Additional subjects for recurrent Flashcards
(225 cards)
1
Q
Limitations - Direct: What is the maximum operating altitude with flaps and/or slats extended?
A
20,000 feet
2
Q
Limitations - Direct: What is the severe turbulence air penetration airspeed below 25,000 feet?
A
290 knots
3
Q
Limitations - Direct: What is the severe turbulence air penetration airspeed at or above 25,000 feet?
A
310 knots or .84 Mach
4
Q
Limitations - Direct: What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?
A
15 kts
5
Q
Limitations - Direct: What is the demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -8 variant?
A
40 kts
6
Q
Limitations - Direct: What is the demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -9 variant?
A
33 kts
7
Q
Limitations - Direct: What is the minimum height for autopilot use after takeoff?
A
200 feet AGL
8
Q
Limitations - Direct: Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciation, what is the minimum autopilot use height?
A
135 feet AGL
9
Q
Limitations - Fill: Maximum operating altitude with flaps and/or slats extended is ___ feet.
A
__20,000 feet__
10
Q
Limitations - Fill: Severe turbulence air penetration airspeed below 25,000 feet is ___ knots.
A
__290 knots__
11
Q
Limitations - Fill: Severe turbulence air penetration airspeed at or above 25,000 feet is ___ knots or ___ Mach.
A
__310 knots__ and __.84 Mach__
12
Q
Limitations - Fill: Maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing is ___ kts.
A
__15 kts__
13
Q
Limitations - Fill: The demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -8 variant is ___ kts.
A
__40 kts__
14
Q
Limitations - Fill: The demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -9 variant is ___ kts.
A
__33 kts__
15
Q
Limitations - Fill: The minimum height for autopilot use after takeoff is ___ feet AGL.
A
__200 feet AGL__
16
Q
Limitations - Fill: Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciation, the minimum autopilot use height is ___ feet AGL.
A
__135 feet AGL__
17
Q
Limitations - MC: Which of the following is the maximum operating altitude with flaps/slats extended? (A) 14,000 ft, (B) 20,000 ft, (C) 25,000 ft, (D) 43,100 ft
A
Answer: B) 20,000 ft
18
Q
Limitations - MC: At or above 25,000 feet, what is the severe turbulence air penetration airspeed? (A) 290 knots, (B) 310 knots, (C) 330 knots, (D) 350 knots
A
Answer: B) 310 knots
19
Q
Limitations - MC: What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing? (A) 10 kts, (B) 12 kts, (C) 15 kts, (D) 18 kts
A
Answer: C) 15 kts
20
Q
Limitations - MC: For the -8 variant, what is the demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit? (A) 33 kts, (B) 37 kts, (C) 40 kts, (D) 45 kts
A
Answer: C) 40 kts
21
Q
Limitations - MC: For the -9 variant, what is the demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit? (A) 30 kts, (B) 33 kts, (C) 37 kts, (D) 40 kts
A
Answer: B) 33 kts
22
Q
Limitations - MC: What is the minimum height for autopilot use after takeoff? (A) 135 ft AGL, (B) 200 ft AGL, (C) 250 ft AGL, (D) 300 ft AGL
A
Answer: B) 200 ft AGL
23
Q
Limitations - MC: Without LAND 2/3 annunciation, what is the minimum autopilot use height? (A) 100 ft AGL, (B) 135 ft AGL, (C) 200 ft AGL, (D) 250 ft AGL
A
Answer: B) 135 ft AGL
24
Q
Limitations - MC: Which severe turbulence air penetration airspeed applies below 25,000 feet? (A) 290 knots, (B) 310 knots, (C) 280 knots, (D) 300 knots
A
Answer: A) 290 knots
25
Limitations - TF: True or False: The maximum operating altitude with flaps/slats extended is 20,000 feet.
True
26
Limitations - TF: True or False: The severe turbulence air penetration airspeed below 25,000 feet is 290 knots.
True
27
Limitations - TF: True or False: The severe turbulence air penetration airspeed at or above 25,000 feet is 310 knots or .84 Mach.
True
28
Limitations - TF: True or False: The maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing is 15 kts.
True
29
Limitations - TF: True or False: The demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -8 variant is 33 kts.
False
30
Limitations - TF: True or False: The demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -9 variant is 33 kts.
True
31
Limitations - TF: True or False: The minimum height for autopilot use after takeoff is 200 feet AGL.
True
32
Limitations - TF: True or False: Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciation, the minimum autopilot use height is 135 feet AGL.
True
33
Doors/Exits - Direct: What are the door wind limits for opening/closing and while open?
40 kts while opening/closing and 65 kts while open
34
Doors/Exits - Direct: What is the recommended procedure if a door fails to close properly?
Follow the emergency checklist in the QRH
35
Doors/Exits - Direct: Which exits are designated for emergency egress?
Overwing and main cabin doors
36
Doors/Exits - Direct: What should be done if a window fails its operational check?
Report it for maintenance per QRH
37
Doors/Exits - Direct: How often should door operational checks be performed?
Daily preflight inspection
38
Doors/Exits - Direct: What is the minimum illumination level for exit signs?
20 foot-candles
39
Doors/Exits - Direct: What additional check is performed on windows during preflight?
Ensure they are free of ice
40
Doors/Exits - Direct: What action is taken if a door does not close properly?
Initiate the abnormal door procedure per QRH
41
Doors/Exits - Fill: Door wind limits for opening/closing are ___ kts and while open are ___ kts.
__40 kts__ and __65 kts__
42
Doors/Exits - Fill: Emergency exit usage is limited to designated ___ exits.
__emergency__
43
Doors/Exits - Fill: If a door fails to close properly, pilots should refer to the ___ checklist.
__QRH__
44
Doors/Exits - Fill: Windows must be clear of ___ before operation.
__ice__
45
Doors/Exits - Fill: The designated emergency exits include the ___ and ___ doors.
__overwing__ and __main cabin__
46
Doors/Exits - Fill: Exit signs must have a minimum illumination of ___ foot-candles.
__20 foot-candles__
47
Doors/Exits - Fill: Door operational checks should be performed ___ per flight.
__daily__
48
Doors/Exits - Fill: If a window fails its operational check, it must be reported for ___.
__maintenance__
49
Doors/Exits - MC: What are the door wind limits for opening/closing? (A) 35 kts, (B) 40 kts, (C) 45 kts, (D) 50 kts
Answer: B) 40 kts
50
Doors/Exits - MC: What are the door wind limits for doors while open? (A) 60 kts, (B) 65 kts, (C) 70 kts, (D) 75 kts
Answer: B) 65 kts
51
Doors/Exits - MC: Which of the following is a designated emergency exit? (A) Overwing door, (B) Cargo door, (C) Lavatory door, (D) Cockpit door
Answer: A) Overwing door
52
Doors/Exits - MC: When a door fails to close properly, what checklist should be consulted? (A) ECAM, (B) QRH, (C) FCOM, (D) MEL
Answer: B) QRH
53
Doors/Exits - MC: How often should door operational checks be conducted? (A) Weekly, (B) Monthly, (C) Daily, (D) Per flight cycle
Answer: C) Daily
54
Doors/Exits - MC: Which element must be clear of ice before operation? (A) Doors, (B) Windows, (C) Both, (D) Neither
Answer: C) Both
55
Doors/Exits - MC: What is the minimum illumination level for exit signs? (A) 15 foot-candles, (B) 20 foot-candles, (C) 25 foot-candles, (D) 30 foot-candles
Answer: B) 20 foot-candles
56
Doors/Exits - MC: In the event of a window operational failure, what is the correct action? (A) Continue flight, (B) Report for maintenance, (C) Ignore it, (D) Open manually
Answer: B) Report for maintenance
57
Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: The door wind limit while opening/closing is 40 kts.
True
58
Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: The door wind limit while open is 70 kts.
False
59
Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: Emergency door operational checks are required daily.
True
60
Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: Only designated emergency exits should be used during an evacuation.
True
61
Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: If a door fails to close, the crew should refer to the MEL.
False
62
Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: Windows must be free of ice before operation.
True
63
Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: Exit signs require a minimum illumination of 20 foot-candles.
True
64
Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: If a window fails an operational check, it should be reported for maintenance.
True
65
HUD - Direct: What is the primary purpose of the HUD?
To provide pilots with critical flight information in their forward view.
66
HUD - Direct: Which flight parameters are displayed on the HUD?
Airspeed, altitude, attitude, and flight path.
67
HUD - Direct: What does the HUD symbology include?
Flight director cues, navigation data, and target information.
68
HUD - Direct: How is the HUD brightness typically adjusted?
Via a control knob in the cockpit.
69
HUD - Direct: What is the recommended HUD configuration for low visibility conditions?
Increased brightness and contrast.
70
HUD - Direct: At what flight phase is the HUD especially optimized?
Approach and landing.
71
HUD - Direct: What critical alert is displayed on the HUD during an emergency?
Master caution and warning alerts.
72
HUD - Direct: How does the HUD improve situational awareness?
By overlaying key flight data on the outside view.
73
HUD - Fill: The primary purpose of the HUD is to provide pilots with ___ flight information.
__critical__
74
HUD - Fill: The HUD displays parameters such as airspeed, altitude, ___, and flight path.
__attitude__
75
HUD - Fill: HUD symbology typically includes flight director cues, navigation data, and ___.
__target information__
76
HUD - Fill: HUD brightness is adjusted using a ___ in the cockpit.
__control knob__
77
HUD - Fill: For low visibility conditions, the HUD should have increased ___ and ___.
__brightness__ and __contrast__
78
HUD - Fill: The HUD is optimized for ___ and landing operations.
__approach__
79
HUD - Fill: During an emergency, the HUD displays master ___ alerts.
__caution__
80
HUD - Fill: The HUD improves situational awareness by overlaying key ___ on the outside view.
__flight data__
81
HUD - MC: What is the main function of the HUD? (A) Engine control, (B) Providing critical flight info, (C) Entertainment, (D) Cabin lighting
Answer: B) Providing critical flight info
82
HUD - MC: Which of the following is NOT typically shown on the HUD? (A) Airspeed, (B) Altitude, (C) Engine oil temperature, (D) Attitude
Answer: C) Engine oil temperature
83
HUD - MC: HUD brightness is adjusted using: (A) A touchscreen, (B) A control knob, (C) Voice command, (D) Automatic sensors
Answer: B) A control knob
84
HUD - MC: What additional information does the HUD display during an emergency? (A) Weather radar, (B) Master caution alerts, (C) Fuel quantity, (D) Cabin pressure
Answer: B) Master caution alerts
85
HUD - MC: The HUD enhances situational awareness by: (A) Blocking the view, (B) Overlaying flight data on the outside view, (C) Reducing workload, (D) None
Answer: B) Overlaying flight data on the outside view
86
HUD - MC: The HUD is most beneficial during: (A) Cruise, (B) Takeoff, (C) Approach and landing, (D) Parking
Answer: C) Approach and landing
87
HUD - MC: Which parameter is not displayed on the HUD? (A) Flight path, (B) Navigation data, (C) Cabin altitude, (D) Airspeed
Answer: C) Cabin altitude
88
HUD - MC: In low visibility, the HUD settings should be adjusted to: (A) Decrease brightness, (B) Increase contrast, (C) Disable symbology, (D) None
Answer: B) Increase contrast
89
HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD overlays key flight data on the outside view.
True
90
HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD displays engine oil temperature as a primary parameter.
False
91
HUD - TF: True or False: Adjusting the HUD brightness is done via a control knob in the cockpit.
True
92
HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD is primarily used to control the aircraft's engines.
False
93
HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD is optimized for approach and landing phases.
True
94
HUD - TF: True or False: In an emergency, the HUD does not display any alert information.
False
95
HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD can display flight director cues and navigation data simultaneously.
True
96
HUD - TF: True or False: Increasing HUD contrast is recommended in low visibility conditions.
True
97
Performance - Direct: What is the maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -8 variant?
502,500 lbs
98
Performance - Direct: What is the maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -9 variant?
561,500 lbs
99
Performance - Direct: What is the maximum landing weight for the 787 -8 variant?
380,000 lbs
100
Performance - Direct: What is the maximum landing weight for the 787 -9 variant?
425,000 lbs
101
Performance - Direct: What is the maximum operating altitude for the 787?
43,100 feet
102
Performance - Direct: What is the minimum runway length required for takeoff under standard conditions?
9,000 feet
103
Performance - Direct: What performance factors must be considered when calculating takeoff thrust?
Aircraft weight, temperature, and runway conditions
104
Performance - Direct: What is the purpose of the TPS in the 787?
To compute takeoff data including thrust settings and speeds
105
Performance - Fill: The maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -8 variant is ___ lbs.
__502,500 lbs__
106
Performance - Fill: The maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -9 variant is ___ lbs.
__561,500 lbs__
107
Performance - Fill: The maximum landing weight for the 787 -8 variant is ___ lbs.
__380,000 lbs__
108
Performance - Fill: The maximum landing weight for the 787 -9 variant is ___ lbs.
__425,000 lbs__
109
Performance - Fill: The maximum operating altitude for the 787 is ___ feet.
__43,100 feet__
110
Performance - Fill: The minimum runway length required under standard conditions is approximately ___ feet.
__9,000 feet__
111
Performance - Fill: Takeoff performance calculations consider aircraft weight, temperature, and ___ conditions.
__runway__
112
Performance - Fill: The TPS in the 787 is used to compute ___ data including thrust settings and speeds.
__takeoff__
113
Performance - MC: What is the maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -8 variant? (A) 502,500 lbs, (B) 503,500 lbs, (C) 561,500 lbs, (D) 561,000 lbs
Answer: A) 502,500 lbs
114
Performance - MC: What is the maximum landing weight for the 787 -9 variant? (A) 380,000 lbs, (B) 425,000 lbs, (C) 400,000 lbs, (D) 450,000 lbs
Answer: B) 425,000 lbs
115
Performance - MC: What is the maximum operating altitude for the 787? (A) 20,000 ft, (B) 35,000 ft, (C) 43,100 ft, (D) 50,000 ft
Answer: C) 43,100 ft
116
Performance - MC: Which factor is NOT used in takeoff performance calculations? (A) Aircraft weight, (B) Temperature, (C) Runway conditions, (D) Passenger count
Answer: D) Passenger count
117
Performance - MC: The TPS in the 787 is primarily used for: (A) Flight planning, (B) Takeoff performance computations, (C) In-flight navigation, (D) Landing gear control
Answer: B) Takeoff performance computations
118
Performance - MC: The minimum runway length under standard conditions is approximately: (A) 7,000 ft, (B) 8,000 ft, (C) 9,000 ft, (D) 10,000 ft
Answer: C) 9,000 ft
119
Performance - MC: Maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -9 variant is: (A) 502,500 lbs, (B) 561,500 lbs, (C) 561,000 lbs, (D) 570,000 lbs
Answer: B) 561,500 lbs
120
Performance - MC: The primary purpose of the TPS is to calculate: (A) Fuel consumption, (B) Thrust settings and speeds, (C) Flight deck display brightness, (D) Cabin pressure
Answer: B) Thrust settings and speeds
121
Performance - TF: True or False: The maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -8 variant is 502,500 lbs.
True
122
Performance - TF: True or False: The maximum landing weight for the 787 -9 variant is 380,000 lbs.
False
123
Performance - TF: True or False: The maximum operating altitude for the 787 is 43,100 feet.
True
124
Performance - TF: True or False: The TPS is used to compute takeoff data including thrust settings and speeds.
True
125
Performance - TF: True or False: Passenger count is a primary factor in takeoff performance calculations.
False
126
Performance - TF: True or False: The minimum runway length required under standard conditions is approximately 9,000 feet.
True
127
Performance - TF: True or False: Temperature is not considered in takeoff performance calculations.
False
128
Performance - TF: True or False: The maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -9 variant is 561,500 lbs.
True
129
Performance - TF: True or False: True or False: Temperature is not considered in takeoff performance calculations.
False
130
ECAM/QRH - Direct: What does ECAM stand for?
Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor
131
ECAM/QRH - Direct: What is the primary function of the QRH?
To provide quick reference procedures for abnormal and emergency situations
132
ECAM/QRH - Direct: How does the ECAM aid pilots during abnormal events?
It displays system status, alerts, and recommended procedures
133
ECAM/QRH - Direct: What does a typical QRH callout include?
Step-by-step actions to resolve an abnormal situation
134
ECAM/QRH - Direct: How often is the ECAM updated?
In real time
135
ECAM/QRH - Direct: In what scenarios is the QRH used?
During abnormal or emergency conditions
136
ECAM/QRH - Direct: What is one benefit of the ECAM in reducing pilot workload?
It automates system monitoring and provides clear alerts
137
ECAM/QRH - Direct: How is the QRH organized?
By system and type of abnormality
138
ECAM/QRH - Fill: ECAM stands for ___ ___ ___ ___.
__Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor__
139
ECAM/QRH - Fill: The primary function of the QRH is to provide ___ reference procedures.
__quick__
140
ECAM/QRH - Fill: The ECAM aids pilots by displaying system status, alerts, and ___.
__recommended procedures__
141
ECAM/QRH - Fill: A QRH callout typically includes ___-by-step actions.
__step__
142
ECAM/QRH - Fill: The ECAM updates in ___ time.
__real__
143
ECAM/QRH - Fill: The QRH is used during ___ or emergency conditions.
__abnormal__
144
ECAM/QRH - Fill: One benefit of the ECAM is reducing pilot ___.
__workload__
145
ECAM/QRH - Fill: The QRH is organized by system and type of ___.
__abnormality__
146
ECAM/QRH - MC: What does ECAM stand for? (A) Electronic Control and Monitoring, (B) Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor, (C) Engine Control and Alert Monitor, (D) Electronic Cabin Alert Monitor
Answer: B) Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor
147
ECAM/QRH - MC: What is the primary purpose of the QRH? (A) Flight planning, (B) Normal operations, (C) Abnormal and emergency procedures, (D) Entertainment
Answer: C) Abnormal and emergency procedures
148
ECAM/QRH - MC: The ECAM updates its information: (A) Every minute, (B) In real time, (C) Every 5 minutes, (D) At pilot's request
Answer: B) In real time
149
ECAM/QRH - MC: A typical QRH callout includes: (A) Flight route, (B) Step-by-step corrective actions, (C) Weather information, (D) Passenger announcements
Answer: B) Step-by-step corrective actions
150
ECAM/QRH - MC: The QRH is primarily used during: (A) Routine flight, (B) Abnormal or emergency conditions, (C) Taxi operations, (D) Pre-flight planning
Answer: B) Abnormal or emergency conditions
151
ECAM/QRH - MC: One major benefit of the ECAM is: (A) Reduced workload, (B) Increased fuel efficiency, (C) Improved entertainment, (D) Enhanced cabin comfort
Answer: A) Reduced workload
152
ECAM/QRH - MC: How is the QRH organized? (A) Alphabetically, (B) By flight phase, (C) By system and abnormality, (D) By manufacturer
Answer: C) By system and abnormality
153
ECAM/QRH - MC: Which system does the ECAM monitor? (A) Only engines, (B) All aircraft systems, (C) Only avionics, (D) Only hydraulics
Answer: B) All aircraft systems
154
ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: ECAM stands for Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor.
True
155
ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The QRH is used only for routine operations.
False
156
ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The ECAM updates its displays in real time.
True
157
ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: A QRH callout does not provide step-by-step procedures.
False
158
ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The ECAM helps reduce pilot workload by automating system monitoring.
True
159
ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The QRH is organized by aircraft system and type of abnormality.
True
160
ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The primary function of the QRH is to provide entertainment options.
False
161
ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The ECAM only monitors engine performance.
False
162
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What is the first action when a critical abnormal event occurs?
Follow the ECAM/QRH procedures immediately.
163
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What does the term "master caution" indicate?
A system alert requiring immediate pilot attention.
164
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What should be done if an emergency evacuation is initiated?
Follow the established emergency evacuation procedures.
165
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: How are engine fire warnings communicated?
Via ECAM alerts and aural warnings.
166
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What is the recommended response to a hydraulic system failure?
Consult the QRH and initiate emergency procedures.
167
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What does a "low fuel" warning indicate?
That fuel quantity is approaching the minimum required for safe flight.
168
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What is the typical procedure for a rapid decompression event?
Don oxygen masks and initiate an emergency descent.
169
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: How is a "gear unsafe" condition indicated?
Through specific ECAM messages and caution lights.
170
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: The first action in a critical abnormal event is to follow the ___/QRH procedures.
__ECAM__
171
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: The term "master caution" indicates a system ___ requiring immediate attention.
__alert__
172
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: In an emergency evacuation, crews must follow the established ___ procedures.
__evacuation__
173
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: Engine fire warnings are communicated via ECAM ___ and aural warnings.
__alerts__
174
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: In a hydraulic system failure, the recommended response is to consult the ___ and initiate emergency procedures.
__QRH__
175
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: A "low fuel" warning indicates that fuel quantity is approaching the ___ required for safe flight.
__minimum__
176
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: During a rapid decompression event, pilots must don ___ masks.
__oxygen__
177
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: A "gear unsafe" condition is indicated by ECAM messages and ___ lights.
__caution__
178
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: What is the first action when a critical abnormal event occurs? (A) Ignore it, (B) Follow the ECAM/QRH procedures, (C) Contact ATC, (D) Divert immediately
Answer: B) Follow the ECAM/QRH procedures
179
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: What does "master caution" signify? (A) Routine check, (B) Minor alert, (C) Critical alert, (D) Normal operation
Answer: C) Critical alert
180
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: Which action is correct during an emergency evacuation? (A) Remain seated, (B) Follow evacuation procedures, (C) Wait for instructions, (D) Secure all doors
Answer: B) Follow evacuation procedures
181
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: How are engine fire warnings typically communicated? (A) Visual only, (B) Aural only, (C) ECAM alerts and aural warnings, (D) Manual check
Answer: C) ECAM alerts and aural warnings
182
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: In the event of a hydraulic system failure, pilots should: (A) Continue operations, (B) Consult the QRH, (C) Increase thrust, (D) Lower flaps
Answer: B) Consult the QRH
183
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: A "low fuel" warning indicates: (A) Excess fuel, (B) Normal operation, (C) Approaching minimum fuel, (D) Fuel leak
Answer: C) Approaching minimum fuel
184
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: What is the typical procedure for rapid decompression? (A) Ignore, (B) Don oxygen masks and descend, (C) Climb, (D) Retract gear
Answer: B) Don oxygen masks and descend
185
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: A "gear unsafe" condition is indicated by: (A) ECAM messages, (B) Cabin announcements, (C) Engine data, (D) None
Answer: A) ECAM messages
186
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: The first action in a critical abnormal event is to follow the ECAM/QRH procedures.
True
187
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: "Master caution" indicates a minor alert.
False
188
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: During an emergency evacuation, established procedures must be followed.
True
189
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: Engine fire warnings are communicated only via visual ECAM alerts.
False
190
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: In a hydraulic failure, the QRH should be consulted immediately.
True
191
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: A "low fuel" warning means there is ample fuel for flight.
False
192
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: In rapid decompression, pilots are required to don oxygen masks.
True
193
Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: A "gear unsafe" condition is indicated by specific ECAM messages and caution lights.
True
194
Exterior Inspection - Direct: What is the purpose of the exterior inspection?
To verify aircraft integrity and identify any visible discrepancies.
195
Exterior Inspection - Direct: When is the exterior inspection typically performed?
Prior to flight during the preflight check.
196
Exterior Inspection - Direct: What areas are inspected during the exterior inspection?
Fuselage, wings, engines, landing gear, and control surfaces.
197
Exterior Inspection - Direct: What is a key focus during the exterior inspection?
Identifying damage, leaks, or foreign object debris.
198
Exterior Inspection - Direct: How should tire pressure be verified during the inspection?
By checking against the manufacturer's specifications.
199
Exterior Inspection - Direct: What is the significance of inspecting the pitot tubes?
To ensure they are clear and unobstructed for accurate airspeed readings.
200
Exterior Inspection - Direct: What should be done if a discrepancy is found during the exterior inspection?
It should be reported and corrected before flight.
201
Exterior Inspection - Direct: What is the recommended method for inspecting the aircraft's leading edges?
Visually check for damage and ice accumulation.
202
Exterior Inspection - Fill: The purpose of the exterior inspection is to verify aircraft ___ and identify discrepancies.
__integrity__
203
Exterior Inspection - Fill: The exterior inspection is typically performed ___ flight.
__prior to__
204
Exterior Inspection - Fill: Areas inspected include the fuselage, wings, engines, ___ gear, and control surfaces.
__landing__
205
Exterior Inspection - Fill: A key focus during inspection is identifying damage, leaks, or ___ object debris.
__foreign__
206
Exterior Inspection - Fill: Tire pressure should be checked against the manufacturer's ___.
__specifications__
207
Exterior Inspection - Fill: Inspecting the pitot tubes is important to ensure accurate ___ readings.
__airspeed__
208
Exterior Inspection - Fill: If a discrepancy is found, it should be ___ and corrected before flight.
__reported__
209
Exterior Inspection - Fill: The recommended method for inspecting the leading edges is to visually check for ___ and ice.
__damage__
210
Exterior Inspection - MC: What is the primary purpose of the exterior inspection? (A) Cabin cleaning, (B) Verifying aircraft integrity, (C) Fuel measurement, (D) Passenger briefing
Answer: B) Verifying aircraft integrity
211
Exterior Inspection - MC: When is the exterior inspection performed? (A) After landing, (B) During flight, (C) Prior to flight, (D) Post-flight
Answer: C) Prior to flight
212
Exterior Inspection - MC: Which of the following is not a focus area during the exterior inspection? (A) Fuselage, (B) Engines, (C) In-flight entertainment, (D) Landing gear
Answer: C) In-flight entertainment
213
Exterior Inspection - MC: What should be done if an issue is found during the exterior inspection? (A) Ignore it, (B) Report and correct it, (C) Log it for later, (D) Notify passengers
Answer: B) Report and correct it
214
Exterior Inspection - MC: Tire pressure is verified by comparing to: (A) The pilot's estimate, (B) Manufacturer's specifications, (C) Weather reports, (D) Previous flight logs
Answer: B) Manufacturer's specifications
215
Exterior Inspection - MC: The pitot tubes are inspected to ensure: (A) They are painted, (B) They are clear of obstructions, (C) They are warm, (D) They are shiny
Answer: B) They are clear of obstructions
216
Exterior Inspection - MC: What is a key focus during the inspection of the leading edges? (A) Paint color, (B) Damage and ice accumulation, (C) Passenger seating, (D) In-flight service
Answer: B) Damage and ice accumulation
217
Exterior Inspection - MC: Which area is not typically part of the exterior inspection? (A) Control surfaces, (B) Wings, (C) Fuselage, (D) Cockpit displays
Answer: D) Cockpit displays
218
Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: The exterior inspection is performed after the preflight check.
False
219
Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: Verifying aircraft integrity is the primary purpose of the exterior inspection.
True
220
Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: The exterior inspection includes checking the fuselage, wings, engines, and landing gear.
True
221
Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: Tire pressure should be checked against random values.
False
222
Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: Pitot tubes must be inspected to ensure they are unobstructed.
True
223
Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: If a discrepancy is found during the exterior inspection, it can be ignored.
False
224
Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: Visual inspection of the leading edges is recommended to check for damage and ice.
True
225
Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: The exterior inspection is only necessary for cargo flights.
False
