Advanced Diving Medicine Flashcards

This topic will familiarize the trainee with Advanced Diving Medicine procedures (68 cards)

1
Q

What is “Half-Time”

A

The amount of time required for a tissue to become 50% saturated with a gas

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2
Q

What is “Saturated”

A

Tissues are considered “Saturated” after six half-times or 98.4%

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3
Q

What is “Tissue Perfusion”

A

The act of getting oxygen via blood from the lungs to the tissues

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4
Q

What is “Tribonucleation”

A

Bubbles created when two surfaces in a vicus are rapidly separated or moved relative to each other

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5
Q

What are seed bubbles

A

pre-exsisting bubbles or gas micronuclei that form into larger bubbles following a dive

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6
Q

What is isobaric counter diffusion

A

Superaturation due to a lighter gas moving into tissue faster than heavier gas can move out

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7
Q

What is a kinin

A

Its a polypeptide that influences smooth muscle contraction inducing hypotension, increasing the blood flow and permeability of small blood capillaries and inciting pain

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8
Q

What is the max time on oxygen

A

Three hours

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9
Q

Type I DCS symptoms

A

Joint Pain
Skin (marbling)
Swelling and pain in the lymph nodes

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10
Q

Type II DCS symptoms

A

Neurological
Inner ear (staggers)
Cardiopulmonary (Chokes)

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11
Q

What do you need to get pulmonary O2 Toxicity

A

History of long exposure of O2 concentration greater then .5 ATA

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12
Q

Pulmonary O2 Symptoms

A

Burning pain on inspiration
Cough
Shortness of breath- dyspnea

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13
Q

What is AVPU

A

Alert
Voice
Pain
Unresponsive

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14
Q

Normal Temperature

A

98.6 +/- a few tenths

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15
Q

Normal Pulse

A

60-80 BPM

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16
Q

Tachycardia

A

> 120 BPM

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17
Q

Bradycardia

A

< 60 BPM

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18
Q

Normal Respirations

A

12-16

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19
Q

Tachypnea

A

> 22-30 Breaths per Min

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20
Q

Normal Blood Pressure

A

120/80 +/- 10

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21
Q

Wheezes

A

high pitch sound, constriction of bronchi/bronchioles

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22
Q

Ronchi

A

coarse gurgling sound

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23
Q

Rales

A

popping sound (crackles)

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24
Q

CNS O2 Toxicity occurs when ppO2 exceeds

A
  1. 3 ATA in wet environment

2. 4 ATA in dry environment

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25
When should a nero exam NOT be completed prior ro recompression
- Acute or recent onset of a gross neurological deficit - Diver surfaces unconscious - Symptomatic omitted decompression - Severe symptoms preventing patient from completing nero exam
26
What are the six parts of a neurological exam
``` 1 - Mental Status 2 - Coordination 3 - Cranial Nerves 4 - Sensory 5- strength 6 - Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTR) ```
27
What are the 12 cranial nerves
``` I Olfactory (Smell) II Optic (visual) III Oculomotor (Pupil) IV Trochlear (Look inward) V Trigeminal (Facial sensation) VI Abduction (lateral movement of eyes) VII Facial (Face movement) VII Auditory (Hearing) IX Glossopharyngeal (gagging) X Vegas XI Sinal Accessory XII Hypoglossal (Movement of tongue) ```
28
Dermatomes are mostly _____ on the trunch of the body
Horizontal
29
Dermatomes are mostly _____ | on the extremities
Vertical
30
What is the grading scale for patient strength
``` 5 - Normal 4 - Mild weakness 3- Moderate weakness 2- Severe weakness 1 -Profound weakness 0 - Paralysis ```
31
What is the temperature for heat stroke?
106 F
32
VENTID-C
``` V-Visual disturbances E-Ears, rining, roaring N-Nausea T-Twitching I-Irritability D-Dizziness C-Convulsions ```
33
When is CO poisoning most likely to occur?
On accent
34
What are the 5 types of shock
``` Anaphylactic Cariogenic Hemorrhagic Neurogenic psychogenic ```
35
Cause of anaphylactic shock
Caused by a severe allergic reaction
36
Cause of cardiogenic shock
Caused by a heart attack or poor heart function
37
Cause of hemorrhagic shock
Large amount of uncontrolled bleeding or hemorrhaging. Also known as hypovolemic
38
Cause of neurogenic shock
Uncontrolled dilation of the blood vessels due to nerve paralysis cause by spinal cord injury
39
Cause of psychogenic shock
Caused by fright or fear
40
Three stages of shock
compensated decompensated irreversible
41
What size catheter do you use for needle thoracostomy
Large bore Over-The Needle 3.25" | 14 or Larger gauge
42
What are the 2 site selection for needle thoracostomy
- 3rd intercostal space, midclavicular over the affected lung - secondary 5th intercostal space anterior axillary line
43
What are the two types of IV fluids
- Ringers Lactate | - Normal Saline
44
What is the typical gauge for IV fluid replacement in adult patients
18 gauge
45
Marco drip
10gtts/ml
46
Standard drip chamber
15-20 gtts/ml
47
Micro drip
60 gtts/ml
48
What is the only authorized antiseptic used in the chamber
Providone iodine solution (Betadine)
49
What is the minimum urine output for a patient
30 cc/hr (>.5cc/kg/hr)
50
IV rate for rehydrate
200ml/hr
51
IV rate for maintenance
100-150ml/hr
52
IV rate limited
<100ml/hr (AGE, DCS, head trauma)
53
IV rate bolus
500-2000ml ASAP (Shock, dehydration)
54
IV rate keep open KVO
25 cc/hr
55
When selecting a site for IV start ______ and work ______
distal | proximal
56
Insert the IV needle?
Bevel up and at a 30 degree angle
57
Indications for a urinary catheterization
- AGE inability to void - DCS inability to void - Relieve bladder distention - Unconscious patient - Monitor intake and output
58
Lumbercate ____ of the catheter before insertion for catheterization
4 inches
59
Only insert ______ of the catheter for females
2 inches
60
For catheterization in males
insert 2 inches and slowly insert further until you note urine flow or hit an obstruction
61
With catheterization only remove how much to prevent bladder shock/spasm
700-1000ml
62
If you remove >700ml of urine at once in a catheterization do what?
Clamp for 30 minuets to 1 hour and then continue
63
What is adequate urine output during recompression
.5cc/kg/hr
64
Rate of O2 administration for non-rebreather and nasal canual
12-15lmp non-rebreather | 4-6lmp nasal cannula
65
Consider pulmonary oxygen toxicity after
Normally after 12 hours on the surface
66
When is the only time fluids are contraindicated
Patient suffering from the chokes
67
Lidocaine is used for ___ patients and not used for ____ patients
Is used for AGE patients | Is not recommended for DCS
68
What animal gives a symptom of a wound extremely painful and has a bluish trim
Stingrays