acute D+ Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the transmission of canine parvovirus

A

faecal-oral
3-6 days incubation
virus stable in environment for years

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2
Q

what does parvovirus affect in the body

A

infects rapidly dividing cells
gut, bone marrow, lymphoid tissue

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2
Q

List the clinical signs of canine parvovirus

A

V+
haemorrhagic d+
rapid dehydration
depressed anorexic pyrexic
ileus
panleucopaenia

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2
Q

describe how to diagnose canine parvovirus

A

signalment and clinical signs
faecal analysis - snap test
haem and bio- panleukopenia

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3
Q

Describe how to manage a canine parvovirus case

A

Isolate
fluid therapy
antibiotics - broad spec
anti-emetics
pro-motility meds
antacid drugs and ulcer coating meds

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4
Q

what causes Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis

A

mostly idiopathic
small breed dogs usually

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5
Q

how does Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis tend to present

A

v+ may have blood in it
foetid D+
depression , anorexia

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6
Q

describe how to treat coronavirus in dog

A

if severe= supportive IVFT and nutritional support for GI tract

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7
Q

T/F you should treat bacteria when you find them in faecal sample

A

False- make sure to correlate the bacteria with the clinical signs
A lot of commensals present

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8
Q

when do we tend to see campylobacter in dog

A

in young, immunocompromised animals or those with additional infectious agents (giardia, parvo ect)

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9
Q

Describe the clinical signs of campylobacter in dogs

A

acute enterocolitis
d+ +/- blood/mucus
Vomiting
Straining – large intestinal “type” d+
Fever, abdominal pain

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10
Q

describe how to diagnose campylobacter in dogs

A

faecal stain/culture
PCR

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11
Q

what dogs does salmonella tend to affect

A

young
immunocompromised
animals with concurrent infections

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12
Q

what are the 4 possible scenarios after salmonella infection

A

Transient asymptomatic diarrhoea
Acute Gastroenteritis
Carrier state
Bacteraemia

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13
Q

Describe the clinical signs of salmonella

A

haemorrhagic diarrhoea, pyrexia and sepsis

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14
Q

which dogs are mostly likely to be affected by ascarids

A

puppies
adults have low burdens and worm migration patterns are different

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15
Q

list the signs seen with ascarids

A

failure to gain weight
pot bellied appearance
V+ SI D+
obstruction of GIT if large burdens

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16
Q

describe how to treat coccidian

A

mild disease is self-limiting - if not treat with sulphonamides
treat underlying disease

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17
Q

describe how to treat crypto in dogs

A

Dietary manipulation and neutraceuticals
Antibiotics of limited benefit – tylosin, azithromycin and paromomycin

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18
Q

Describe how to treat giardia

A

Fenbendazole and metronidazole

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19
Q

describe how to diagnose giardia

A

faecal smear evaluation
SNAP test
immunofluorescence assay

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20
Q

is Tritrichomonas foetus more likely to affect dogs or cats

A

cats

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21
Q

describe how to diagnose Tritrichomonas foetus

A

microscopy, culture or PCR

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22
Q

describe how to treat Tritrichomonas foetus

A

ronidazole
need to also affect environment- GIT health

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23
Q

What metabolic disease can cause acute diarrhoea?

A

Hypoadrenocorticism

24
Q

What anatomic disease can cause acute diarrhoea?

A

Intussusception
FB

25
Q

T/F Mixed infections as the cause of acute diarrhoea carry worse CS and disease

A

True

26
Q

What viruses can cause acute diarrhoea?

A

Parvo
Corona
Adeno
Rotavirus

27
Q

What bacteria can cause acute diarrhoea?

A

Salmonella
Campylobacter
E.coli
Clostridium (perfringens and difficile)
S

28
Q

What protozoa can cause acute diarrhoea?

A

Giardia
Tritrichomonas

29
Q

What does HGE diarrhoea look like?

A

Brown water

30
Q

How are HGE cases managed?

A

Fluid therapy
Antimicrobial
Colloid/plasma/whole blood

31
Q

What does four quadrant antimicrobial cover mean?

A

Gram-positive
Gram-negative
Aerobes
Anaerobes

32
Q

T/F Feline parvo is transmitted, diagnosed and treated in the same way as canine parvo

A

True

33
Q

What organ does dog coronavirus mainly impact?

A

small intestine

34
Q

T/F Campylobacter is a commensal in dogs

A

True

35
Q

What type of diet increases the chance of Salmonella infection?

A

raw

36
Q

What type of clostridia are normal commensals?

A

C.perfrigens
C.difficile

37
Q

T/F E.coli is not a normal commensal and faecal isolate

A

False it is

38
Q

What protozoa should you always test for in progressive diarrhoea?

A

Giardia

39
Q

How is giardia transmitted?

A

Faeco-oral

40
Q

What protozoal parasite is strictly large intestine?

A

Tritrichomonas

41
Q

What is the benefit of adsorbants in acute diarrhoea cases?

A

Absorb toxins
Bind water
Coat or protect mucosa
Bind flora

42
Q

What is the function of peridale granules?

A

Increases the bulk of intestinal contents
Promotes peristalsis
Easy passage of soft stool

43
Q

What are the indications for the use of peridale granules?

A

Management of infected anal sacs
Control of stool consistency following surgery
Constipation

44
Q

What is the most common example of a combined pre and probiotics product?

A

Prokolin

45
Q

What are the two types of antimotility drugs?

A

Opiates
Spasmolytics

46
Q

What opiate is most commonly used as an anti-motility?

A

Loperamid / morphine

47
Q

What does using morphine lead to in the acute diarrhoea case?

A

constipation

48
Q

What species of animal should opiates as an anti-motility drug not be used in?

A

cat

49
Q

T/F Prokinetics are rarely indicated in acute diarrhoea

A

true

50
Q

What are examples of prokinetics?

A

Metoclopramide
Erythromycin
Ranitidine
Lidocaine

51
Q

On haematology, what is the most common reason for polycythaemia?

A

dehydration

52
Q

How to treat clostridia infections

A

metronidazole

53
Q

does the presence of a pathogenic bacteria on faecal culture confirm bacterial enteritis

A

No

54
Q

when do we treat salmonella or campylobacter infections

A

if severe sepsis is present and we have cultured the faeces

55
Q

How to diagnose parsites

A

faceal exam

56
Q

how to diagnose cryptosporidium infections

A

faecal smear
immonflouresence assay
PCR

57
Q

define prebiotics

A

selevite substrate used by beneficial species that can alter the intestinal flora

58
Q

define probiotics

A

living organisms that exert benefit beyond nutrition

59
Q

indications for antimicrobial use

A

helicobacter
infectious diarrhoea
loss of GI mucosal integrity
neutropaenia/immunosuppression