Adult Autopsy Flashcards
(131 cards)
1
Q
where it originated
A
in situ
2
Q
certain groupings of organs
A
en bloc
3
Q
everything together
A
en masse
4
Q
one by one
A
piecemeal
5
Q
autopsy technique where organs are removed piecemeal
A
Virchow
6
Q
autopsy technique where the thoracic, cervical, abdominal, and GU are removed as separate organ blocks, en bloc
A
Ghon
7
Q
autopsy technique where there is in situ dissection in part combined with en block removal (neck to rectum)
A
Rokitansky
8
Q
autopsy technique thoracic, cervical, abdominal and pelvic organs are removed en masse and subsequently dissected
A
Letulle
9
Q
typical amount of pericardial fluid
A
15-60 cc
10
Q
typical color of pericardial fluid
A
straw colored and clear
11
Q
most common site a blood culture is taken from in a hospital based autopsy
A
left atrium
12
Q
how long is a brain fixed for
A
3 weeks
13
Q
where is the stomach opened along
A
the greater curvature
14
Q
what should you always do with the lungs before perfusion
A
weigh them
15
Q
yellow stones in the gallbladder are most likely made of
A
cholesterol
16
Q
grey-white stones in the gallbladder are most likely made of
A
calcium carbonate
17
Q
black stones in the gallbladder are most likely made of
A
bilirubinate
18
Q
what should the seminiferous tubule parenchyma do if it is normal
A
string with ease
19
Q
to orient the eye, the temporal side has this anatomic landmark
A
inferior oblique muscle
20
Q
to orient the eye, the nasal side has this anatomic landmark
A
superior oblique tendon
21
Q
what stain gives adequate examination of Descement’s membrane, the lens capsule, and Bruch’s membrane
A
PAS (periodic-acid Schiff)
22
Q
most common cause of direct maternal death
A
thromboembolic disease
23
Q
common finding within the hepatobiliary system during a maternal autospy
A
fatty change
24
Q
postmortem purpura or petechial type hemorrhages
A
Tardieu spots
25
skin turns white when applying firm pressure within the first 12 hours
blanching
26
blood pooling in areas of dependency under the force of gravity, develops from 30 min to 2 hours, lasts 8-18 hours
livor mortis
27
localized, elevated, yellow-white areas that develop on the conjunctiva and cornea, mostly caused by solar damage and often bilateral
conjunctival pterygia
28
constellation of profound weakness, anorexia, anemia, wasting
cachexia
29
irregular pigmented areas
vitiligo
30
round to ovoid hyperpigmented macules often lying over nerve trunks; presence of six or more macules >1.5 cm in an adult indicated neurofibromatosis type I
cafe au lait spots
31
common red scaly patches that become vesicular and crusted that can be hyperpigmented or atrophic scarring
stasis dermatitis
32
chronic version with brawny indurations and a scaly irregular surface
lymphedema
33
marked erythema of the skin and swelling of subcutaneous tissues; microvascular vasodilation is largely maintained postmortem and is critical to guide the prosector to areas of inflammation
cellulitis
34
bruises
contusion
35
often seen in patients receiving long term corticosteroid therapy and in elderly people after minor trauma
ecchymoses
36
putrefaction of erythrocytes within superficial blood vessels that leads to the formation of greenish blue discoloration which is observable through the skin
marbling
37
can appear on the neck, groin, or axilla, associated with obesity, endocrine dysfunction, insulin resistance and sometimes malignancy
acanthosis nigricans
38
nail fungus, dermatophyte fungus
onychomycosis
39
soft nails with a spoon shaped dent due to a nutritional deficiency
koilonychia
40
nails that indicate heart or lung disorders
cyanotic or clubbing of the nails
41
nails with these are indicative of a systemic disease
splinter hemorrhages
42
deposition of phospholipid and cholesterol in the peripheral cornea in patients over the age of 60 which appears as a hazy white, grey, or blue opaque ring
arcus senilis
43
donation of these may cause periorbital bruising
eyes
44
donation of this often leaves wide, clean edged, even depth, rectangular abrasions
skin
45
what must you always do with a foley catheter
always point down, towards a sink
46
there should be only this in the dissection field at any time
a single blade
47
minimum PPE (3)
gloves, aprons, eyeprotection
48
For preliminary reports based on gross examination only,_____________ is
the recommended TAT.
two working days
49
if the patient has had a CABG, you want to know these three things
if the ostia are patent, the lumen is patent, and the lumen of the native vessel is patent
50
effusion that occurs due to tuberculosis, spread from empyema
exudative
51
effusion that occurs due to trauma, rupture of aneurysms, malignant effusion
hemorrhagic
52
effusion that occurs due to fluid accumulation caused by metastasis
malignant
53
pericarditis produced by non infectious inflammatory diseases such as a rheumatic fever, SLE, scleroderma, tumor, or uremia; or from an infection in tissues close to the pericardium that produces a sterile effusion
serous pericarditis
54
most frequent type of pericarditis and composed of serous fluid mixed with a fibrinous exudate
fibrinous and serofibrinous pericarditis
55
pericarditis that occurs when there is an invasion of the pericardial space by microbes
purulent or suppurative pericarditis
56
pericarditis with an exudate composed of blood mixed with a fibrinous or suppurative effusion most commonly caused by the spread of a malignant neoplasm to the pericardial space
hemorrhagic pericarditis
57
pericarditis that occurs when there is direct spread from tuberculous foci within the tracheobronchial nodes
caseous pericarditis
58
post myocardial infarction pericarditis
Dressler syndrome
59
myocardial inflammatory lesions that are pathognomonic for rheumatic fever
Aschoff bodies
60
filiform fibrous projection from the peak of a valve leaflet, can be seen in endocarditis
Lambl excresence
61
this stain is used to macroscopically differentiate ischemic vs non-ischemic areas of the myocardium
triphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC)
62
located between the atria and ventricular septum adjacent to the point where the tricuspid, aortic and mitral valve annuli meet
AV node
63
located along the lateral aspect of the junction between the superior vena cava and the right atrium
SA node
64
most common primary tumor of the heart
myxoma
65
where do majority of myxomas occur
left atrium
66
emphysema associated with an alpha1 -antitrypsin deficiency
panacinar emphysema
67
four stages of inflammatory response in lobar pneumonia
1.congestion
2. red hepatization
3. gray hepatization
4. resolution
68
most common bacterial etiologic agent
streptococcus pneumonia
69
bronchopneumonia type of spread
diffuse, patchy, spread out
70
dilated and tortuous submucosal veins produced by chronic portal hypertension
esophageal varices
71
where does 50% of esophageal carcinomas arise
middle 1/3
72
most common site of peptic ulcers
proximal duodenum
73
this ulcers occur due to shock, sepsis, or severe trauma
stress ulcer
74
duodenal ulcers associated with severe burns or trauma
curling ulcers
75
gastric duodenal and esophageal ulcers in those with intracranial disease
cushing ulcers
76
diaphragmatic grooves on the superior anterior surface of the right lobe on the liver
Leibermeister grooves
77
accumulation of iron resulting in a rusty brown liver
hemochromatosis
78
a yellow orange cast to the liver parenchyma and the tissue is also greasy
hepatic steatosis
79
liver becomes green and accentuated after fixation
hepatic cholestasis
80
this form of cirrhosis is typically seen in cases of viral hepatitis, drug induced, and hereditary diseases, >0.3cm
Macronodular cirrhosis
81
this form of cirrhosis is typically due to alcoholic liver disease, nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, hemochromatosis, primary and secondary biliary cirrhosis, metabolic disorders and autoimmune hepatitis, <0.3cm
micronodular cirrhosis
82
bile duct hamartoma
von Meyenburg complex
83
centrilobular necrosis and hemorrhage leads to variegated, mottled red hepatic parenchyma
nutmeg liver- passive congestion
84
yellow flecks visible on mucosa represent accumulations of cholesterol within macrophages
cholesterolosis of the gallbladder
85
cystically dilated endocervical glands
Nabothian cysts
86
most common tumors in women
uterine leiomyomas
87
cysts filled with serous fluid and common incidental finding in the femal reproductive system
paratubal cysts
88
paratubal cysts occuring near the fimbriae
hydatids of Morgagni
89
the most common form of skeletal malignancy
metastatic tumors
90
decreased bone density that is more prevalent in women and with aging
osteoporosis
91
muscle that is easily accessible during an autopsy and can be sampled to show effects of general systemic disease on the skeletal muscles
iliopsoas
92
type of brain herniation that occurs when unilateral or asymmetric expansion of the cerebral hemisphere displaces the cingulate gyrus under the falx
subfalcine herniation (cingulate)
93
type of brain herniation that occurs when the medial aspect of the temporal lobe is compressed against the free margin of the tentorium
transtentorial herniation (uncinate)
94
secondary hemorrhagic lesions in the midbrain and pons that often accompanies a transtentorial herniation
duret hemorrhages
95
type of brain herniation that refers to the displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum
tonsillar herniation
96
the watershed zones in the brain that are most likely to harbor small ischemic lesions
superior and middle frontal gyri
97
2 types of tumors that make up 80% of primary brain tumors
astrocytoma and glioblastoma
98
most common location for a berry aneurysm in men
anterior communicating artery or anterior cerebral artery
99
most common location for a berry aneurysm in women
junction of internal carotid with posterior communicating artery
100
according to CAP, wet tissue should be held onto after the final report is signed out for an autopsy for how long
3 months
101
what is a PAD
provisional/preliminary anatomic diagnosis
102
how long do you have to submit a written PAD according to CAP
2 working days
103
how long do you have to submit a final diagnosis for a routine autopsy according to CAP
30 days
104
how long do you have to submit a final diagnosis for a complicated case according to CAP
90 days
105
the most common testicular tumor in men over 60
lymphoma
106
at autopsy cirrhotic livers should be serially sectioned, rinsed, and examined for this
small carcinomas
107
postmortem autolysis occurs in these two organ mucosa, exposing submucosal blood vessels
bladder and stomach
108
chronic bladder obstruction can cause this and trabeculation
smooth muscle hypertrophy
109
where does majority of prostate adenocarcinomas arise
in the peripheral zone
110
most frequent cause of spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage
rupture of a berry aneurysm
111
most common cause of sudden death in the US
ischemic heart disease
112
percent of major discrepancies between clinical diagnosis and the underlying cause of death as recorded on the death certificate
30%
113
intentionally, recklessly, or negligently removes, mutilates, or operates upon of a dead person or when they prevent the proper burial or cremation of the dead body
violating tort law
114
spontaneous esophageal rupture/full thickness tear
Boerhaave syndrome
115
diffuse metastatic seeding of the peritoneum occurs most commonly due to what two carcinomas
ovary and pancreas
116
acquired mitral stenosis is almost always due to
rheumatic heart disease
117
hallmark lesion in infective endocarditis
vegetations on the aortic and mitral valves
118
significant or severe atherosclerosis is classified by coronary vessel occlusion of what percent
at least 75%
119
the most common form of myocardial rupture
rupture of the left ventricular free wall
120
common cause of right ventricular hypertrophy
pulmonary hypertension
121
common finding in intubated patients
iatrogenic laryngeal ulcers
122
larynx swelling in anaphylactic reactions, infections, or after trauma
laryngeal edema
123
most common malignant tumor of the larynx
squamous cell carcinoma
124
pts with hypertension and severe atherosclerosis have this combination of injury in the kidney
nephrosclerosis and cortical infarcts
125
associated with stagnant concentrated urine due to underlying voiding dysfunction
bladder stone
126
uncommon tumors that are associated with previous radiation therapy
meningiomas
127
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome in response to an infection
sepsis
128
dysfunction is present in 2 or more organ systems
multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
129
most common lethal arrhythmias (2) that cause ischemic heart disease
ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation
130
immersion in 80% ethanol for 30 minutes does what to specimens previously fixed in formalin
restores natural colors
131
killed in a fixative of 10% formalin in 50% ethyl alcohol
mycobacteria
