Advanced | Endocrine and Anesthesia Flashcards
A 20 year old female is scheduled for adrenal mass resection. Her laboratory results are suggestive of Pheochromocytoma. Which of the following is most likely contraindicated in this patient?
A. Pancuronium
B. Esmolol
C. Clevidipine
D. Nitroprusside
A. Pancuronium
Pancuronium is a potent long-acting NMBD with vagolytic, direct
sympathomimetic stimulation because it blocks the reuptake of
norepinephrine and butyrylcholinesterase-inhibiting properties.
Which of the following post-operative plan is MOST applicable to a patient diagnosed with pheochromocytoma?
A. Monitor glucose 1-2 hours in the 1st 6 hrs post-operatively
B. About 50% of patients remain hypertensive for 1 month, hence anti-hypertensive is warranted
C. Perioperative morbidity is independent to tumor size and the degree of catecholamine secretion
D. Droperidol is an alternative drug to control PONV in patients who underwent laparoscopic removal of adrenal tumor
A. Monitor glucose 1-2 hours in the 1st 6 hrs post-operatively
TRUE or FALSE
Drugs that are known to liberate histamine release is CONTRAINDICATED in patients with pheochromocytoma
TRUE
A 30 year old male is undergoing open surgery for removal of adrenal mass. Intraoperatively, his blood pressure dramatically drops after ligation of the tumor’s venous supply. Which of the following is MOST appropriate during this time?
A. Intravascular fluid volume replacement
B. Start a phenylephrine drip immediately as soon as blood pressure drops
C. Start epinephrine drip prior to the ligation of tumor
D. Asks the surgeon to stop the dissection and infuse colloids to improve intravascular volume
A. Intravascular fluid volume replacement
A 24 year old female came in for emergency appendectomy. Upon examination, you noted a history of early onset hypertension at 16 years old. She complaints muscle weakness, polyuria, inability to concentrate urine, and episodes of hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. Her diagnostic work-up is consistent with Conn’s Disease. Which of the following can confirm the diagnosis?
A. plasma renin activity (less than 1 ng/ml/h)
B. plasma aldosterone concentration (less than 10 ng/dL)
C. 24-hour urinary fractionated metanephrine
D. 24- hour urinary fractionated catecholamine
A. plasma renin activity (less than 1 ng/ml/h)
How do you peri-operatively prepare a pheochromocytoma patient for surgery?
READ
Which of the following is INACCURATE regarding DM type I:
A. The hyperglycemia in patients with type 1 DM can be easily controlled with oral hypoglycemic agents
B. Its propensity to develop a ketotic state is higher than DM type II
C. Type 1 DM is due to pancreatic β-cell destruction, usually leading to absolute insulin deficiency.
D. It accounts for 10% - 15% of DM cases worldwide
A. The hyperglycemia in patients with type 1 DM can be easily controlled with oral hypoglycemic agents
Which is relatively resistant to ketosis and may not be clinically apparent until exacerbated by the stress of surgery or intercurrent illness?
A. Type II DM
B. Type I DM
A. Type II DM
Patients with type 2 DM are often overweight and have resistance to the effects of insulin (commonly referred to as insulin resistance); hence, they may have normal or even elevated levels of insulin
initially.
In milder forms, type 2 DM can be treated with diet, lifestyle modifications, and oral hypoglycemic agents. Because these patients are relatively resistant to ketosis, their disease may not be clinically apparent until exacerbated by the stress of surgery or intercurrent illness
Clinical DM can be a result of a disease that damages the pancreas and thus impairs insulin secretion. The following disease states can commonly lead to secondary diabetes EXCEPT:
A. Tacrolimus therapy (after transplant)
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Addison’s Disease
E. Acromegaly
Addison’s Disease
Other types of DM can be a result of a disease that damages the pancreas
and thus impairs insulin secretion. Pancreatic surgery, chronic pancreatitis,
cystic fibrosis, and hemochromatosis can damage the pancreas and impair
insulin secretion sufficiently to produce clinical DM.
DM can also result from one of the endocrine diseases that produces a hormone that opposes the action of insulin. Hence, a patient with a glucagonoma, pheochromocytoma, or acromegaly may develop diabetes. An increased effect of glucocorticoids, from either Cushing disease or steroid or tacrolimus therapy (after organ transplantation), may also oppose the effect of insulin enough to elicit
clinical diabetes and would certainly complicate the management of preexisting
diabetes.
Which of the following statements about pheochromocytoma is INACCURATE?
A. Preoperative administration of alpha-adrenergic inhibitors will usually reverse EKG changes due to catecholamine myocarditis
B. Preoperative administration of alpha-adrenergic inhibitors decreases operative mortality
C. Beta-adrenergic inhibitors should be administered preoperatively only in conjunction with alpha-adrenergic inhibitors
D. Vasopressor therapy may be necessary postoperatively for treatment of hypotension
E. Fluid limitation to reverse the catecholamine-induced volume overload
during alpha blockade
E. Fluid limitation to reverse the catecholamine-induced volume overload
during alpha blockade - FALSE STATEMENT
- Although preoperative intravenous volume repletion does not optimize hemodynamics or improve outcomes, the Endocrine Society Task Force guidelines further recommend a high sodium diet (3–5 g/day) and fluid intake to reverse the catecholamine-induced volume contraction
during alpha blockade. - Beta blockers are started only after adequate alpha blockade to prevent worsening hypertension due to
the blockade of vasodilatory peripheral β-adrenergic receptors and unopposed alpha stimulation.
Miller | 10th edit
A 50 year old female ASA III for uncontrolled type II DM is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Upon pre-operative evaluation, She ask you which of the following oral hypoglycemics can MOST likely induce ketoacidosis?
A. (SGLT2) inhibitors
B. Dipeptidyl-peptidase-4 inhibitors
C. Sulfonylureas
D. α-Glucosidase inhibitors
A. (SGLT2) inhibitors
Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2)
inhibitors (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, empagliflozin, ertugliflozin) provide
insulin-dependent glucose lowering by blocking glucose reabsorption in the
proximal renal tubule via SGLT2 inhibition.
There is an increased risk of ketoacidosis in patients with type 1 and type 2 DM who are treated with SGLT2 inhibitors.
- Dipeptidyl-peptidase-4 inhibitors (e.g. sitagliptin) slow degradation of incretin
hormones, increase endogenous incretin hormone levels, and improve postprandial hyperglycemia. - Sulfonylureas (e.g. gliclazide and glimepiride) enhance β-cell insulin secretion
- alpha glucosidase inhibitors decrease postprandial glucose absorption
Determining the glucose-lowering regimen in DM patients play a crucial role in the pre-operative management. Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE pre-operative management?
A. Patients who are on sulfonylureas are
particularly have the lowest risk in developing hypoglycemia
B. Metformin should be withheld on the day of surgery
C. SGLT2 inhibitors must be discontinued 12 hours before the surgery
D. generally, oral antihyperglycemic medications are advised to be continued the night before surgery.
B. Metformin should be withheld on the day of surgery
A. Patients who are on sulfonylureas are
particularly have LEAST risk for developing hypoglycemia - FALSE.
* Sulfonylureas have particularly higher propensity to develop hypoglycemia.
C. SGLT2 inhibitors must be discontinued 12 hours before the surgery - FALSE
- It should be withheld 3 - 4 days before surgery.
D. generally, oral antihyperglycemic medications are advised to be continued the night before surgery. FALSE
- generally, oral antihyperglycemic medications are advised to be DIScontinued the night before surgery
Barash | 9th edit
The following PRE-OPERATIVE management is TRUE among DM patients who are on insulin therapy EXCEPT?
A. If patients are using a premixed insulin, they are instructed to reduce their evening dose by 20% and hold insulin completely on the morning of the procedure
B. Patients with type 2 DM need some basal insulin at all times
C. Patients on insulin pump therapy should have their blood glucose checked every hour intraoperatively
D. Intermediate- or long-acting insulin dose
should be reduced by 20% the night before surgery.
B. Patients with type 2 DM need some basal insulin at all times
As per guideline, a patient with type II DM is allowed to undergo elective surgery if the HBA1c is:
A. < 6.5%
B. < 8%
C. 10% or less
D. 5.5 - 6.5% only
B. < 8%
- Despite the lack of high-quality evidence, an HbA1c level <8% is now being recommended for adult patients with diabetes undergoing elective surgical procedures.
Similarly, the European Society of Cardiology recommends that elective noncardiac surgery be postponed in patients with an HbA1c ≥8.5%, if it is “safe and practical.
Barash | 9th edit page 4045
Which of the following peri-operative management is ACCURATE among patients with long standing DM?
A. Blood glucose should be monitored every 4 to 6 hours while the patient is on NPO status
B. Hyperglycemia in a hospital setting is defined as any blood glucose higher than 110 mg/dL
C. Glycemic lability index may be the least
discriminator for mortality among expression of glucose variability parameters
D. ADA recommends a target range 80 to 180 mg/dL for blood glucose in the perioperative period
E. The recommended threshold to initiate an insulin infusion is no higher than
140 mg/dL.
A. Blood glucose should be monitored every 4 to 6 hours while the patient is on NPO status
All the other statements are FALSE.
TRUE or FALSE
In NON-critically ill hospitalized patients, the goal is to keep the glucose level between 120 and 180 mg/dL
FALSE
80 -180 mg/dL is the GOAL in NON-critically ill patients.
Barash | 9th edit
Preoperative administration of an alpha-adrenergic blocker for 10 days to patients with pheochromocytoma will decrease
A. episodic tachycardia
B. hyperglycemia
C. hypovolemia
D. nasal stuffiness
E. postural hypotension
C. hypovolemia
Current guidelines endorse an optimal
duration of alpha blockade between 7 and 14 days preoperatively.
Preoperative duration of alpha blockade for more than 30 days is associated with intraoperative bradycardia and postoperative hypotension requiring vasopressor support.
miller | 10th edit
An elderly patient came to the ER for what seems to be an acute abdomen probably secondary to ruptured viscus. She is a known diabetic with an RBS of 650 mg/dL. If this patient is having hyperglycemia crisis, which of the following is the MOST appropriate management?
A. Correction of non-anion gap metabolic acidosis
B. A continuous infusion is started at 0.1 unit/kg/h as long as serum potassium is above 3.3 mEq/L
C. If the blood glucose does not fall by 10% in the first hour, a bolus of 1.0 unit/kg is
administered
D. Ringer’s lactate is an absolute contraindication in hyperglycemic crisis
B. A continuous infusion is started at 0.1 unit/kg/h as long as serum potassium is above 3.3 mEq/L
Which of the following oral antidiabetic drugs is unique in that it does NOT
produce hypoglycemia when administered to a fasting patient?
A. Glyburide (Micronase)
B. Glipizide (Glucotrol)
C. Tolbutamide (Orinase)
D. Metformin (Glucophage)
D. Metformin (Glucophage)
Oral agents that are used to help control hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetic patients (relative β-cell insufficiency and insulin resistance) include four major drug classes:
1. drugs that stimulate insulin secretion (hypoglycemia is a risk)
a. sulfonylureas
i. first-generation (chlorpropamide,
tolazamide, tolbutamide)
ii. second-generation (glimepiride,
glipizide, glyburide)
b. meglitinides (repaglinide, nateglinide)
- Drugs that decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis (hypoglycemia not a
risk)
- biguanides (metformin)
- Drugs that improve insulin sensitivity (hypoglycemia not a risk)
a. thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone, pioglitazone)
b. glitazones
- Drugs that delay carbohydrate absorption (hypoglycemia not a
risk)
a. α-glucosidase inhibitors (acarbose, miglitol)
Only drugs that stimulate insulin secretion are a risk for producing hypoglycemia.
Initial therapy is usually with second-generation sulfonylureas (more potent
and fewer side effects than first-generation sulfonylureas) or with a biguanide
Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
A. Multinodular diffuse goiter
B. Thyroid adenoma
C. Papillary Adenocarcinoma
D. Hashimoto thyroiditis
Multinodular diffuse goiter or Graves disease
This condition predominantly affects women between the ages of 20 and 40.
What is the second most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
A. Multinodular diffuse goiter
B. Thyroid adenoma
C. Papillary Adenocarcinoma
D. Hashimoto thyroiditis
Thyroid adenoma
Thyroid adenomas can lead to increased thyroid hormone synthesis.
What role does amiodarone play in hyperthyroidism?
It is an antiarrhythmic agent that is iodine-rich and can cause iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis
This can lead to increased thyroid hormone levels.
A 34 year old female is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and is scheduled for an emergency surgery. In order to control a clinically acceptable heart rate prior to surgery, beta-blockers is started. beta-blockade is administered to achieve which of the following?
A. beta-blockade is primarily used to prevent storm
B. beta-blockade is used to achieve a HR below 110
C. beta-blockade is used to achieve a HR below 90
D. beta-blockade reduces T3 secretion
C. beta-blockade is used to achieve a HR below 90
If a hyperthyroid patient with
clinically apparent disease requires emergency surgery, β-adrenergic
blockade should be administered to achieve a heart rate below 90 beats per
minute.
- β-Blockers do not prevent thyroid storm.
Glucocorticoids such as dexamethasone (8 to 12 mg/d) are used in the management of severe thyrotoxicosis because they reduce thyroid hormone secretion and the
peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
Which of the following peri-operative management is LEAST LIKELY applicable to a patient with Hyperthyroidism:
A. All antithyroid medications are continued through the morning of surgery
B. In a clinically euthyroid patient, Ketamine may be used
C. generally, the initial dose of muscle relaxant is reduced
D. Anti-thyroid medications are withheld 24 hours prior to surgery
D. Anti-thyroid medications are withheld 24 hours prior to surgery
Barash | 9th edit