acute D+ Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

Describe the transmission of canine parvovirus

A

faecal-oral
3-6 days incubation
virus stable in environment for years

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2
Q

what does parvovirus affect in the body

A

infects rapidly dividing cells
gut, bone marrow, lymphoid tissue

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2
Q

List the clinical signs of canine parvovirus

A

V+
haemorrhagic d+
rapid dehydration
depressed anorexic pyrexic
ileus
panleucopaenia

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2
Q

describe how to diagnose canine parvovirus

A

signalment and clinical signs
faecal analysis - snap test
haem and bio- panleukopenia

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3
Q

Describe how to manage a canine parvovirus case

A

Isolate
fluid therapy
antibiotics - broad spec
anti-emetics
pro-motility meds
antacid drugs and ulcer coating meds

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4
Q

what causes Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis

A

mostly idiopathic
small breed dogs usually

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5
Q

how does Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis tend to present

A

v+ may have blood in it
foetid D+
depression , anorexia

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6
Q

describe how to treat coronavirus in dog

A

if severe= supportive IVFT and nutritional support for GI tract

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7
Q

T/F you should treat bacteria when you find them in faecal sample

A

False- make sure to correlate the bacteria with the clinical signs
A lot of commensals present

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8
Q

when do we tend to see campylobacter in dog

A

in young, immunocompromised animals or those with additional infectious agents (giardia, parvo ect)

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9
Q

Describe the clinical signs of campylobacter in dogs

A

acute enterocolitis
d+ +/- blood/mucus
Vomiting
Straining – large intestinal “type” d+
Fever, abdominal pain

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10
Q

describe how to diagnose campylobacter in dogs

A

faecal stain/culture
PCR

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11
Q

what dogs does salmonella tend to affect

A

young
immunocompromised
animals with concurrent infections

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12
Q

what are the 4 possible scenarios after salmonella infection

A

Transient asymptomatic diarrhoea
Acute Gastroenteritis
Carrier state
Bacteraemia

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13
Q

Describe the clinical signs of salmonella

A

haemorrhagic diarrhoea, pyrexia and sepsis

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14
Q

which dogs are mostly likely to be affected by ascarids

A

puppies
adults have low burdens and worm migration patterns are different

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15
Q

list the signs seen with ascarids

A

failure to gain weight
pot bellied appearance
V+ SI D+
obstruction of GIT if large burdens

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16
Q

describe how to treat coccidian

A

mild disease is self-limiting - if not treat with sulphonamides
treat underlying disease

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17
Q

describe how to treat crypto in dogs

A

Dietary manipulation and neutraceuticals
Antibiotics of limited benefit – tylosin, azithromycin and paromomycin

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18
Q

Describe how to treat giardia

A

Fenbendazole and metronidazole

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19
Q

describe how to diagnose giardia

A

faecal smear evaluation
SNAP test
immunofluorescence assay

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20
Q

is Tritrichomonas foetus more likely to affect dogs or cats

A

cats

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21
Q

describe how to diagnose Tritrichomonas foetus

A

microscopy, culture or PCR

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22
Q

describe how to treat Tritrichomonas foetus

A

ronidazole
need to also affect environment- GIT health

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23
What metabolic disease can cause acute diarrhoea?
Hypoadrenocorticism
24
What anatomic disease can cause acute diarrhoea?
Intussusception FB
25
T/F Mixed infections as the cause of acute diarrhoea carry worse CS and disease
True
26
What viruses can cause acute diarrhoea?
Parvo Corona Adeno Rotavirus
27
What bacteria can cause acute diarrhoea?
Salmonella Campylobacter E.coli Clostridium (perfringens and difficile) S
28
What protozoa can cause acute diarrhoea?
Giardia Tritrichomonas
29
What does HGE diarrhoea look like?
Brown water
30
How are HGE cases managed?
Fluid therapy Antimicrobial Colloid/plasma/whole blood
31
What does four quadrant antimicrobial cover mean?
Gram-positive Gram-negative Aerobes Anaerobes
32
T/F Feline parvo is transmitted, diagnosed and treated in the same way as canine parvo
True
33
What organ does dog coronavirus mainly impact?
small intestine
34
T/F Campylobacter is a commensal in dogs
True
35
What type of diet increases the chance of Salmonella infection?
raw
36
What type of clostridia are normal commensals?
C.perfrigens C.difficile
37
T/F E.coli is not a normal commensal and faecal isolate
False it is
38
What protozoa should you always test for in progressive diarrhoea?
Giardia
39
How is giardia transmitted?
Faeco-oral
40
What protozoal parasite is strictly large intestine?
Tritrichomonas
41
What is the benefit of adsorbants in acute diarrhoea cases?
Absorb toxins Bind water Coat or protect mucosa Bind flora
42
What is the function of peridale granules?
Increases the bulk of intestinal contents Promotes peristalsis Easy passage of soft stool
43
What are the indications for the use of peridale granules?
Management of infected anal sacs Control of stool consistency following surgery Constipation
44
What is the most common example of a combined pre and probiotics product?
Prokolin
45
What are the two types of antimotility drugs?
Opiates Spasmolytics
46
What opiate is most commonly used as an anti-motility?
Loperamid / morphine
47
What does using morphine lead to in the acute diarrhoea case?
constipation
48
What species of animal should opiates as an anti-motility drug not be used in?
cat
49
T/F Prokinetics are rarely indicated in acute diarrhoea
true
50
What are examples of prokinetics?
Metoclopramide Erythromycin Ranitidine Lidocaine
51
On haematology, what is the most common reason for polycythaemia?
dehydration
52
How to treat clostridia infections
metronidazole
53
does the presence of a pathogenic bacteria on faecal culture confirm bacterial enteritis
No
54
when do we treat salmonella or campylobacter infections
if severe sepsis is present and we have cultured the faeces
55
How to diagnose parsites
faceal exam
56
how to diagnose cryptosporidium infections
faecal smear immonflouresence assay PCR
57
define prebiotics
selevite substrate used by beneficial species that can alter the intestinal flora
58
define probiotics
living organisms that exert benefit beyond nutrition
59
indications for antimicrobial use
helicobacter infectious diarrhoea loss of GI mucosal integrity neutropaenia/immunosuppression