will be discarded.
B.
If the destination of the traffic does not match a virtual server, the traffic will be forwarded based
on routing tables.
C.
If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be processed per the virtual
server definition. If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be
processed per the virtual server. definition.
D.
If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be forwarded, but it cannot be
load balanced since no SNAT has been configured.
A.
If the destination of the traffic does not match a virtual server, the traffic will be discarded.
C.
If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be processed per the virtual
server definition. If the destination of the traffic matches a virtual server, the traffic will be
processed per the virtual server. definition.
235
When configuring a pool member's monitor, which three association options are available?
(Choose three.)
A.
inherit the pool's monitor
B.
inherit the node's monitor
C.
configure a default monitor
D.
assign a monitor to the specific member
E.
do not assign any monitor to the specific member
A.
inherit the pool's monitor
D.
assign a monitor to the specific member
E.
do not assign any monitor to the specific member
236
The current status of a given pool member is unknown. Which condition could explain that state?
A.
The member has no monitor assigned to it.
B.
The member has a monitor assigned to it and the most recent monitor was successful.
C.
The member has a monitor assigned to it and the monitor did not succeed during the most recent
timeout period.
D.
The member's node has a monitor assigned to it and the monitor did not succeed during the most
recent timeout period.
A.
The member has no monitor assigned to it.
237
The default staging-tightening period for attack signatures and wildcard entities is?
A.
5 days
B.
7 days
C.
10 days
D.
30 days
B.
7 days
238
Generally speaking, should the monitor templates be used as production monitors or should they
be customized prior to use?
A.
Most templates, such as HTTP and TCP, are as effective as customized monitors.
B.
Monitor template customization is only a matter of preference, not an issue of effectiveness or
performance.
C.
Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more
robust.
D.
While some templates, such as ftp, must be customized, those that can be used without
modification are not improved by specific changes.
C.
Most templates, such as https, should have the receive rule customized to make the monitor more
robust.
239
You have a pool of servers that need to be tested. All of the servers but one should be tested
every 10 seconds, but one is slower and should only be tested every 20 seconds. How do you proceed?
A.
It cannot be done. All monitors test every five seconds.
B.
It can be done, but will require assigning monitors to each pool member.
C.
It cannot be done. All of the members of a pool must be tested at the same frequency.
D.
It can be done by assigning one monitor to the pool and a different monitor to the slower pool
member.
D.
It can be done by assigning one monitor to the pool and a different monitor to the slower pool
member.
240
When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?
A.
Never. Each virtual server has a maximum of one profile.
B.
Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common.
C.
Rarely. One combination, using both the TCP and HTTP profile does occur, but it is the
exception.
D.
Unlimited. Profiles can work together in any combination to ensure that all traffic types are
supported in a given virtual server.
B.
Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common.
241
A site needs a virtual server that will use an iRule to parse HTTPS traffic based on HTTP header
values. Which two profile types must be associated with such a virtual server?
(Choose two.)
A.
TCP
B.
HTTP
C.
HTTPS
D.
ServerSSL
A.
TCP
B.
HTTP
242
You have created a custom profile named TEST2. The parent profile of TEST2 is named TEST1.
If additional changes are made to TEST1, what is the effect on TEST2?
A.
All changes to TEST1 are propagated to TEST2.
B.
Some of the changes to TEST1 may propagate to TEST2.
C.
Changes to TEST1 cannot affect TEST2 once TEST2 is saved.
D.
When TEST1 is changed, the administrator is prompted and can choose whether to propagate
changes to TEST2.
B.
Some of the changes to TEST1 may propagate to TEST2.
243
If a client's browser does not accept cookies, what occurs when the client connects to a virtual
server using cookie persistence?
A.
The connection request is not processed.
B.
The connection request is sent to a pology.server. The connection request is sent to a
pology.server.
C.
The connection request is load balanced to an available pool member.
D.
The connection request is refused and the client is sent a "server not available" message.
C.
The connection request is load balanced to an available pool member.
244
The incoming client IP address is 195.64.45.52 and the last five connections have been sent to
members A, C, E, D and B. Given the virtual server, pool, and persistence definitions and statistics
shown in the above graphic, which member will be used for the next connection? (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
10.10.20.1:80
B.
10.10.20.2:80
C.
10.10.20.3:80
D.
10.10.20.4:80
E.
10.10.20.5:80
F.
It cannot be determined with the information given.
C.
10.10.20.3:80
245
Which statement is true concerning cookie persistence.
A.
Cookie persistence allows persistence independent of IP addresses.
B.
Cookie persistence allows persistence even if the data are encrypted from client to pool member.
C.
Cookie persistence uses a cookie that stores the virtual server, pool name, and member IP
address in clear text.
D.
If a client's browser accepts cookies, cookie persistence will always cause a cookie to be written
to the client's file system.
A.
Cookie persistence allows persistence independent of IP addresses.
246
How is persistence configured?
A.
Persistence is an option within each pool's definition.
B.
Persistence is a profile type; an appropriate profile is created and associated with virtual server.
C.
Persistence is a global setting; once enabled, load balancing choices are superseded by the
persistence method that is specified.
D.
Persistence is an option for each pool member. When a pool is defined, each member's definition
includes the option for persistence
B.
Persistence is a profile type; an appropriate profile is created and associated with virtual server.
247
Assume a virtual server has a ServerSSL profile. What SSL certificates are required on the BIGIP?
A.
No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.
B.
The BIG-IP's SSL certificates must only exist.
C.
The BIG-IP's SSL certificates must be issued from a certificate authority.
D.
The BIG-IP's SSL certificates must be created within the company hosting the BIG-IPs.
A.
No SSL certificates are required on the BIG-IP.
248
Assume a virtual server is configured with a ClientSSL profile. What would the result be if the
virtual server's destination port was not 443?
A.
SSL termination could not be performed if the virtual server's port was not port 443.
B.
Virtual servers with a ClientSSL profile are always configured with a destination port of 443.
C.
As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as
intended.
D.
Since the virtual server is associated with a ClientSSL profile, it will always process traffic sent to
port 443.
C.
As long as client traffic was directed to the alternate port, the virtual server would work as
intended.
249
Which statement is true concerning SSL termination.
A.
A virtual server that has both ClientSSL and ServerSSL profiles can still support cookie
persistence.
B.
Decrypting traffic at the BIG-IP allows the use of iRules for traffic management, but increases the
load on the pool member.
C.
When any virtual server uses a ClientSSL profile, all SSL traffic sent to the BIG-IP is decrypted
before it is forwarded to servers.
D.
If a virtual server has both a ClientSSL and ServerSSL profile, the pool members have less SSL
processing than if the virtual server had only a ClientSSL profile.
A.
A virtual server that has both ClientSSL and ServerSSL profiles can still support cookie
persistence.
250
A site wishes to perform source address translation on packets from some clients but not others. The determination is not based on the client's IP address, but on the virtual servers their packets
arrive on. What could best accomplish this goal?
A.
A SNAT for all addresses could be defined, and then disable the SNAT processing for select
VLANs.
B.
Some virtual servers could be associated with SNAT pools and others not associated with SNAT
pools.
C.
The decision to perform source address translation is always based on VLAN. Thus, the goal
cannot be achieved.
D.
The decision to perform source address translation is always based on a client's address (or
network). Thus, this goal cannot be achieved.
B.
Some virtual servers could be associated with SNAT pools and others not associated with SNAT
pools.
251
Assume a client's traffic is being processed only by a NAT; no SNAT or virtual server processing
takes place. Also assume that the NAT definition specifies a NAT address and an origin address
while all other settings are left at their defaults. If a client were to initiate traffic to the NAT address,
what changes, if any, would take place when the BIG-IP processes such packets?
A.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be translated to the
origin address.
B.
The destination address would not change, but the source address would be translated to the
origin address.
C.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be translated to the
NAT's address.
D.
The destination address would not change, but the source address would be translated to the
NAT's address.
A.
The source address would not change, but the destination address would be translated to the
origin address.
252
A standard virtual server is defined with a pool and a SNAT using automap. All other settings for
the virtual server are at defaults. When client traffic is processed by the BIG-IP, what will occur to
the IP addresses?
A.
Traffic initiated by the pool members will have the source address translated to a self-IP address
but the destination address will not be changed.
B.
Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination address translated to a pool member
address and the source address. Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination
address translated to a pool member. address and the source address translated to a self-IP
address.
C.
Traffic initiated by selected clients, based on their IP address, will have the source address
translated to a self-IP address but the destination will only be translated if the traffic is destined to
the virtual server.
D.
Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination address translated to a pool member
address and the source address. Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination
address translated to a pool member. address and the source address translated to a selfIP address. Traffic arriving destined to other destinations will have the source translated to a selfIP address only.
B.
Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination address translated to a pool member
address and the source address. Traffic initiated to the virtual server will have the destination
address translated to a pool member. address and the source address translated to a self-IP
address.
253
Which VLANs must be enabled for a SNAT to perform as desired (translating only desired
packets)?
A.
The SNAT must be enabled for all VLANs.
B.
The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets
leave the BIG-IP.
C.
The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP.
D.
The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive and leave the BIGIP.
C.
The SNAT must be enabled for the VLANs where desired packets arrive on the BIG-IP.
254
A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 with SNAT automap configured. This BIGIP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for a source address range of 200.200.1.0 /
255.255.255.0. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address
200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address when the
associated packet is sent to the pool member?
A.
200.200.1.1
B.
150.150.10.11
C.
Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system
D.
Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet arrives on the system
C.
Floating self IP address on VLAN where the packet leaves the system
255
Which IP address will the client address be changed to when SNAT automap is specified within a
Virtual Server configuration?
A.
The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet
leaves the system.
B.
The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet arrives on the system.
C.
It will alternate between the floating and nonfloating self IP address on the VLAN where the
packet leaves the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.
D.
It will alternate between the floating and nonfloating self IP address on the VLAN where the
packet arrives on the system so that port exhaustion is avoided.
A.
The floating self IP address on the VLAN where the packet
leaves the system
256
A virtual server at 10.10.1.100:80 has the rule listed below applied. when HTTP_REQUEST { if
{[HTTP::uri] ends_with "htm" } { pool pool1 } elseif {[HTTP::uri] ends_with "xt" } { pool pool2 } If a
user connects to http://10.10.1.100/foo.txt which pool will receive the request.
A.
pool1
B.
pool2
C.
None. The request will be dropped.
D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.
B.
pool2
257
Which statement is true concerning iRule events.
A.
All iRule events relate to HTTP processes.
B.
All client traffic has data that could be used to trigger iRule events.
C.
All iRule events are appropriate at any point in the client-server communication.
D.
If an iRule references an event that doesn't occur during the client's communication, the client's
connection will be terminated prematurely.
B.
All client traffic has data that could be used to trigger iRule events.
258
Which three iRule events are likely to be seen in iRules designed to select a pool for load
balancing. (Choose 3)
A.
CLIENT_DATA
B.
SERVER_DATA
C.
HTTP_REQUEST
D.
HTTP_RESPONSE
E.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED
F.
SERVER_SELECTED
G.
SERVER_CONNECTED
A.
CLIENT_DATA
C.
HTTP_REQUEST
E.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED
259
Which event is always triggered when a client initially connects to a virtual server configured with
an HTTP profile?
A.
HTTP_DATA
B.
CLIENT_DATA
C.
HTTP_REQUEST
D.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED
D.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED
260
A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:80 and has the following iRule associated with it: (SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
If a user connects to http://10.10.1.100/foo.html, which pool will receive the request?
A.
pool1
B.
pool2
C.
None. The request will be dropped.
D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.
D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.
261
A virtual server is listening at 10.10.1.100:any and has the following iRule associated with it: (SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
pool1
B.
pool2
C.
None. The request will be dropped.
D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.
D.
Unknown. The pool cannot be determined from the information provided.
262
Which statement is true about the synchronization process, as performed by the Configuration
Utility or by typing b config sync all?
A.
The process should always be run from the standby system.
B.
The process should always be run from the system with the latest configuration.
C.
The two /config/BIG-IP.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the
process is run.
D.
Multiple files, including /config/BIG-IP.conf and /config/BIG-IP_base.conf, are synchronized
(made identical) each time the process is run.
C.
The two /config/BIG-IP.conf configuration files are synchronized (made identical) each time the
process is run.
263
Which statement is true concerning the default communication between a redundant pair of BIG-IP
devices?
A.
Communication between the systems cannot be effected by port lockdown settings.
B.
Data for both connection and persistence mirroring are shared
through the same TCP connection.
C.
Regardless of the configuration, some data is communicated between the systems at regular
intervals.
D.
Connection mirroring data is shared through the serial failover cable unless network failover is
enabled.
B.
Data for both connection and persistence mirroring are shared
through the same TCP connection.
264
When upgrading a BIG-IP redundant pair, what happens when one system has been updated but
the other has not?
A.
Synching should not be performed.
B.
The first system to be updated will assume the Active role.
C.
This is not possible since both systems are updated simultaneously.
D.
The older system will issue SNMP traps indicating a communication error with the partner.
A.
Synching should not be performed.
265
When using the setup utility to configure a redundant pair, you are asked to provide a "Failover
Peer IP". Which address is this?
A.
an address of the other system in its management network
B.
an address of the other system in a redundant pair configuration
C.
an address on the current system used to listen for failover messages from the partner BIG-IP
D.
an address on the current system used to initiate mirroring and network failover heartbeat
messages
B.
an address of the other system in a redundant pair configuration
266
Which two statements describe differences between the active and standby systems? (Choose
two.)
A.
Monitors are performed only by the active system.
B.
Failover triggers only cause changes on the active system.
C.
Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.
D.
Configuration changes can only be made on the active system.
E.
Floating self-IP addresses are hosted only by the active system.
C.
Virtual server addresses are hosted only by the active system.
E.
Floating self-IP addresses are hosted only by the active system.
267
Assuming other failover settings are at their default state, what would occur if the failover cable
were to be disconnected for five seconds and then reconnected.
A.
As long as network communication is not lost, no change will occur.
B.
Nothing. Failover due to loss of voltage will not occur if the voltage is lost for less than ten
seconds.
C.
When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When
the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode.
D.
When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When the voltage is restored,
both systems will maintain active mode.
C.
When the cable is disconnected, both systems will become active. When
the voltage is restored, unit two will revert to standby mode.
268
Given that VLAN failsafe is enabled on the external VLAN and the network that the active BIG-IP's
external VLAN is connected to has failed, which statement is always true about the results?
A.
The active system will note the failure in the HA table.
B.
The active system will reboot and the standby system will go into active mode.
C.
The active system will failover and the standby system will go into active mode.
D.
The active system will restart the traffic management module to eliminate the possibility that BIGIP is the cause for the network failure
A.
The active system will note the failure in the HA table.
269
Assuming there are open connections through an active system's virtual servers and a failover
occurs, by default, what happens to the connections?
A.
All open connections are lost.
B.
All open connections are maintained.
C.
When persistence mirroring is enabled, open connections are maintained even if a failover
occurs.
D.
Long-lived connections such as Telnet and FTP are maintained, but short-lived connections such
as HTTP are lost.
E
All open connections are lost, but new connections are initiated by the newly active BIG-IP,
resulting in minimal client downtime.
A.
All open connections are lost
270
How is MAC masquerading configured?
A.
Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled.
B.
Specify the desired MAC address for each self-IP address for which you want this feature
enabled.
C.
Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN on the active system and synchronize the
systems.
D.
Specify the desired MAC address for each floating self-IP address for which you want this feature
enabled.
A.
Specify the desired MAC address for each VLAN for which you want this feature enabled.
271
Which action will take place when a failover trigger is detected by the active system?
A.
The active device will take the action specified for the failure.
B.
The standby device also detects the failure and assumes the active role
C.
The active device will wait for all connections to terminate and then failover.
D.
The standby device will begin processing virtual servers that have failed, but the active device will
continue servicing the functional virtual servers.
A.
The active device will take the action specified for the failure.
272
Assuming that systems are synchronized, which action could take place if the failover cable is
connected correctly and working properly, but the systems cannot communicate over the network
due to extern al network problems.
A.
If network failover is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode.
B.
Whether or not network failover is enabled, the standby system will stay in standby mode.
C.
Whether or not network failover is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode.
D.
If network failover is enabled, the standby system will go into active mode but only until the
network recovers.
B.
Whether or not network failover is enabled, the standby system will stay in standby mode.
273
Which statement is true concerning iRule context?
A.
The iRule event declaration determines the context.
B.
The context must be explicitly declared.
C.
The rule command determines the context.
D.
The results of the iRule's conditional statement determines the context.
A.
The iRule event declaration determines the context.
274
The following iRule is being used within a persistence profile on a virtual server. Assuming the
following HTTP requests are made within the same timeout window, what is the maximum
number of persistence records that will be created iRule: (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
4
B.
3
C.
10
D.
It cannot be determined from the given data.
E.
5
F.
1
G.
0
A.
4
275
Which statement is true concerning SNATs using SNAT pools and SNATs using automap?
A.
SNAT s using automap preferentially translate source addresses to nonfloating self-IP addresses.
B.
SNAT s using a SNAT pool translate source addresses randomly to any of the addresses in the
SNAT pool.
C.
SNAT s using automap translate source addresses randomly to any of the BIG-IP's floating self-IP
addresses.
D.
A SNAT pool can contain virtual server addresses.
A.
SNAT s using automap preferentially translate source addresses to nonfloating self-IP addresses.
276
Why would an administrator capture monitor traffic between a BIG-IP and servers?
A.
Viewing monitor traffic could help the administrator to define a more robust monitor.
B.
If a client were having difficulty logging into a load balanced SSH server, viewing and analyzing
the connection process would determine the reason.
C.
Only client traffic may be captured; monitor traffic may not be captured.
D.
If client traffic to servers was failing, viewing and analyzing monitor traffic would determine the
reason.
A.
Viewing monitor traffic could help the administrator to define a more robust monitor.
277
When a pool is created and saved to file, where is the default file and location for the pool
configuration? When a pool is created and saved to file, where is the default file and location for
the pool configuration?
A.
/config/BIG-IP_base.conf
B.
lconfig/BIG-IP.conf
C.
/etc/BIG-IP_base.conf
D.
/config/BigDB.dat
B.
lconfig/BIG-IP.conf
278
Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A.
In addition to administrator-created filters, three always exists a "deny all" filter that processes
traffic last.
B.
Filters cannot prevent access to the management port.
C.
The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied.
D.
Filters cannot prevent the BIG_IP synching process from taking place.
B.
Filters cannot prevent access to the management port.
279
Which action CANNOT be performed by an iRule?
A.
Direct a connection request to a specific pool.
B.
Substitute a server's response with alternate data.
C.
Chang the virtual server's default pool.
D.
Direct a client's request to a pool based on the client's browser's language.
E.
Limit a given client to a set amount of bandwidth.
F.
Discard a client before connecting to a server.
C.
Chang the virtual server's default pool.
280
Which persistence method will always recognize a client when the client returns to the same
virtual server?
A.
SSL
B.
MSRDP
C.
expression [universal]
D.
No persistence method work in all situations.
E.
source address
D.
No persistence method work in all situations.
281
Which are immediate results of entering the following command:(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
Requests sent to this BIG-IP system with a destination port of 80 are load balanced between the
members of PoolA.
B.
No changes will take place since the command is missing the monitor component for PoolA.
C.
The /config/BIG-IP.cinf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named PoolA
D.
A new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.
D.
A new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.
282
Which three statements are true about SNATs? (Choose three.)
A.
SNAT s provide bidirectional traffic initiation.
B.
SNAT s support UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic.
C.
SNAT s provide a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses.
D.
SNAT addresses can be identical to virtual server IP addresses.
B.
SNAT s support UDP, TCP, and ICMP traffic.
C.
SNAT s provide a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses.
283
Given the configuration shown below, if a connection request arrived on the BIG-IP with a source
address of 200.10.10.10:1050 and a destination of 150.10.10.75:80, what would the source IP
address of the associated packet be when it arrived on the choosen member of the web_pool self
150.10.10.1 { netmask 255.255.255.0 unit I floating enable vlan external allow tcp https } self
10.10.1.1 { netmask 255.255.255.0 unit I floating enable vlan internal allow default } pool
web_pool { member 10.10.1.11:80 member 10.10.1.12:80 member 10.10.1.13:80 }snatpool
client_pool { member 10.10.1.100 member 150.10.10.15 }virtual VS_web { destination 150.10.10.10:80 ip protocol tcp snat automap pool web_pool }virtual VS_network{ destination 150.10.1 0.0:any mask 255.255.255.0 snatpool client_pool ip protocol tcp pool web_pool } virtual VS_network { destination 150.10.1 0.0:any mask 255.255.255.0 snatpool client_pool ip protocol
tcp pool web_pool } virtual VS_network { destination 150.10.10.0:any mask 255.255.255.0
snatpool client_pool ip protocol tcp pool web_pool }
A.
10.10.1.IA.10.10.1.1
B.
200.10.10.I0D.200.10.10.10
C.
10.10.1.I00B.10.10.1.100
D.
150.10.10.15C.150.10.10.15
C.
10.10.1.I00B.10.10.1.100
284
When a virtual server has an HTTP profile with compression enabled, which traffic is compressed
by the BIG-IP?
A.
selected traffic from the BIG-IP to the client
B.
all sever-side traffic for that virtual server
C.
selected traffic from the pool member to the BIG-IP
D.
all client-side traffic for that virtual server
A.
selected traffic from the BIG-IP to the client
285
An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, 2 SNATs, four self IP addresses defined, and the networks
shown in the exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at
their defaults. Assume port exhaustion has not been reached.
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.10.100.50:2222 and a destination
IP and port of 10.10.2.10:80. When the request is processed, what will be the source and
destination IP addresses?
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
The request will be droped.
B.
Source IP: 10.10.2.1; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
C.
Source IP: 10.10.2.102; Destination IP 10.10.2.10
D.
Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
E.
Source IP: 10.10.2.1; Destination IP: pool in the 172.16/16 network C
D.
Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
286
Which three parameters could be used to determine whether a connection request will have the
source address translated as the request is processed? (Choose three.)
A.
the client's router's IP address
B.
the client's browser's preferred language
C.
the client's IP netmask
D.
the client's TCP port
E.
the client's IP address
F.
the client IP fragment offset
B.
the client's browser's preferred language
D.
the client's TCP port
E.
the client's IP address
287
A BIG-IP has the following objects configured: (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A virtual server at 150.10.30.30:80 that is associated with both the SNAT pool and the
load balancing pool. If a client at IP address 200.10.10.10 initiates a connection to the virtual
server, what will the source IP address be in the packets sent to the chosen pool member?
A.
150.10.33.33
B.
10.10.1.33
C.
10.10.1.10
D.
150.10.30.30
E.
200.10.10.10
F.
It could be any of the addresses of the members of the load balancing pool.
B.
10.10.1.33
288
What does the insert X-Forwarded option in an HTTP profile do?
A.
A BIG-IP self-IP is inserted in the source address field on the server-side connection.
B.
A BIG-IP self-IP is inserted in the source address field on the client-side connection.
C.
The client IP addresses are inserted into messages sent to remote syslog servers.
D.
The client IP addresses are inserted into HTTP header.
D.
The client IP addresses are inserted into HTTP header
289
When defining a load balancing pool using the command line, if the load balancing method is not
specified, what is the result?
A.
The default load balancing method would be used.
B.
The load balancing method of the previous pool would be used.
C.
The system would prompt the user for a load balancing method.
D.
An error would be displayed since no load balancing method was specified.
A.
The default load balancing method would be used.
290
What occurs when a save-config command is issued?
A.
The current configuration files are backed up.
B.
The current configuration files are verified for syntax, then the running configuration is installed in
memory.
C.
The current configuration files are loaded into memory.
D.
The current configuration files are saved into an archive format.
A.
The current configuration files are backed up.
291
How many events can be referenced in a given iRule?
A.
iRules are limited to one event, but a virtual server could be associated with multiple rules.
B.
iRules can have multiple events.
C.
Exactly one.
D.
iRules can have up to event if one is client-side and one is server-side.
B.
iRules can have multiple events.
292
Which statement is true regarding OneConnect processing?
A.
The virtual server must have UDP profile.
B.
Server-side request can utilize existing client-side connections.
C.
The number of client connection is reduced.
D.
Client-side request can utilize existing server-side connections.
D.
Client-side request can utilize existing server-side connections.
293
Which tool is used on BIG-IP systems to capture data packets?
A.
tcpdump
B.
snoop
C.
ethereal
D.
qkview
A.
tcpdump
294
Which statement concerning virtual servers is true?
A.
Virtual servers can keep idle server connections open indefinitely.
B.
Virtual servers can compress data between the BIG-IP and servers.
C.
Virtual servers cannot perform load balancing without performing address translation.
D.
Virtual servers can reuse connections between the BIG-IP and server for multiple HTTP GETs.
E.
Virtual server processing always translates the virtual server address to the address of the
chosen pool member.
D.
Virtual servers can reuse connections between the BIG-IP and server for multiple HTTP GETs.
295
Click the Exhibit Button an LTM has the 3 virtual servers, a SNAT defined, four self IP addresses
defined and the networks shown in the exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown
below. Settings not shown are at their defaults.
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.100.50:80 and a destination IP
and port of 10.10.2.10:80. When the request is processed, what will be the source and
destination IP addresses?
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
The request will be dropped.
B.
Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2010
C.
Source IP: 10.20.100.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
D.
Source IP: 10.10.2.1; Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
B.
Source IP: Either 172.16.20.50 or 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: 10.10.2010
296
A BIG-IP has the following objects configured: A SNAT pool with 2 members: (SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A virtual server at 150.10.30.30:80 that is associated with both the SNAT pool and the
load balancing pool. If a client at IP address 200.10.10.10 initiates a connection to the virtual
server, what will the source IP address be in the packets sent to the chosen pool
member?
A.
150.10.30.30
B.
150.10.33.33
C.
10.10.1.10
D.
It could be any of the addresses of the members of the load balancing pool.
E.
10.10.1.33
F.
200.10.10.10
E.
10.10.1.33
297
Which is a potential result when a trunk is configured on a BIG-IP?
A.
No additional trunks can be configuration since each BIG-IP is limited to one trunk
B.
Packets flowing to the VLAN could arrive on any of the interfaces in the trunk
C.
Since any VLANs associated with the trunk are necessarily associated with multiple interfaces,
the VLAN using the must use tagged packets.
D.
VLAN failsafe is not available for any VLAN associated with any trunks.
B.
Packets flowing to the VLAN could arrive on any of the interfaces in the trunk
298
Which two statements are true concerning capabilities of current BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.
The 1600 hosts more ports than the 3900.
B.
All current BIG-IP platform use both an ASIC. And CPU(s)to process traffic.
C.
All current BIG-IP platform can perform hardware compression.
D.
Only 2U BIG-IP Platform have an option of a second power supply.
E.
All BIG-IP have capacity to perform bulk encryption I decryption of SSL traffic independent of the CPU.
B.
All current BIG-IP platform use both an ASIC. And CPU(s)to process traffic.
E.
All BIG-IP have capacity to perform bulk encryption I decryption of SSL traffic independent of the CPU.
299
Which is the result when multiple monitors are assigned to a pool member?
A.
The member is marked available if sufficient monitors succeed, and as unavailable if insufficient
monitors succeed.
B.
The member is marked as available if any of the monitors succeed.
C.
The member is marked as unavailable if any of the monitors fails.
D.
The member is marked available if all monitors succeed, and as marginal if one or more monitors
fail(s).
A.
The member is marked available if sufficient monitors succeed, and as unavailable if insufficient
monitors succeed.
300
An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, four self IP addresses defined and the networks shown in the
exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at their
defaults.
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.100.50:2222 and a destination
IP and port of 10.10.2.102:80.
When the request is processed, what will be the destination IP address?
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
Destination IP: 10.10.2.102
B.
The request will be dropped.
C.
Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network
D.
Destination IP: pool member in the 172.16/16 network
C.
Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network
301
An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, a SNAT, four self IP addresses defined and the networks
shown in the exhibit. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at
their defaults.
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.100.50:2222 and a destination
IP and port of 10.10.2.102:80.
When the request is processed, what will be the destination IP address?
(SEE IMAGE IN THE ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
B.
Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network.
C.
Destination IP: pool member in the 172.16/16
network
D.
The request will be dropped.
A.
Destination IP: 10.10.2.10
302
A site wishes to use an external monitor. Other than what is coded in the monitor script, what
information must be configured on the BIG-IP for the monitor to be functional? (Choose two.)
A.
BIG-IP services that are running on the system to be tested.
B.
BIG-IP the IP addresses of the devices that will be tested. Must know which
C.
BIG-IP node or member the result are to be applied to. Must know all
D.
BIG-IP must know the name of the program.
E.
BIG-IP must know which function the program is going to test. Must know
C.
BIG-IP node or member the result are to be applied to. Must know all
D.
BIG-IP must know the name of the program.
302
Which statement describes advanced shell access correctly?
A.
Users with advanced shell access can always change, add, or delete LTM objects in all partition.
B.
Users with advance shell access are limited to changing, adding, or deleting LTM object in any
single partition.
C.
Users with advance shell access have the same right as those with mesh access, but right extend
to all partition rather than to a single partition.
D.
All Users can be given advanced shell access.
A.
Users with advanced shell access can always change, add, or delete LTM objects in all partition.
303
Which statement describes advanced shell access correctly? Which statement describes
advanced shell access correctly?
A.
The context determines the values of commands that vary between client and server.
B.
The context has no impact on events.
C.
The context determines which events are available for iRule processing.
D.
The context determines which pools are available for load balancing.
A.
The context determines the values of commands that vary between client and server.
304
An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, 2 SNATs, four self IP addresses defined and the networks
shown in the graphic below. Selected options for each object are shown below. Settings not
shown are at their defaults. Assume port exhaustion has not been reached.
(SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.10.50:2222 and a destination IP
and port of 10.10.2.102:80.
When the request is processed, what will be the source and destination IP addresses?
(SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
Source IP: 10.20.10.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 172.16/16 network
B.
Source IP: 172316.20.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 182.16/16 network
C.
Source IP: 192.168.1.1; Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network
D.
The request will be dropped.
E.
Source IP: 10.20.10.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16
network
F.
Source IP: 182.16.1.1; Destination IP: pool member in the 172316/16 network
G.
Source IP: 192.168.10.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network
H.
Source IP:192.168.10.50; Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168./16 network
F.
Source IP: 182.16.1.1; Destination IP: pool member in the 172316/16 network
305
The partial configuration below includes an iRule, a virtual server, and pools. When traffic from the client at 160.10.10.10:2056 connects to the virtual server Test_VS and sends an HTTP
request, what will the client's source address be translated to as the traffic is sent to the chosen
pool member?
(SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
160.10.10.IOC.160.10.10.10
B.
It could be either 10.10.10.10 or 10.10.10.11.E.It could be either 10.10.10.10 or 10.10.10.11.
C.
10.10.10.2
D.
200.10.10.1D.200.10.10.1
E.
10.10.10.1
E.
10.10.10.1
306
What is the expected difference between two source address persistence profiles if profile A has
a mask of 255.255.255.0 and profile B has a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A.
Profile A will have more clients matching existing persistence records.
B.
There are no detectable differences.
C.
Profile B has a greater potential number of persistence records.
D.
Profile B will have fewer persistence records for the sane client base.
D.
Profile B will have fewer persistence records for the sane client base.
307
A BIG-IP has two SNATs, a pool of DNS servers and a virtual server configured to load balance
UDP traffic to the DNS servers. One SNAT's address is 64.100.130.10; this SNAT is defined for
all addresses. The second SNAT's address is 64.100.130.20; this SNAT is defined for three
specific addresses, 172.16.3.54, 172.16.3.55, and 172.16.3.56. The virtual server's destination is
64.100.130.30:53. The SNATs and virtual server have default VLAN associations. If a client with
IP address 172.16.3.55 initiates a request to the virtual server, what is the source IP address of
the packet as it reaches the chosen DNS server?
A.
64.100.130.30
B.
172.16.3.55
C.
64.100.130.20
D.
64.100.130.10
C.
64.100.130.20
308
A, steaming profile will do which of the following?
A.
Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string only is responses processed by a virtual
server.
B.
Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string only in request processed by a virtual
server.
C.
Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string in requests and responses processed by
a virtual server.
D.
Search and replace the first occurrence of a specified of a specified string in either a request or
response processed by a virtual server.
C.
Search and replace all occurrences of a specified string in requests and responses processed by
a virtual server.
309
A monitor has been defined using the HTTP monitor template. The send and receive strings were
customized, but all other settings were left at their defaults. Which resources can the monitor be
assigned to?
A.
only specific pool members
B.
most virtual severs
C.
most nodes
D.
most pools
D.
most pools
310
When DNS_REV is used as the probe protocol by the GTM System, which information is
expected in the response from the probe?
A.
a reverse name lookup of the GTM System
B.
the list of root servers known by the local DNS
C.
the FQDN of the local DNS being probed for metric information
D.
the revision number of BIND running on the requesting DNS server
C.
the FQDN of the local DNS being probed for metric information
311
Which three can be a part of a pool's definition? (Choose three.)
A.
Link
B.
Monitors
C.
Wide IPs
D.
Persistence
E.
Data Centers
F.
Virtual Servers
B.
Monitors
D.
Persistence
F.
Virtual Servers
312
Which two must be included in a Wide-IP definition for the Wide-IP to resolve a DNS query?
(Choose two.)
A.
a name
B.
a monitor
C.
a load balancing method
D.
one or more virtual servers
A.
a name
C.
a load balancing method
313
A GTM System would like to ensure that a given LTM System is reachable and iQuery
communication is allowed prior to sending it client request. What would be the simplest monitor
template to use?
A.
TCP
B.
ICMP
C.
HTTP
D.
BIG-IP
E.
SNMP
D.
BIG-IP
314
Which two ports must be enabled to establish communication between GTM Systems and other
BIG IP Systems? (Choose two.)
A.
22
B.
53
C.
443
D.
4353
E.
4354
A.
22
D.
4353
315
When probing LDNSs, which protocol is used by default?
A.
TCP
B.
ICMP
C.
DNS_REV
D.
DNS_DOT
B.
ICMP
316
Which of the following platforms support both standalone and modular BIG-IP ASM
implementations? (Choose 2)
A.
3900
B.
6800
C.
6900
D.
8800
A.
3900
C.
6900
317
Use a proprietary syntax language. Must contain at least one event declaration. Must contain at
least one conditional statement. Must contain at least one pool assignment statement. What must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
A.
the system's dossier
B.
the system's base license
C.
the system's serial number
D.
the system's purchase order number
A.
the system's dossier
318
What is the difference between primary and secondary DNS servers?
A.
Only primary servers can issue authoritative responses.
B.
Primary servers host the original copy of the zone database file.
C.
Primary servers resolve names more efficiently than secondary servers.
D.
Secondary servers act as backups and will respond only if the primary fails.
B.
Primary servers host the original copy of the zone database file
319
If the config tool is complete, which two access methods are available by default for GTM administration and configuration? (Choose two.)
A.
network access via http
B.
network access via https
C.
network access via telnet
D.
direct access via serial port
B.
network access via https
D.
direct access via serial port
320
A GTM System performs a name resolution that is not a Wide-IP. The name is in a domain for
which the GTM System is authoritative. Where does the information come from?
A.
It comes from BIND database (zone) files on the GTM System.
B.
GTM System cannot resolve a host name that is not a Wide-IP.
C.
It comes from the database of previously cached
name resolutions.
D.
It comes from a zone transfer initiated when the request was received.
A.
It comes from BIND database (zone) files on the GTM System.
321
A site wishes to delegate the name .wmysite.com to a GTM System. Which entry would be
appropriate in their current DNS servers?
A.
vww.mysite.com. IN A 132.26.33.15
B.
15.33.addrin.arpa.com IN PRT .wiw.mysite.com.
C.
iw.mysite.com. IN CNAME wwip.mysite.com.
D.
wwmysite.com. IN DEL wiwGTM.mysite.com.
C.
iw.mysite.com. IN CNAME wwip.mysite.com.
322
Which statement about root DNS servers is true?
A.
Root servers have databases of all registered DNS servers.
B.
Root servers have databases of the DNS servers for top-level domains.
C.
Root servers have databases of DNS servers for each geographical area. They direct requests to
appropriate LDNS servers.
D.
Root servers have databases of commonly accessed sites. They also cache entries for additional
servers as requests are made.
B.
Root servers have databases of the DNS servers for top-level domains.
323
What is the advantage of specifying three load balancing methods when load balancing within
pools?
A.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System to use all three methods simultaneously.
B.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System to choose the optimal method for each name
resolution.
C.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System alternate methods if insufficient data is
available for other methods.
D.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System to rotate between the three methods so that no
one method is used too often.
C.
Specifying three methods allows the GTM System alternate methods if insufficient data is
available for other methods.
324
A pool is using Round Trip Time as its load balancing method (Alternate: Round Robin; Fallback:
None). The last five resolutions have been C, D, C, D, C. Given the current conditions shown in
the table below, which address will be used for the next resolution? (SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF)
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
B.
B
325
A pool is using Global Availability as its load balancing method (Alternate:Round Robin; Fallback:
Return to DNS). The last five resolutions have been C, D, C, D, C. Given the current conditions
shown in the table, which address will be used for the next resolution? (SEE IMAGE IN ORIGINAL PDF Q#325)
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
B.
B
326
What are some changes that must be made on the GTM System so that log messages are sent to centralized System Log servers?
A.
The IP address of the server must be added to the wideip.conf file.
B.
The IP address of the server must be added to the syslogng.conf file.
C.
The IP address of the server and valid user id/password combination must be added to the
hosts.allow file.
D.
The IP address of the server and valid user id/password combination must be added to the syslog
ng.conf file.
B.
The IP address of the server must be added to the syslogng.conf file.
327
What are two advantages of the Quality of Service (QoS) load balancing method? (Choose two.)
A.
It resolves requests to the site with the highest QoS value in the IP header.
B.
It combines multiple load balancing metric values in a single load balancing method.
C.
It allows the GTM administrator to place relative values on each metric used to determine the
optimum site.
D.
It allows the GTM System to select the optimum virtual server based on all available path and
server metrics.
B.
It combines multiple load balancing metric values in a single load balancing method.
C.
It allows the GTM administrator to place relative values on each metric used to determine the
optimum site.
328
When is a Virtual Server hosted by an LTM System defined with two IP addresses?
A.
Two addresses are used to define the Virtual Server when it is managed by redundant LTM
Systems.
B.
Two addresses are used to define some Virtual Servers so that the GTM System can choose the
better address when resolving the name.
C.
Two addresses are used to define Virtual Servers when the LTM System hosting it is behind a
firewall that is translating the Virtual Server address.
D.
Two addresses are used to define a Virtual Server when the Wide-IP should resolve to a different
address depending on which LTM System is active.
C.
Two addresses are used to define Virtual Servers when the LTM System hosting it is behind a
firewall that is translating the Virtual Server address.
329
What is a characteristic of iQuery?
A.
It uses SSH.
B.
It uses SSL.
C.
It uses SCP.
D.
It uses HTTPS.
B.
It uses SSL.
330
Listeners that correspond to nonfloating self IP addresses are stored in which configuration file?
A.
/config/BIG-IP.conf
B.
/config/BIG-IP_base.conf
C.
/config/gtm/wideip.conf
D.
/config/BIG-IP_local.conf
D.
/config/BIG-IP_local.conf
331
What is the primary benefit of associating Servers with Data Centers?
A.
The primary benefit is in assigning a single IP address to identify a
Data Center.
B.
The primary benefit is in combining probing metrics. Load balancing decisions can be made more
intelligently.
C.
The primary benefit is administrative. It is easier to remember to add servers when they are
categorized by a physical location.
D.
The primary benefit is in load balancing. Clients will not be directed to Data Centers that are
separated from them by great distances.
B.
The primary benefit is in combining probing metrics. Load balancing decisions can be made more
intelligently.
332
Which two are events that can be used to trigger GTM iRule data processing? (Choose two.)
A.
LB_FAILED
B.
DNS_REQUEST
C.
HTTP REQUEST
D.
CLIENT_ACCEPTED
A.
LB_FAILED
B.
DNS_REQUEST
333
How do you support non intelligent DNS resolution in an environment with GTM Systems and
standard DNS servers? (Choose two.)
A.
The GTM System must be a secondary server in all of your zones.
B.
Your GTM System must delegate some DNS names to the DNS Servers.
C.
Your DNS servers may delegate some DNS names to the GTM Systems.
D.
The GTM System may have a Listener set for your DNS server's address.
E.
The GTM System may have a Listener set for the GTM's loopback address.
C.
Your DNS servers may delegate some DNS names to the GTM Systems.
D.
The GTM System may have a Listener set for your DNS server's address.
334
iQuery is a proprietary protocol that distributes metrics gathered from which three sources?
(Choose three.)
A.
SNMP
B.
DNS root servers
C.
path probes such as ICMP
D.
monitors from LTM Systems
E.
monitors from Generic Host Servers
A.
SNMP
C.
path probes such as ICMP
D.
monitors from LTM Systems
335
What is the purpose of the GTM Systems Address Exclusion List concerning local DNS servers?
A.
to prevent probing of specific local DNSs
B.
to prevent name resolution to specific Virtual Servers
C.
to prevent name resolution for requests from specific local DNSs
D.
to prevent probing of any local DNS servers by specific F5 devices
A.
to prevent probing of specific local DNSs
336
Which three must be done so that Generic Host Servers can be monitored using SNMP?
(Choose three.)
A.
The SNMP monitor must be added to all BIG-IP Systems.
B.
The Generic Host Server must be running the big3d agent.
C.
The GTM System must be configured for the appropriate MIB.
D.
The Generic Host Server must be added to the GTM Configuration.
E.
The Generic Host Server must be enabled to answer SNMP queries.
C.
The GTM System must be configured for the appropriate MIB.
D.
The Generic Host Server must be added to the GTM Configuration.
E.
The Generic Host Server must be enabled to answer SNMP queries.
337
Monitors can be assigned to which three resources? (Choose three.)
A.
Pools
B.
Servers
C.
Wide-IPs
D.
Data Centers
E.
Pool Members
A.
Pools
B.
Servers
E.
Pool Members
338
What will likely happen if you were to define a LTM System in the wrong Data Center?
A.
There would be no effect if the LTM System is defined in the wrong Data Center.
B.
The GTM System would not be able to communicate with that LTM System.
C.
Data from probes from that LTM System might result in inaccurate path metrics and load
balancing decisions.
D.
The GTM System would not be able to resolve Wide-IPs to the addresses associated with that
LTM System's Virtual Servers.
C.
Data from probes from that LTM System might result in inaccurate path metrics and load
balancing decisions.
339
When initially configuring the GTM System using the config tool, which two parameters can be
set? (Choose two.)
A.
System hostname
B.
IP Address of management port
C.
IP Address of the external VLAN
D.
Default route for management port
E.
Port lockdown of management port
B.
IP Address of management port
D.
Default route for management port
340
Without creating a user defined region, what is the most specific group a topology record can
identify?
A.
city
B.
country
C.
continent
D.
state/province
E.
region of country
D.
state/province
341
The SNMP monitor can collect data based on which three metrics? (Choose three.)
A.
packet rate
B.
memory utilization
C.
content verification
D.
current connections
E.
hops along the network path
A.
packet rate
B.
memory utilization
D.
current connections
342
Which facility logs messages concerning GTM System parameters?
A.
local0
B.
local1
C.
local2
D.
local3
C.
local2
343
When users are created, which three access levels can be granted through the GTM Configuration
Utility? (Choose three.)
A.
Root
B.
Guest
C.
Operator
D.
Administrator
E.
CLI + Web Read Only
B.
Guest
C.
Operator
D.
Administrator
344
The BIG-IP ASM System is configured with a virtual server that contains an HTTP class profile
and the protected pool members are associated within the HTTP class profile pool definition. The
status of this virtual server is unknown (Blue). Which of the following conditions will make this
virtual server become available (Green)?
A.
Assign a successful monitor to the virtual server
B.
Assign a successful monitor to the members of the HTTP class profile pool
C.
Associate a fallback host to the virtual server and assign a successful monitor to the fallback host
D.
Associate a default pool to the virtual server and assign a successful monitor to the pool members
D.
Associate a default pool to the virtual server and assign a successful monitor to the pool members
345
Which of the following does not pertain to protecting the Requested Resource (URI) element?
A.
File type validation
B.
URL name validation
C.
Domain cookie validation
D.
Attack signature validation
C.
Domain cookie validation
346
Which of the following protocol protections is not provided by the Protocol Security Manager?
A.
FTP
B.
SSH
C.
HTTP
D.
SMTP
B.
SSH
347
Which of the following is correct regarding User-defined Attack signatures?
A.
User-defined signatures use an F5-supplied syntax
B.
User-defined signatures may only use regular expressions
C.
Attack signatures may be grouped within system-supplied signatures
D.
User-defined signatures may not be applied globally within the entire policy
A.
User-defined signatures use an F5-supplied syntax
348
Which of the following methods of protection is not available within the Protocol Security Manager
for HTTP traffic?
A.
Data guard
B.
Attack signatures
C.
Evasion techniques
D.
File type enforcement
B.
Attack signatures
349
There are many user roles configurable on the BIG-IP ASM System. Which of the following user
roles have access to make changes to ASM policies? (Choose three.)
A.
Guest
B.
Operator
C.
Administrator
D.
Web Application Security Editor
E.
Web Application Security Administrator
C.
Administrator
D.
Web Application Security Editor
E.
Web Application Security Administrator
350
Which of the following statements are correct regarding positive and negative security models?
(Choose two.)
A.
Positive security model allows all transactions by default.
B.
Negative security model denies all transactions by default.
C.
Negative security model allows all transactions by default and rejects only transactions that
contain attacks.
D.
Positive security mode l denies all transactions by default and uses rules that allow only those
transactions that are considered safe and valid.
C.
Negative security model allows all transactions by default and rejects only transactions that
contain attacks.
D.
Positive security mode l denies all transactions by default and uses rules that allow only those
transactions that are considered safe and valid.
351
Which events are valid iRule events triggered by BIG-IP ASM processing? (Choose two.)
A.
ASM_REQUEST_BLOCKING
B.
ASM_REQUEST_ACCEPTED
C.
ASM_REQUEST_VIOLATION
D.
ASM_RESPONSE_BLOCKING
A.
ASM_REQUEST_BLOCKING
C.
ASM_REQUEST_VIOLATION
352
Which of the following methods of protection is not available within the Protocol Security Manager
for FTP protection?
A.
Session timeout
B.
Command length
C.
Allowed commands
D.
Anonymous FTP restriction
A.
Session timeout
353
Logging profiles are assigned to?
A.
HTTP class
B.
Security policies
C.
Web applications
D.
Attack signatures
C.
Web applications
354
Which of the following is a language used for content provided by a web server to a web client?
A.
FTP
B.
TCP
C.
HTTP
D.
HTML
D.
HTML
355
Which of the following methods are used by the BIG-IP ASM System to protect against SQL
injections?
A.
HTTP RFC compliancy checks
B.
Metacharacter enforcement and attack signatures
C.
HTTP RFC compliancy checks and length restrictions
D.
Response scrubbing, HTTP RFC compliancy checks, and metacharacter enforcement
B.
Metacharacter enforcement and attack signatures
356
Which of the following can be associated with an XML profile?
A.
Flow
B.
Method
C.
Parameter
D.
File type
C.
Parameter
357
An HTTP class is available
A.
on any BIG-IP LTM system
B.
only when ASM is licensed.
C.
only when ASM or WA are licensed.
D.
only when a specific license key is required.
A.
on any BIG-IP LTM system
358
Which of the following methods of protection operates on server responses?
A.
Dynamic parameter protection
B.
Response code validation and response scrubbing
C.
Response code validation and HTTP method validation
D.
HTTP RFC compliancy check and metacharacter enforcement
B.
Response code validation and response scrubbing
359
Which of the following is not a configurable parameter data type?
A.
Email
B.
Array
C.
Binary
D.
Decimal
B.
Array
360
When we have a * wildcard entity configured in the File Type section with tightening enabled, the
following may occur when requests are passed through the policy. Which is the most accurate
statement?
A.
File type violations will not be triggered.
B.
File type violations will be triggered and learning will be available based on these violations.
C.
File type entities will automatically be added to the policy (policy will tighten).
D.
File type violations will not be triggered and the entity learning section will be populated with file
type recommendations.
B.
File type violations will be triggered and learning will be available based on these violations.
361
A request is sent to the BIG-IP ASM System that generates a Length error violation. Which of the
following length types provides a valid learning suggestion? (Choose three.)
A.
URL
B.
Cookie
C.
Response
D.
POST data
E.
Query string
A.
URL
D.
POST data
E.
Query string
362
There are multiple HTTP class profiles assigned to a virtual server. Each profile has Application
Security enabled. Which statement is true?
A.
Traffic will process through every HTTP class profile every time.
B.
Traffic will process through the first HTTP class profile that it matches and then stops.
C.
Traffic will process through one HTTP class profile and if the traffic matches another profile, BIGIP System will send a redirect to the client.
D.
Traffic will only process through the HTTP class profile that it matches but always processes
through the whole list and will process through each HTTP class profile it matches.
B.
Traffic will process through the first HTTP class profile that it matches and then stops.
363
A security audit has determined that your web application is vulnerable to a cross site scripting
attack. Which of the following measures are appropriate when building a security policy? (Choose
two.)
A.
Cookie length must be restricted to 1024 bytes.
B.
Attack signature sets must be applied to any user input parameters.
C.
Parameter data entered for explicit objects must be checked for minimum and maximum values.
D.
Parameter data entered for flow level parameters must allow some metacharacters but not
others.
B.
Attack signature sets must be applied to any user input parameters.
D.
Parameter data entered for flow level parameters must allow some metacharacters but not
others.
364
The BIG-IP ASM System sets two types of cookies to enforce elements in the security policy. The
two types are main and frame cookies. What is the purpose of the frame cookie? (Choose two.)
A.
Validates domain cookies
B.
Detects session expiration
C.
Stores dynamic parameters and values
D.
Handles dynamic parameter names and flow extractions
C.
Stores dynamic parameters and values
D.
Handles dynamic parameter names and flow extractions
365
Which statement is correct concerning differences between BIG-IP ASM platforms?
A.
The 3900 has more ports than the 6800.
B.
The 3900 and 6800 have the same number of ports.
C.
The 3900 and 6800 can support both the module and standalone versions of BIG-IP ASM.
D.
The 3900 can support both module and standalone versions of BIG-IP ASM whereas the 6800 can
support only the module version of BIG-IP ASM.
D.
The 3900 can support both module and standalone versions of BIG-IP ASM whereas the 6800 can
support only the module version of BIG-IP ASM.
366
Which of the following mitigation techniques is based on anomaly detection? (Choose two)
A.
Brute force attack prevention
B.
Cross site request forgery prevention
C.
Web scraping attack prevention
D.
Parameter tampering prevention
A.
Brute force attack prevention
C.
Web scraping attack prevention
367
Which of the following are default settings when using the Policy Builder to build a security policy
based on the QA lab deployment scenario? (Choose two.)
A.
All learned entities are placed in staging.
B.
Attack signatures are not placed in staging
C.
The security policy is placed in blocking mode
D.
Tightening is enabled only on file types and parameters.
B.
Attack signatures are not placed in staging
C.
The security policy is placed in blocking mode
