AD2SUP Flashcards
(98 cards)
1
Q
What are the vertical limits of the TMA?
A
SFC - 5000.
2
Q
What are the separation requirements for civil CTA boundaries?
A
1.5NM (unless operating within Gnangara Release or PEA CIRA) and 500ft below any steps.
3
Q
Where is the Visual Manoeuvring Area (VMA)?
A
The area between the PEA CIRA and Gnangara Release.
4
Q
What are the lateral and vertical limits of PEA CIRA?
A
5NM radius of Pearce ARP within R155A.
SFC - 3500ft.
5
Q
What restrictions apply when flying along the Eastern side of PEA CIRA?
A
NA 1500ft East of the Great Northern Highway and South of the top of Bullsbrook to avoid R153A.
NA 3000ft East of the Great Northern Highway and North of the top of Bullsbrook to avoid R153B.
6
Q
At what height can an aircraft position itself South of Maralla Road when within the PEA CIRA? How far South can it go?
A
NA 1000ft.
No further South than in line with Mt Mambup.
7
Q
What are the lateral and vertical limits of GIGN CIRA?
A
5NM radius of Gingin ARP excluding anything within 12TAC PEA.
SFC - 3500ft.
8
Q
What are the vertical limits for PTA A27?
A
A030 - A100.
9
Q
What are the vertical limits of PTA A (except A27)?
A
A050 - A120.
10
Q
What is the splay of each training area in PTA A?
A
24 degrees.
11
Q
What are the TAC boundaries of the inner and outer training areas for PTA A?
A
Inner: 15TAC to 30TAC
Outer: 30TAC to 45TAC
12
Q
What are the vertical limits of PTA B?
A
A050 to FL150.
13
Q
What are the vertical limits of PTA C?
A
A050 to FL150.
14
Q
What are the vertical limits of PTA D?
A
SFC - FL300.
15
Q
What are the vertical limits of PTA G?
A
SFC - FL300.
16
Q
What radial is the Wannamal Lane?
A
356R.
17
Q
What radial is the Alkimos Lane?
A
304R.
18
Q
What defines the Mullaloo Lane?
A
240R
233 - 248 Radials
12 - 40 TAC
19
Q
What are the vertical limits of the Merlo Release?
A
SFC - A040.
20
Q
What are the vertical limits of the Gnangara Release?
A
Operate SFC - 1000ft.
21
Q
What are visual references for the Gnangara Release?
A
- East of Gnangara Lake
- North of Gnagara Rd
- North and West of the West Swan Rd and Great Northern Highway
22
Q
What are the vertical limits of the OMA?
A
SFC - A050.
23
Q
What are the vertical limits of all LFAs except for the Outer LFA?
A
SFC - 2000ft.
Note: Outer LFA is SFC - 4000ft.
24
Q
What are the vertical limits of D197 (small arms range)?
A
SFC - 1500ft.
25
What are the vertical limits of the MFTA?
SFC - 5000ft.
26
What are the vertical limits of The Ammo Box (small arms range)?
SFC - 1500ft.
27
List the significant hazardous areas to avoid.
1. Gas pipeline venting stations at right initial RWY 18 and left initial RWY 36 - NB 500ft
2. Pinjar Gas Turbine Power Station (5NM South West of Gingin) - 1NM or 500ft
3. Cobbler Pool Mine (South Avon Valley) - 1NM or 1000ft
4. Anywhere along the Bunbury Natural Gas Pipeline - 1000ft
28
How many Special VFR aircraft are permitted in an LFA, GIGN CIRA and PEA CIRA?
LFA: 1
GIGN CIRA: 4
PEA CIRA: 2
29
What are the Pearce Specific Segregation Criteria (sighted)?
500ft vertically and 600m (2000ft) laterally.
30
What are the Pearce Specific Segregation Criteria (unsighted)?
500ft vertically and 2NM laterally.
31
What are the Pearce Specific Proximity Criteria?
1000ft vertically and 3NM laterally.
32
What areas have Class D VMC criteria applied?
PEA and GIGN CIRAs only. Everywhere else is Class C.
33
What additional restrictions are placed on a sub-area of PTA A activated as an IFR block if it is adjacent to another IFR block?
2NM reduction either side of a common arc.
2 degree reduction either side of a common radial.
Note: These restrictions must be observed even if VMC is encountered.
34
What should an aircraft squawk if it hasn't been assigned a code yet?
5000.
35
What should you do if you have received traffic information (proximate with another aircraft) but have not sighted the other aircraft?
A/N: Initiate deconfliction to ensure segregation (at least 500ft vertical separation) prior to being within 2NM.
C: Advise ATC "looking" until "traffic sighted".
36
What limits must be observed while conducting MLA?
1. Must remain within 3NM of the mean track.
2. Heading must not vary by more than 90 degrees.
3. Must not re-enter an airspace boundary already crossed.
4. MLA only applies to lateral movement.
37
What are the navigation tracking tolerances for Pearce CTA?
20NM either side of track.
20NM radius from turning points.
12 degrees either side of IFR track.
38
What communication procedures should be conducted before and while transiting the OLFA?
1. Broadcast intentions on the relevant FIS frequency.
| 2. Monitor PEA CENN.
39
What is the priority order for operations at PEA and GIGN?
1. Emergencies
2. Minimum Fuel.
3. OPS recoveries.
4. Departures w/ a roll time.
5. Testing flights (Tango).
6. Instrument landings.
7. Visual landings.
8. TnGs.
9. Departures.
10. Instrument overshoots/MAPs/TnGs.
40
When can you enter the ORP?
When issued the clearance "ENTER THE ORP" by ATC.
41
What is the spacing between runway edge lighting?
60m.
42
How many aircraft are allowed on the manoeuvring area during LVP with RV above 500m?
3.
43
How many aircraft are allowed on the manoeuvring area during LVP with RV at or below 500m?
1.
44
What are the additional fuel requirements if arrestor cable operations are in progress at Pearce?
30 minutes holding or an alternate.
45
How far away must an aircraft on final be for a line-up clearance to be issued?
At least 3NM with no traffic on base.
46
Unless cleared otherwise, what is the standard direction of turn when departing either CIRA?
Same as circuit direction. Consider requesting a non-standard turn direction if a confliction is likely.
47
How soon 'should' an aircraft turn after departing 18L to remain 1.5NM clear of Perth CTA steps?
3NM.
48
What are the VFR cruising levels?
East: Every odd thousand + 500ft
West: Every even thousand + 500ft
49
What are the standard IFR levels?
East: Every odd thousand
West: Every even thousand
50
What avenues of transit are available to get to the training area?
- SID
- VFR lane
- Over/under/around an occupied PTA
- Through an unoccupied PTA
- Radar vectors within TMA/OMA
51
Is it necessary to advise ATC when leveling off from a climb/descent inside the TMA/OMA?
Yes.
52
When do altitude restrictions end for aircraft transiting to a PTA?
Once fully established within the PTA and cleared silent/traffic.
53
When departing PEA for PTA A what altitude should an aircraft climb to?
Climb should be expedited to between A050 - A120 to minimise time spent in the TMA. Once established in this transit block, aircraft may manoeuvre vertically as required.
Note: Transit block is A050 - A100 for A27
54
When conducting a VSA, when can you enter the CIRA?
When on initial run-in.
55
What paths should be avoided during a VSA?
Instrument approach paths.
56
Who should you contact for an onwards clearance from Gingin when GIG TWR isn't manned (CTAF)?
Pearce Delivery.
57
List the visual approaches available.
- Initial
- Dead-side descending rejoin
- High-key, low-key, displaced key
- Straight-in
- Overhead
58
What are the lateral restrictions when rejoining via right initial 36?
Must remain North of Mt Mambup.
59
Can approval be requested to transit GIGN CIRA?
Yes.
60
What is the maximum climb altitude that can be requested for PFL positioning within R155AB?
FL150.
61
How far below the CTA steps in R153 must an aircraft remain?
500ft.
62
When must an aircraft auto-switch to tower?
- At 7NM en route to initial
- At 5NM or 3500ft for PFLs
- At 5NM for circuit leg rejoins
- As required for other approaches
63
How long before arriving overhead the IP must you achieve wings level, on track, on height and make the radio call?
30 seconds (7TAC).
64
What must you do if unable to pitch into the circuit?
Call "negative pitch" and turn away from the circuit and reposition for initial NA 1500ft.
65
What are the initial heights for 18L?
LI: 1500ft
SI: 1500ft
RI: 1000ft
66
What are the initial heights for 36R?
LI: 1000
RI: 1500
67
What is the initial height for 23?
1500ft
68
What is the initial height for 05?
1000ft
69
What is the initial height for 08?
1000ft
70
What is the initial height for 26?
1500ft
71
What's the difference between 'position for' and 'track to/direct'?
Tracking by any suitable route vs. tracking directly to the fix or facility.
72
What are 'instrument approach conditions' at PEA and GIGN?
BKN or OVC below 2500ft
or
Visibility < 5km
73
When should you cancel IFR when approaching the circuit area?
Preferably 4NM final but no later than upwind.
74
What are the circuit heights at PEA?
Normal: 1200
Low: 700
Glide: 2700
Note: +100 for GIGN
75
What is the minimum altitude for low-level circuits?
300ft AO by day.
Circling minima by night.
76
Within what distance must the crosswind turn be made?
1.5NM (2TAC)
77
When should the pitch 'normally' be made?
Before upwind threshold unless avoiding traffic.
Beyond 2NM call "on the pitch - long".
78
When is the base RT call to be made?
Abeam landing threshold.
79
What should you do if unable to complete base RT or visually identify preceding traffic and maintain seperation?
Go around from downwind.
80
What is the circuit saturation number? Can you still conduct a full stop if the circuit is saturated?
6.
Yes.
81
Which runway is used for night operations?
18L/36R.
82
What taxiway restrictions apply at night?
Taxiway Echo is not to be used.
83
What must you report when clear of the runway at night?
"Runway vacated" to TWR.
84
Can you start the base turn before R/T has been completed?
No. Go around if too late.
85
A full stop landing can be conducted to 18R/36L if required with a clearance. What additional taxi procedures apply?
Remain on TWR until specific clearance to cross 18L/36R is given and actioned.
86
Are S-turns (over extended base turn correction) permitted?
No.
87
Where can accurate QNH be requested from during GIG CTAF hours?
Pearce Approach #4.
88
What is the highest and lowest useable level for PTA A that can be granted by ATC?
SFC - FL150 providing operations do not penetrate CIRA or PRDs.
89
What is the process for changing airspace allocation airborne?
1. Remain in area.
2. Contact OPS.
3. Advise traffic frequency and await response.
4. Transit to new area.
5. Advise traffic frequency when established.
90
What is the standard direction for approaches to REM?
From the North.
91
When in an LFA, what restrictions apply near homes, livestock and open cut mines?
Not below 1000ft or 1NM laterally.
92
Where is the designated area for in-flight emergency handling, visual inspections and pre-meditated ejection?
MAWR.
Eject towards heading 340.
93
What should you do in the event of a comms failure on the ground?
Attract the attention of the tower then:
1. Look for a light signal from the tower for taxi instructions;
2. Wait for a lead vehicle; or
3. Shutdown
94
If comms is lost during IMC conditions, what procedure should be flown?
TACAN:
1. Track to IAF for an ILS/TAC approach for the last known duty runway at the last assigned level.
2. Conduct a sector entry and hold.
3. Descend as required to 3000ft in the holding pattern.
4. Conduct the approach while looking for the green light from tower.
5. Wait for additional green light for taxiing.
95
If comms is lost during VMC conditions, what is the procedure to be flown?
1. Rejoin via initial.
2. Rock wings (day) or flash landing light (night) on dead side.
3. Fly a normal circuit.
4. On base/final, look for green light from tower.
5a (Green light). Land.
5b (No green light). Go-around from base and fly past tower on dead side while rocking wings/flashing light.
6. Continue for a low level or normal circuit while look for green light on finals.
96
What do the following light signals mean:
Steady green
Steady red
Flashing red
Steady green: Gear appears fully down, land off the approach.
Steady red: Gear appears unsafe, go-around.
Flashing red: Runway is unsafe for landing, go-around.
97
What is the heading for MAWR from GIGN?
190.
98
Where is the 'hot breaks' area?
Taxiway D2, adjacent 18 windsock.
