AE Training Flashcards
(451 cards)
1
Q
Alternating current is one type of electrical current, what is the other type?
* In-rush current
* Direct current
* River current
* Unaltered current
A
Direct current
2
Q
Which of the following is an electrical output device?
* Motor
* Lamp
* Resistor
* All of the above
A
All of the above
3
Q
Which of the following is a manually-operated switch?
* Pushbutton switch
* Selector switch
* Knife switch
* All of the above
A
All of the above
4
Q
A knife switch consists of a lever and one or more sets of ______.
* Conductors
* Operators
* Knives
* Contacts
A
Contacts
5
Q
Constant voltage power supplies will maintain a constant voltage output under varying ______.
* Loads
* Weather conditions
* Levels of light
* Chemical reactions
A
Loads
6
Q
The contacts of a(n) switch are open until acted on by the operator.
* Normally closed
* Adjacent
* Normally open
* Normally simulated
A
Normally open
7
Q
A(n) determines if electricity is present in a circuit.
* Ohmmeter
* Circuit tester
* Ammeter
* Solenoid
A
Circuit tester
8
Q
Which of the following is not a component of a basic electrical circuit?
* Input device
* Output device
* Insulator
* Power supply
A
Insulator
9
Q
A simple method for opening or closing a circuit is to use a ______.
* Switch
* Knife
* Screwdriver
* None of the above
A
Switch
10
Q
Electricity is the flow of in a conductor.
* Protons
* Neutrons
* Electrons
* Photons
A
Electrons
11
Q
Which of the following is true of an electrical schematic diagram?
* Represents components with standard symbols.
* Shows how the components are interconnected.
* Is helpful in troubleshooting a circuit.
* All of the above
A
All of the above
12
Q
Rotary motion is the output of which electrical output device?
* Buzzer
* Resistor
* Motor
* Solenoid
A
Motor
13
Q
The electrical wall outlets at home are a source of current.
* Direct
* Alternating
* Both direct and alternating
* None of the above
A
Alternating
14
Q
Machine control relays are designed for light-duty industrial applications.
* True
* False
A
False
15
Q
A control relay is designed to switch components on and off only when it receives a manual input.
* True
* False
A
False
16
Q
Three-wire control circuits are commonly used for start/stop pushbutton stations.
* True
* False
A
True
17
Q
The minimum number of sets of contacts a motor starter has depends on the number of power leads the motor requires.
* True
* False
A
True
18
Q
A push-to-test pilot light allows the operator to test the indicator bulb to make sure it works.
* True
* False
A
True
19
Q
Control relays are not capable of performing memory logic by themselves.
* True
* False
A
True
20
Q
One method of deenergizing a seal-in circuit is with a stop pushbutton.
* True
* False
A
True
21
Q
When a relay is connected so that it continues to energize itself after a momentary input is removed, the circuit is called a __________.
* Seal-in circuit
* Repeating circuit
* Lock-out circuit
* Continuous circuit
A
Seal-in circuit
22
Q
Two-wire control circuits provide low-voltage protection.
* True
* False
A
False
23
Q
__________ is a method of representing one component with several symbols in various locations on a ladder diagram.
* Pictorial symbology
* Detached symbology
* Random symbology
* All of the above
* None of the above
A
Detached symbology
24
Q
A push-to-test light is exactly the same as a regular indicator lamp, except it has a special color lens.
* True
* False
A
False
25
General-purpose relays are designed for light-duty industrial applications.
* True
* False
True
26
Which of the following is not a typical input device used for two-wire control circuits?
* Pressure switch
* Float Switch
* Pushbutton switch
* Proximity switch
Pushbutton switch
27
Which of the following is a component of a magnetic motor starter?
* Coil
* Overload
* Auxiliary contacts
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
28
A three-wire control circuit is not as safe as a two-wire control circuit.
* True
* False
False
29
Which of the following is an application of a control relay?
* Energizing larger output devices
* Performing control logic
* Performing memory logic
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
30
Most troubleshooters in manufacturing plants perform component level testing.
* True
* False
False
31
One possible cause for an overload to trip constantly is that the trip setting is incorrect (IEC) or the incorrect heater size is being used (NEMA).
* True
* False
True
32
Resistance readings across the windings of a motor should be very high.
* True
* False
False
33
To determine if an indicator lamp has failed, measure the lamp's __________.
* Brightness
* Amperage
* Resistance
* Voltage
Resistance
34
If none of the contacts of a manual switch change status when the operator is activated, what is the most probable cause?
* Mechanical problem with the operator
* Contacts are shorted
* Contacts are open
* All of the above
* None of the above
Mechanical problem with the operator
35
To test a relay coil out-of-circuit, you would measure __________.
* Voltage
* Resistance
* Current
* All of the above
* None of the above
Resistance
36
Which of the following is not a possible cause when none of the contacts on a motor contactor change status when the coil is energized?
* Mechanical problem with the contactor
* Partial short in the coil
* Coil is open
* All of the above
* None of the above
None of the above
37
Which of the following is a method of testing a component?
* Out-of-circuit test
* Mechanical test
* In-circuit test
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
38
What is the first step when using a DMM to measure continuity?
* Connect the probes across the device
* Plug the probes into the appropriate jacks
* Set the function switch to the continuity function
* Remove the probes from the device
Set the function switch to the continuity function
39
The IEC developed a standard to rate DMMs based on the maximum voltage spike the meter can withstand without causing an arc.
* True
* False
True
40
If a relay coil is good, you should get no voltage reading across it when it is energized.
* True
* False
False
41
In a ladder logic control circuit, the signal measured is usually __________.
* Resistance
* Voltage
* Current
* All of the above
* None of the above
Voltage
42
The __________ method assumes that measurements before the cause of the problem will be normal and measurements after the cause will not be normal.
* Half-split
* Shotgun
* Output-back
* Symptom and cause
Half-split
43
A(n) __________ is a device that can be used to measure several different electrical characteristics.
* DMM
* Voltage tester
* Ammeter
* Megger
DMM
44
The first step in the system troubleshooting process is to __________.
* Isolate the problem to a component
* Identify the problem or symptom
* Repair or replace the component
* All of the above
* None of the above
Identify the problem or symptom
45
There is no need to change voltage range on a wiggy.
* True
* False
True
46
A circuit must be disconnected to use a clamp-on ammeter to measure current.
* True
* False
False
47
Which of the following is a type of in-circuit component test?
* Measurements
* Substitution
* Component/circuit bridging
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
48
With the test probes placed in the circuit as shown in the figure, what should the voltage reading be if the start pushbutton is pressed, assuming the circuit is operating properly?
* Zero volts
* Full control voltage
* Half the control voltage
* Cannot determine
## Footnote
Image not shown (Systems Troubleshooting)
Full control voltage
49
After you repair or replace a bad component in a system, you should always test the system.
* True
* False
True
50
You can reverse the rotation of any three-phase motor by interchanging any two of the three power supply lines.
* True
* False
True
51
Based on the wiring diagram shown, which of the following statements is true of a drum switch if the switch is placed in the reverse position?
* L1 is connected to T1, L2 is connected to T2, and L3 is connected to T3
* L1 is connected to T3, L2 is connected to T2, and L3 is connected to T1.
* L1 is connected to T1, L2 is connected to T3, and L3 is connected to T2.
* L1 is connected to T2, L2 is connected to T1, and L3 is connected to T3.
## Footnote
Image not shown (Reversing Motor Control)
L1 is connected to T2, L2 is connected to T1, and L3 is connected to T3.
52
Mechanical interlocking should be used in combination with one of the electrical methods so that the blocked coil cannot be energized.
* True
* False
True
53
A reversing magnetic motor starter provides a magnetic method of changing a motor's direction of rotation.
* True
* False
True
54
A Hand-Off-Automatic (H-O-A) circuit requires a selector switch with __________ positions.
* 3
* 1
* 2
* More than 4
3
55
Based on the circuit diagram shown, what will happen to the motor if the JOG pushbutton is pressed?
* The motor will not run.
* The motor will start and continue to run even after the JOG button is released.
* The motor will run until the JOG button is released.
* The motor will not run until the JOG button is released.
## Footnote
Image not shown (Reversing Motor Control)
The motor will run until the JOG button is released.
56
A __________ is often used to allow an operator or technician to change a machine from the automatic mode to the manual mode.
* Pushbutton switch
* Selector switch
* Drum switch
* Relay
Selector switch
57
Which of the following is a component of a reversing magnetic motor starter?
* Forward contactor
* Reverse contactor
* Overload Protection
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
58
One application of interlocking is to cause both the forward and reverse coils of a reversing contactor to be energized at the same time.
* True
* False
False
59
Examine the circuit shown and determine which type(s) of interlocking is/are shown.
* Auxiliary contact only
* Pushbutton interlocking only
* Mechanical interlocking only
* Pushbutton interlocking and mechanical interlocking
* Auxiliary contact and mechanical interlocking
## Footnote
Image not shown (Reversing Motor Control)
Auxiliary contact and mechanical interlocking
60
Based on the circuit diagram shown, motor 2 must be started before motor 1.
* True
* False
## Footnote
Image not shown (Automatic Input Devices 1)
False
61
The upward or downward movement of the float device on a float switch controls the switch.
* True
* False
True
62
Which of the limit switch symbols shown indicates a normally closed switch in the unoperated condition?
* A
* B
* C
* D
## Footnote
Image not shown (Automatic Input Devices 1)
C
63
Which of the following is not an automatic input device?
* Pressure switch
* Pushbutton switch
* Float Switch
* Electronic sensor
* Limit switch
Pushbutton switch
64
The preset level where a pressure switch is activated is called the __________.
* Set point
* Cut in pressure
* Trip pressure
* All of the above
* None of the above
Set point
65
Automatic switches can have the same potential problems as manual switches.
* True
* False
True
66
A normally open float switch is needed for a sump pump circuit.
* True
* False
True
67
Which of the following is an application of a motor sequence control circuit?
* High pressure lubricator on a milling machine
* Conveyor system
* Cooling fan on a machine
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
68
The difference between the set point pressure and reset pressure is called the __________.
* Differential
* Cut-in band
* Reset band
* All of the above
* None of the above
Differential
69
One common method of unloading a compressor motor during startup is to use a control circuit with a timer relay.
* True
* False
True
70
An on-delay timer's contacts change to their energized state after the delay.
* True
* False
True
71
The contact shown in the figure is a(n) __________.
## Footnote
Image not shown (Basic Timer Control: On-Delay and Off-Delay)
N.C. off-delay relay contact
72
The contact shown in the figure is a(n) __________.
## Footnote
Image not shown (Basic Timer Control: On-Delay and Off-Delay)
N.C. on-delay relay contact
73
Which of the following is not a common timing mechanism used on timer relays?
* Solid-state timers
* Pneumatic timers
* Hydraulic timers
* Motor-driven timers
Hydraulic timers
74
Which of the following might cause the N.O. contact of a timer relay to be closed whether the coil is energized or not?
* Mechanical problem with the timer relay
* Contact is stuck closed
* Contact is shorted
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
75
Using timers to sequence the operation of a machine is called __________.
* Event-driven sequencing
* Time-driven sequencing
* Delay sequencing
* All of the above
* None of the above
Time-driven sequencing
76
Which of the following is a type of reduced-voltage starting?
* Part winding
* Autotransformer
* Primary resistor
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
77
What percentage of the full line voltage is applied to a motor's terminals during the first step of a standard two-step primary resistor start?
* 25%
* 70%
* 10%
* 50%
70%
78
One problem with open-transition reduced voltage starting is that the switching causes unwanted voltage spikes on the supply lines.
* True
* False
True
79
Three-step starting is actually a combination of two-step part winding and primary resistor starting.
* True
* False
False
80
A timer relay is often used in a primary resistor starting circuit.
* True
* False
True
81
Which of the following is not a reason to use reduced-voltage starting on a motor?
* Reduce the starting torque provided by the motor.
* Reduce the high starting current drawn by the motor.
* Produce higher speed at startup.
* All of the above
* None of the above
Produce higher speed at startup.
82
Part winding starting is only suitable for delta-wound, dual-voltage motors.
* True
* False
False
83
Taps are provided on an autotransformer starter to start the motor at approximately 50%, 65%, and __________% of full line voltage.
* 80
* 70
* 95
* 25
80
84
The operation of a motor and a generator are direct opposites.
* True
* False
True
85
What type of distribution system is represented by the figure shown?
## Footnote
Image not shown (Power Generation and Distribution) "Ninja Star"
Wye
86
What type of distribution system is represented by the figure shown?
## Footnote
Image not shown (Power Generation and Distribution) "Triangle"
Delta
87
Which of the following is not a basic type of power plant?
* Coal
* Nuclear
* Hydroelectric
* All of the above
* None of the above
None of the above
88
Which of the following is a type of transformer power distribution bank?
* Delta-to-wye
* Wye-to-wye
* Wye-to-delta
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
89
A disadvantage of a three-phase wye system is that if a fault occurs on any of the three phases, the whole system will shut down.
* True
* False
True
90
Fault indicators are not needed on equipment that is powered by a three-phase delta system.
* True
* False
False
91
The stator windings of a three-phase generator are __________ degrees apart.
* 90
* 120
* 100
* 60
120
92
If the phase-to-neutral voltage of a wye configured system is 120 VAC, what would be the phase-to-phase voltage?
* 240 VAC
* 460 VAC
* 208 VAC
* 600 VAC
208 VAC
93
The first page of a panel installation drawing package is usually the __________.
* Bill of materials
* Title and drawing index
* List of vendor catalogs
* Safety instructions
Title and drawing index
94
When using Modbus protocol, PLCs control the VFD by setting _________ and by monitoring _________ .
* Output devices; input devices
* Motor power; diagnostic information
* Control information; status/error information
* Sensor data; I/O module status
Control information; status/error information
95
In order to prevent other devices from overheating, the best place to install a VFD is __________ of the control panel.
* Near the top
* Near the bottom
* On the outside
* In the center
Near the top
96
A VFD can externally control a motor after receiving signals from __________ or a PLC.
* Power terminals
* Input devices
* The motor
* An interlock
Input devices
97
When wiring a PLC inside a control panel, which type of circuit should be wired first?
* Control circuit
* Power supply circuit
* Master control relay circuit
* Grounding circuit
Grounding circuit
98
Which of the following is NOT a consideration when mounting PLCs inside a control panel?
* Overflow current
* Heat dissipation
* Duct and wiring layout
* Electrical noise
Overflow current
99
VFDs inside of control panels are usually connected to main power lines through a disconnect switch and __________ devices.
* Input
* Contactor
* Relay
* Overcurrent protection
Overcurrent protection
100
A(n) __________ is used to prevent an event from happening until conditions are safe for the event.
* Safety interlock
* Output module
* EMERGENCY STOP pushbutton
* Overcurrent device
EMERGENCY STOP pushbutton
101
VFD discrete I/O terminals are wired to discrete I/O devices such as __________.
* Pushbuttons
* Solenoid valves
* PLC I/O
* All of the above
* Only pushbuttons and PLC I/O
All of the above
102
The PLC outputs should be __________ when performing a static output wiring check.
* Powered off
* Energized
* Disabled
* Uninstalled
Disabled
103
To prevent leakage current from causing a problem for a DC input module, a(n) __________ is connected across the input.
* Inductor
* Bleeder resistor
* Capacitor
* Diode
Bleeder resistor
104
__________ are small hardware devices that join multiple devices together within one local area network, or LAN.
* Network interface cards (NICs)
* Network switches
* Network routers
* Network PLCs
Network switches
105
The cut, crimp and strip tool's __________ cuts and removes Ethernet cable jacket, leaving wires and insulation intact.
* Flat-cable stripper
* Handles
* Crimper
* Round jacket stripper
Round jacket stripper
106
Transmitter outputs are wired to the monitoring or control device's analog inputs using __________.
* Twisted pair cable
* Thermocouple wire
* Thermocouple extension wire
* Cat. 5 cable
Twisted pair cable
107
HMI manufacturers provide mounting __________ or templates in their installation materials.
* Dimensions
* Clearances
* Maximum cabinet temperatures
* All of the above
All of the above
108
Thermocouples often come with short leads, less than __________.
* 30 cm or 12 inches
* 60 cm or 24 inches
* 1 m or 36 inches
* 1.3 m or 48 inches
1 m or 36 inches
109
A(n) __________ provides additional environmental and noise protection for the transmitter, its terminals, and their field and controller connections.
* Equipotential grounding circuit
* Cable's shielding
* Enclosure panel
* Thermocouple terminal block
Enclosure panel
110
Pulling forces greater than __________ pounds can stretch Ethernet cable, affecting electrical and communication characteristics.
* 15
* 25
* 35
* 45
25
111
__________ can lead to unwanted currents on system data cables.
* Bonding circuits
* Grounding circuits
* Electrical potential differences
* Earth ground circuits
Electrical potential differences
112
Resistance is measured in units of __________.
* Volts
* Watts
* Ohms
* Amps
Ohms
113
Current in a(n) __________ circuit is divided among the branches of the circuit.
* Series
* Parallel
* Open
* Short
Parallel
114
An ammeter is used to measure __________.
* Current
* Resistance
* Voltage
* Temperature
Current
115
A(n) __________ is used to measure resistance.
* Ohmmeter
* Ammeter
* Voltmeter
* Flow meter
Ohmmeter
116
A multimeter is a multipurpose device that can measure __________.
* Only voltage
* Only current
* Only resistance
* Voltage, current, and resistance
Voltage, current, and resistance
117
To measure current through a component, the ammeter must be connected __________ the component.
* Across
* In parallel with
* In series with
* Without
In series with
118
The amount of voltage that is used by each load depends on the __________ of each load.
* Drop
* Continuity
* Amps
* Resistance
Resistance
119
The units of measurement for voltage is the __________.
* Ohm
* Amp
* Watt
* Volt
Volt
120
If a wire has continuity, it __________.
* Cannot conduct current
* Will have almost no resistance
* Cannot be used in a circuit
* Has an open
Will have almost no resistance
121
A known reference point in an electrical circuit is called a __________.
* Common
* Zero Reference
* Negative
* Positive
Common
122
When loads are connected in series, their individual resistances are __________.
* Multiplied
* Divided
* Subtracted
* Added
Added
123
A __________ circuit is one in which there is only one path for current to travel.
* Complex
* Series
* Parallel
* Closed
Series
124
A(n) __________ is a measurement device specifically used to measure only voltage.
* Ohmmeter
* Capacitance meter
* Voltmeter
* Ammeter
Voltmeter
125
Current is measured in units of __________.
* Amps
* Volts
* Ohms
* Pascals
Amps
126
Which of the following statements is not true about measuring the resistance of a component that is connected in a circuit?
* Turn off the power supply.
* Disconnect one of the component leads from the circuit.
* Make sure the power supply is on.
* Connect the leads across the component.
Make sure the power supply is on.
127
In a(n) __________ circuit, the voltage available to each branch is equal to the source voltage.
* Parallel
* Series
* Short
* Open
Parallel
128
The potential difference between two points in a circuit is called __________.
* Current
* Voltage
* Resistance
* None of the above
Voltage
129
When the wire or foil strip inside a fuse melts, the fuse is said to be __________.
* Shot
* Done
* Blown
* Tripped
Blown
130
The difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker is __________.
* Circuit breakers are cheaper
* Circuit breakers can be reset and used again
* Fuses are re-usable
* All of the above
* None of the above
Circuit breakers can be reset and used again
131
The measure of energy consumed by a circuit is called __________.
* Usage
* Power
* Dissipation
* Consumption
Power
132
The current that flows from and back to the power supply in a parallel circuit is called __________ current.
* Maximum
* Main line
* Kirchoff's
* Minimum
Main line
133
Which of the following is a formula for calculating total resistance in a parallel circuit?
* RT = ET × IT
* RT = R1 + R2 + R3
* RT = 1/(1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3)
* All of the above
* None of the above
RT = 1/(1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3)
134
To find the total resistance in a series circuit, __________.
* Multiply the individual resistances
* Average the resistances
* Add the individual resistances
* Subtract the individual resistances
Add the individual resistances
135
Which of the following is a formula for calculating power?
* P = I × E
* P = I × R
* P = E / R
* All of the above
* None of the above
P = I × E
136
The Ohm's Law formula for calculating voltage is __________.
* E = I × R
* E = P × R
* E = P × I × R
* All of the above
* None of the above
E = I × R
137
Kirchoff's Voltage Law for a series circuit says that the total voltage is equal to __________.
* The smallest voltage drop
* The sum of the voltage drops
* The product of the voltage drops
* The largest voltage drop
The sum of the voltage drops
138
Which of the following is a type of circuit protection device?
* Fuse
* Resistor
* Rheostat
* Capacitor
Fuse
139
The energy stored by a capacitor is called a(n) __________.
* Induced voltage
* Electrostatic charge
* Voltage spike
* All of the above
* None of the above
Electrostatic charge
140
The formula for calculating total parallel capacitance is __________.
* CT = C1 + C2 + C3...
* 1/CT = (1/C1) + (I/C2) + (1/C3)...
* CT = C1 × C2 × C3...
* CT = C1 - C2 - C3..
CT = C1 + C2 + C3...
141
In a power supply that converts an AC input to generate a DC output, a capacitor is commonly used to __________.
* Block the current flow
* Increase the current flow
* Filter the rectifier's pulsating DC output
* Decrease the voltage
Filter the rectifier's pulsating DC output
142
The concept of a magnetic field being formed around a conductor when current flows through it is called __________.
* Capacitance
* Electromagnetism
* Flux
* All of the above
* None of the above
Electromagnetism
143
Which of the following is a type of capacitor?
* Electrolytic
* Nonpolarized
* Variable
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
144
The resistance provided by an inductor in an AC circuit is called __________.
* Induced resistance
* Inductive reactance
* Electromotive force
* All of the above
* None of the above
Inductive reactance
145
Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating total parallel inductive reactance in a parallel circuit?
* XLT = XL1 + XL2 + XL3...
* XLT = XL1 × XL2 × XL3...
* XLT = 1/[(1/XL1) + (1/XL2) + (1/XL3)...]
* XLT = (1/XL1) + (1/XL2) + (1/XL3)...
XLT = 1/[(1/XL1) + (1/XL2) + (1/XL3)...]
146
A common inductor found in fluorescent light fixtures is a __________.
* Starter
* Cathode
* Ballast
* Switcher
Ballast
147
Inductance is measured in __________.
* Ohms
* Farads
* Henrys
* RPMs
Henrys
148
The apparent resistance to AC by a capacitor is called __________.
* Frequency displacement
* Capacitive reactance
* Passive capacitance
* Filtering
Capacitive reactance
149
Which of the following is the total series capacitive reactance formula?
* XCT = XC1 × XC2 × XC3...
* XCT = XC1 - XC2 - XC3...
* XCT = XC1 + XC2 + XC3...
* XCT = 1/[(1/XC1) + (1/XC2) + (1/XC3)...]
XCT = XC1 + XC2 + XC3...
150
Capacitance is measured in __________.
* Farads
* Henrys
* Ohms
* Volts
Farads
151
A coil that opposes any change in current flow is called a(n) __________.
* Inductor
* Capacitor
* Transducer
* Oscillator
Inductor
152
__________ affects a DC circuit only when the current is first turned on, turned off, or when there is a change in the load resistance.
* Capacitance
* Inductance
* A time delay
* A relay
Inductance
153
Which of the following is not an example of an electromagnetic device?
* Solenoid
* Relay
* Resistor
* Motor
Resistor
154
One of the effects a capacitor has in a DC circuit is that it will __________.
* Charge to a voltage equal to the source voltage
* Continue to charge until the source is completely drained
* Act like an open until it is fully charged
* All of the above
* None of the above
Charge to a voltage equal to the source voltage
155
Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating total series inductance?
* LT = L1 + L2 + L3...
* LT = L1 × L2 × L3...
* LT = (1/L1) + (1/L2) + (1/L3)...
* All of the above
* None of the above
LT = L1 + L2 + L3...
156
A time-delay relay that uses an RC timing circuit is called a(n) __________.
* Solid-state, time-delay relay
* Adjustable relay
* Dashpot time-delay relay
* Motor-driven, time-delay relay
Solid-state, time-delay relay
157
In order to identify the series and parallel sections of a combination circuit, __________.
* Eliminate the parallel section
* Use a DMM
* Trace the current path
* All of the Above
* None of the Above
Trace the current path
158
Which of the following is an application of a variable resistor?
* Radio volume controls
* Motor speed control
* Rotary dimmer switch
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
159
In order for a firm voltage divider to operate properly, the load resistance value should be at least __________ times greater than resistance value of the voltage divider bleeder resistor.
* 10
* 2
* 5
* 8
10
160
A short circuit in the branch of a parallel circuit will __________.
* Cause an excessive amount of current to flow
* Damage or destroy the power supply
* Cause a short circuit across the power supply
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
161
Which of the following is an application of a combination circuit?
* Commercial building's lights
* Electrical outlets controlled by a switch
* Ceiling fan control
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
162
Which of the following is not one of the seven general steps for solving a combination circuit?
* Calculate the equivalent resistance for all parallel sections.
* Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.
* Calculate the total current
* Calculate the RC time constant.
Calculate the RC time constant.
163
A circuit that uses resistors to produce a voltage that is lower than the source voltage is called a __________.
* Step-down transformer
* Reduction circuit
* Voltage divider
* Voltage converter
Voltage divider
164
Which of the following is NOT a step for troubleshooting a parallel circuit to find a short?
* Disconnect the power supply.
* Look for visible signs of damage.
* Connect an ohmmeter across the main line.
* All of the above
* None of the above
None of the above
165
In a series-parallel circuit, components that are connected in parallel will display characteristics of a(n) __________.
* Series circuit
* Parallel circuit
* Open circuit
* Short circuit
Parallel circuit
166
What is the result when a branch of a parallel circuit has an open?
* It has no effect on the circuit.
* The circuit will not operate.
* The rest of the circuit will operate but with a reduced total current.
* It will cause a short to develop.
The rest of the circuit will operate but with a reduced total current.
167
A variable resistor is different from a fixed resistor because it __________.
* Doesn't have to be connected in a circuit to work
* Can be adjusted
* Can be used only in AC circuits
* All of the above
* None of the above
Can be adjusted
168
A common application of mutual inductance is found in a device called a __________.
* Buzzer
* Motor
* Relay
* Transformer
Transformer
169
In order to calculate the output voltage of a transformer, divide the input voltage by the __________.
* Frequency
* Turns ratio
* Input current
* Resistance
Turns ratio
170
A __________ is an electrical device that converts AC electricity from one voltage level to another.
* Transformer
* Primary coil
* Secondary coil
* Center tap
Transformer
171
Which of the following is a method to troubleshoot a transformer?
* Measuring the temperature
* Measuring the weight of the transformer
* Measuring the continuity of the coils
* All of the above
* None of the above
Measuring the continuity of the coils
172
A common application of a center tap on the secondary of a transformer is a(n) __________.
* Autotransformer
* Step-up transformer
* Distribution transformer
* All of the above
* None of the above
Distribution transformer
173
The current load of a transformer is the current drawn by the __________.
* Load connected to the transformer
* Secondary with no load connected
* Load connected to the primary
* Primary winding itself
Primary winding itself
174
The power relationship on a transformer states that __________.
* Power in = power out + loss
* Power in = 1/2 power out
* Power in = 2 × power out
* All of the above
* None of the above
Power in = power out + loss
175
Transformers are usually rated in units called __________.
* Amperes
* Hertz
* Volt Amperes
* Ohms
Volt Amperes
176
Which type of transformer is commonly used to reduce line voltages of 240 VAC or 480 VAC to 120 VAC?
* Isolation transformer
* Control transformer
* Autotransformer
* Distribution transformer
Control transformer
177
Which of the categories of transformers uses only one coil for the primary and secondary?
* Distribution transformer
* Autotransformer
* Isolation transformer
* Control transformer
Autotransformer
178
Which of the following is not a component of a transformer?
* Plate
* Secondary
* Primary
* Core
Plate
179
A power diagram is needed with a ladder diagram to __________.
* Determine the power device operation when the output is energized
* Show the logic of the circuit
* Determine what signals are being sent to the power device
* All of the above
* None of the above
Determine the power device operation when the output is energized
180
Which of the following statements is not true of a ladder diagram?
* It arranges wires in orderly rows.
* It can have more than one output device on each rung.
* It can have more than one input device on each rung.
* It shows input devices on the left side.
It can have more than one output device on each rung.
181
Devices called __________ often serve as the brains of an automated machine.
* Switches
* Latches
* Relays
* Power supplies
Relays
182
Which of the following is an element of control logic?
* NOR
* AND
* NOT
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
183
OR logic is formed by __________.
* Two normally closed switches in series
* Two normally open switches in parallel
* Two normally closed switches in parallel
* All of the above
* None of the above
Two normally open switches in parallel
184
NOT logic is formed by __________.
* Two normally closed switches
* Two normally open switches
* One normally open switch
* One normally closed switch
One normally closed switch
185
Which of the following logic elements describes two or more normally closed switches in parallel?
* NAND
* NOT
* NOR
* AND
NAND
186
Which one of the following logic elements describes a circuit with two normally open switches in series?
* OR
* NAND
* AND
* NOT
AND
187
Which of the following elements describes two or more normally closed switches in series?
* NOR
* NOT
* NAND
* OR
NOR
188
Which of the following is a rule for drawing a ladder diagram?
* Label all components.
* Number all rungs.
* Use only one load per line.
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
189
Which device provides the means by which electrical circuits control pneumatic or hydraulic systems?
* Relay
* Motor
* Solenoid-operated directional control valve
* None of the above
Solenoid-operated directional control valve
190
Which of the following is not a component of a ladder diagram?
* Input device
* Output device
* Conductors
* Valve
Valve
191
Which type of logic element uses a control relay?
* NAND
* NOR
* NOT
* Memory
Memory
192
Which of the following shows the connections for power devices?
* Ladder diagram
* Power diagram
* Wiring diagram
* Schematic diagram
Power diagram
193
Which of the following is not a component of a limit switch?
* Actuating mechanism
* Optical sensor
* Contacts
* All of the above
* None of the above
Optical sensor
194
A limit switch used to sense if the guard is in place on a machine is called a(n) __________.
* Idiot switch
* Safety interlock switch
* Kill switch
* All of the above
* None of the above
Safety interlock switch
195
A stop pushbutton is basically just a __________.
* Normally open pushbutton switch
* Normally closed pushbutton switch
* Panic switch
* All of the above
* None of the above
Normally closed pushbutton switch
196
Which of the following statements describes a limit switch?
* It is a switch used to sense the position of a machine member.
* It is a simple, low in cost, reliable device.
* It is the most frequently-used input device on automatic machines.
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
197
It is standard practice in industry to carry the flow of electricity to a solenoid through __________.
* Uninsulated wires
* Relay contacts
* Shielded cable
* A capacitor
Relay contacts
198
One method of de-energizing a seal-in circuit is to use __________.
* A manual override
* Another relay
* A solenoid
* A stop pushbutton
A stop pushbutton
199
A circuit designed to turn off an output after a step is performed is called a(n) __________.
* Event de-energizing circuit
* Kill circuit
* Overload circuit
* All of the above
* None of the above
Event de-energizing circuit
200
Which of the following is an application of a relay?
* Performing control logic
* Seal-in circuit
* Energizing a fluidpower valve solenoid
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
201
Turning outputs on or off through relay contacts is called __________.
* Control logic
* Bypass logic
* Indirect actuation
* All of the above
* None of the above
Control logic
202
Which of the following is a function of a safety interlock switch?
* It stops the machine if the guard is removed.
* It prevents machine startup if the guard is not in place.
* It keeps the operator from moving machinery parts.
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
203
An example of memory logic by a control relay is __________.
* Bypass logic
* Manual override
* Seal-in circuit
* All of the above
* None of the above
Seal-in circuit
204
Which of the following is not a component of a relay?
* Coil
* Contacts
* Valve
* Spring
Valve
205
An example of a manually operated single-cycle reciprocation circuit is a __________.
* Drill
* Lathe
* Punch Press
* All of the above
* None of the above
Punch Press
206
A control circuit that uses limit switches to sequence a series of events is called a(n) __________.
* Event sequencing circuit
* Follow the leader circuit
* Synchronized circuit
* Stair-step circuit
Event sequencing circuit
207
Fully automated machines require a __________.
* Single-cycle cylinder circuit
* Reverse circuit
* Continuous-cycle reciprocation circuit
* All of the above
* None of the above
Continuous-cycle reciprocation circuit
208
Which of the following is not a basic guideline to follow when working with manual control circuits?
* Energize solenoids through relays if possible.
* Jogging should be done at highest machine speed.
* When the machine is in the manual mode, the automatic mode should be locked out.
* All of the above
* None of the above
Jogging should be done at highest machine speed.
209
The __________ timer operates in a manner that is opposite to the on-delay timer.
* Off-Delay
* Instantaneous
* Pneumatic
* Solid-state
Off-Delay
210
An on-delay timer relay's contacts will not change states until __________.
* The coil has de-energized
* A predetermined time has elapsed
* The coil has been energized
* The circuit is turned off
A predetermined time has elapsed
211
One machine that uses a time-delay relay to perform a cylinder dwell is a(n) __________.
* Automatic carwash
* Centrifugal air compressor
* Plastic injection molding machine
* Washing machine
Plastic injection molding machine
212
How are machines usually changed from automatic to manual mode?
* A special program
* Selector switch
* Limit switch
* Pushbutton switch
Selector switch
213
When time-delay relays are used in time-driven sequencing, they basically take the place of __________.
* Limit switches
* Start pushbuttons
* Stop pushbuttons
* Manual overrides
Limit switches
214
In order to avoid seriously overheating the motor on a centrifugal air compressor at startup, it is recommended that the __________.
* Motor be overhauled
* Motor be unloaded when started
* Oil be changed every week
* All of the above
* None of the above
Motor be unloaded when started
215
Given multiple cylinders of different bore and stroke, which would be the best method to synchronize them?
* Flow control valves
* Optical sensors
* Time-delay relay
* All of the above
* None of the above
Flow control valves
216
Which of the following is not a component of a time-delay relay?
* Coil
* Timing mechanism
* Alarm
* Contacts
Alarm
217
An example of using one limit switch to control multiple cylinders is the __________.
* Crimping press
* Hydraulic press
* Printing press
* All of the above
* None of the above
Hydraulic press
218
An application of the two limit switch control method is a __________.
* Hydraulic press
* Printing press
* Crimping machine
* Shearing press
Crimping machine
219
How many limit switches are needed if the cylinders to be synchronized are attached to the same machine member?
* One
* Two
* Three
* Cannot be determined
Two
220
Which mode is usually used for machine setup and maintenance?
* Manual
* Automatic
* Standby
* All of the above
* None of the above
Manual
221
One reason why machines use multiple cylinders operating together is to __________.
* Reduce cost
* Reduce labor
* Provide extra force
* All of the above
* None of the above
Provide extra force
222
Controlling two cylinders that are not attached to the same machine part requires __________.
* One limit switch
* Two limit switches
* Four limit switches
* Cannot determine
Two limit switches
223
The manual control of cylinders through pushbuttons is called __________.
* Stepping
* Running
* Jogging
* Creeping
Jogging
224
A(n) __________ is a high speed communications connection used to exchange data between production line equipment and other devices within a manufacturing facility.
* Serial network
* Feedback network
* Communication loop
* Industrial network
Industrial network
225
__________ uses several protocols to convert data from its native format, such as a text message, into a format that can be sent and tracked from the source node to the destination node of a network.
* Ethernet TCP/IP
* RS232
* RS485
* DeviceNet
Ethernet TCP/IP
226
EtherNet/IP uses the __________ (protocol) to produce a network suitable for use on automation and control level.
* Serial
* Deterministic
* CIP
* Low-speed
CIP
227
The three network levels are Enterprise, Automation and __________, and Field Device.
* Primary
* Control
* Discrete
* Ethernet
Control
228
A PLC requires much less __________ than a hardwired relay panel that could do the same job.
* Memory
* Thought
* Space
* Safety
Space
229
PLCs provide a means of controlling machines and other industrial application with a(n) __________ instead of using hardwired devices.
* PDC
* Industrial computer
* PPC
* PTC
Industrial computer
230
The six basic components of most PLCs are the power supply, the input and output modules, the processor module, the programming device, and the __________.
* I/O chassis
* Input
* Output
* Remote module
I/O chassis
231
The IP address of a CompactLogix PLC that already has an IP address is viewed and edited using __________ communications software.
* RSDriver
* RSNetwork
* RSLinx
* Studio
RSLinx
232
__________ are software programs that allow a device to connect to a network and communicate with other devices.
* Projects
* Drivers
* Packets
* Files
Drivers
233
Two addresses are used for Ethernet communications: Media Access Control (MAC) and __________.
* Transport Control Protocol (TCP)
* Internet Protocol (IP)
* Ethernet TCP/IP
* DeviceNet
Internet Protocol (IP)
234
The 1769-L16ER controller's USB port is USB __________ compatible and operates at 12 Mbps.
* 1.0
* 2.0
* 3.0
* 4.0
2
235
A PLC and PC are connected in a(n) __________ network using a single Ethernet cable.
* Daisy-chain connection
* Ethernet switch
* Profibus
* Point-to-Point
Point-to-Point
236
A(n) __________ is used to download hardware configurations and programs to a PLC.
* PC
* HMI
* Input module
* Output module
PC
237
__________ is an embedded operating system that controls how microprocessor-controlled hardware devices operate.
* Drivers
* Major revision
* Minor Revision
* Firmware
Firmware
238
__________ is a network search utility that shows the layout of every network that has a driver configured in RSLinx.
* Who Active
* RSLinx
* Studio
* BOOTP
Who Active
239
__________ displays networks and devices in a similar manner to Windows Explorer.
* TIA Portal
* Studio 5000
* RSWHO
* FactoryTalk View ME
RSWHO
240
The basic operation of a(n) __________ is to scan instructions, monitor the status of input devices, and produce outputs based on which inputs are on or off.
* HMI panel
* PLC
* Input module
* Output module
PLC
241
A(n) __________ is a file that contains a hardware configuration and control program.
* Program
* Project
* Hardware configuration
* Packet
Project
242
A problem with identifying a controller's firmware revision by examining the hardware's __________ is that it is often inaccessible once installed.
* Product label
* Firmware revision via RSLinx
* Firmware revision via upload
* Firmware revision via Studio 5000
Product label
243
All PLCs must have a(n) __________ to operate.
* On/off switch
* PC
* User-developed project
* HMI panel
User-developed project
244
Objects contained in the PanelView's displays are configured to exchange data with specified PLC memory locations having names, or __________.
* Tags
* Packets
* Parameters
* Variables
Tags
245
__________ is the default communications option for a PanelView Plus terminal.
* MPI
* RS232
* Ethernet
* Wireless
Ethernet
246
PanelView Plus applications are created in __________ using graphics and tags.
* FactoryTalk View Studio
* RSView
* RSLinx
* Studio
FactoryTalk View Studio
247
Allen-Bradley __________ operator interface terminals are programmable operator stations that enable interaction between users and a PLC controlled system or process.
* HIM
* PanelView Plus
* OPC panel
* KTP600
PanelView Plus
248
PanelView Plus terminals provide a(n) __________ mode used for configuring terminal and application settings.
* Run
* Configuration
* Sleep
* Ethernet
Configuration
249
The __________ pushbutton changes the terminal's display to another assigned display when operated.
* Activate Screen
* Goto Screen
* Activate Screen By Number
* Stop Runtime
Goto Screen
250
__________ objects display information on the PanelView plus display that notifies the operator about the status of the machine or process.
* Input
* Output
* Numeric Input
* Alarm
Output
251
__________ objects can be momentary, maintained, latched, or multistate and are operated by touching the object on a touch screen terminal.
* Test
* Pushbutton
* Numeric Input
* Numeric Input Enable
Pushbutton
252
__________ objects appear on the PanelView's display but do not interact with a PLC's data tags.
* Static
* Dynamic
* Fixed
* Variable
Static
253
In the module tag Local:1:I.Data, Local refers to the module's __________.
* Name
* Revision
* Location
* Operation
Location
254
The four languages used to program a CompactLogix PLC are sequential function chart, __________, function block diagram, and ladder logic.
* Structured text
* Basic
* Cobol
* C+
Structured text
255
When voltage is applied to input terminal Local:1:I.Data.0 of a PLC, a programmed XIC instruction with the same address will __________.
* Remain unchanged
* Open
* Close
* None of the above
Close
256
__________ are named according to their location, slot, and data type.
* Configurations
* Module-defined tags
* PLC types
* I/O modules
Module-defined tags
257
In a PLC program, arranging two XIC instructions in series is an example of a(n) __________ logic element.
* OR
* NOT
* AND
* NAND
AND
258
PLC input/output diagrams are used to show the specific physical connections between the __________ and the PLC I/O terminals.
* Network
* Devices
* PC
* HMI panel
Devices
259
The __________ instruction of a ladder logic network operates in a similar manner to a hard-wired output device.
* OET
* OTE
* OJT
* TEO
OTE
260
Tags are __________ names given to PLC memory locations used to store information.
* Image-based
* Location-based
* Text-based
* Version-based
Text-based
261
The binary numbering system is a base 2 numbering system that includes two symbols, 0 and __________.
* 0 Ω
* 1
* 2
* 3
1
262
The base of the decimal numbering system is __________.
* 1
* 8
* 10
* 16
10
263
Five types of numbering systems are decimal, binary, BCD, octal, and __________.
* Hexadecimal
* Dexadecimal
* Octaldecimal
* Pexadecimal
Hexadecimal
264
Two main areas of a CompactLogix processor's __________ are Tasks and Tags.
* Program
* Project
* Memory
* Configuration
Memory
265
__________ tags are 1-bit memory locations used to store the status of a device or instruction.
* INT
* Boolean
* DINT
* REAL
Boolean
266
The file extension given to an Studio 5000 project is __________.
* .L5K
* .ACD
* .APA
* .mer
.ACD
267
The __________ dialog is used to select the controller and configure various aspects of its hardware.
* Controller
* I/O Controller
* New Project
* I/O configuration
New Project
268
A controller project's version number indicates the Studio 5000 software version that the project was developed with. It also determines the __________ revision the target controller must be running to avoid a firmware mismatch.
* Major firmware
* Minor firmware
* Catalog
* Software
Major firmware
269
Controller __________ is stored in the controller project and transferred to the processor the next time the project is downloaded to the controller.
* Configuration
* Version
* Project
* File
Configuration
270
All devices that communicate with the controller must be added to the controller project's __________ configuration.
* Software
* I/O
* HMI panel
* Network
I/O
271
CompactLogix I/O modules are intelligent devices, meaning they have on-board __________.
* I/O
* Processors
* Networks
* Software
Processors
272
The __________ is the area that displays the ladder logic for the routine.
* Routine View
* Workspace
* Ladder View
* FBD View
Routine View
273
Stop pushbuttons are always normally __________ contacts.
* Open
* Closed
* Energized
* De-energized
Closed
274
One of the advantages of a PLC is that it permits many instructions to be controlled by one __________.
* Output
* Input
* Memory location
* Network
Input
275
The MainRoutine may contain all of the program's logic or it may contain instructions that call other routines called __________.
* Tasks
* Subroutines
* Functions
* Function blocks
Subroutines
276
Using the __________ option automatically identifies the controller's firmware revision and launches the correct version of Studio 5000.
* Create New Projects
* Create from Import
* Open existing project
* Open from Upload
Open from Upload
277
__________ is the user text associated with the rungs and instructions of a controller project that explains the operation of that item.
* Project documentation
* Project description
* Ladder Logic
* I/O diagram
Project documentation
278
One method of controlling multiple outputs at the same time is by placing each output on a separate rung and using multiple input instructions with the same __________.
* Input
* Output
* Tag
* Routine
Tag
279
A variable speed drive (VSD) can be controlled by a __________.
* Servo
* PLC
* HMI
* Valve
PLC
280
Input instructions having __________ addresses function as dictated by the state of the OTE output instruction.
* Tag
* Input
* Output
* Boolean
Output
281
The PLC output __________ should include the NC contacts of the motor starter if applicable.
* Indicator
* Diagram
* Wiring
* Schematic
Diagram
282
A programmable controller's outputs can control both __________ and electric motors.
* Inputs
* Fluid power motors
* Outputs
* Power supplies
Fluid power motors
283
PLC seal-in logic works by using a second XIC instruction that is connected in __________ with the XIC instruction which turns on the output.
* Series
* Parallel
* Unison
* None of the above
Parallel
284
A __________ is used to drive a motor at speeds that vary from zero to a maximum speed using digital or analog control signals.
* Potentiometer
* Variable speed drive (VSD)
* Analog input
* Analog output
Variable speed drive (VSD)
285
The __________ type defines the size in bits, bytes, or words of data that a tag will use in memory.
* Memory
* Data
* Alias
* Base tag
Data
286
Each element of an array has the same name and is identified by a numeric __________.
* Prefix
* Suffix
* Address
* String
Suffix
287
Studio 5000 provides __________ data types to the user that are the building blocks of all tags and tag structures used in the ControlLogix projects.
* 2
* 3
* 4
* 5
5
288
Two applications of internal output instructions are program memory logic and __________.
* Safety interlocks
* Program interlocks
* Sequencing
* Memory
Program interlocks
289
Multiple safety interlocks can be used in a program by placing input instructions in __________ with each other on a rung.
* Series
* Parallel
* Opposition
* Reverse
Series
290
To create a tag, the user must display the __________ dialog and enter the tag's parameters.
* New Input
* New Tag
* New Output
* New Routine
New Tag
291
Two applications in which interlocks are used are: __________ and safety.
* Interlocks
* Sequencing
* Branching
* Sealing-in
Sequencing
292
PLC programs can use timers as well as __________ to sequence events.
* Maintained pushbuttons
* Limit switches
* Selector switches
* Math instructions
Limit switches
293
The __________ timer instruction energizes its DN bit after its accumulated value is equal to its preset value.
* Timer On-Delay
* Timer Off-Delay
* RTO
* TONR
Timer On-Delay
294
When the __________ timer instruction is de-energized, the timer increases the accumulated value by the amount of time the instruction is de-energized.
* Timer On-Delay
* Timer Off-Delay
* RTO
* TONR
Timer Off-Delay
295
PLC time-driven sequencing program can be designed by using a(n) __________ of timer instructions, with each instruction controlling an event.
* Series
* Parallel
* BRANCH
* ARRAY
Series
296
The RTO instruction requires a separate __________ instruction to reset its accumulated value.
* Stop
* OTE
* RES
* RST
RES
297
A __________ timer accumulates the total amount of time the instruction has been energized and retains this value even when de-energized.
* Non-retentive
* Retentive
* TON
* TOF
Retentive
298
To enter a CTUD counter instruction, both the CTU and the CTD instructions must have the same __________.
* Instruction tag
* Accumulated value
* Preset
* Alias
Instruction tag
299
A counter's done (DN) bit is set whenever the accumulated value is equal to or greater than the __________ value.
* Reset
* TT
* Preset
* Total
Preset
300
The CTU instruction increases its __________ by one each time the rung containing the instruction goes from false to true.
* Preset value
* Accumulated value
* Count Value
* EN output
Accumulated value
301
The __________ instruction decreases the accumulated value by 1 each time the rung containing the instruction goes from false to true.
* Count down
* Count up
* Count up/down
* Count down/up
Count down
302
The normal operating mode of machines is the __________ mode.
* Manual
* Automatic
* Jog
* Home
Automatic
303
On/off controllers do not provide steady __________ current or voltage to regulate the process.
* Input
* Instruction
* Output
* Power supply
Output
304
In the continuous-cycle program, the start and stop pushbuttons control an internal __________, which in turn starts and stops the sequence.
* Input
* XIC
* Coil
* XIO
Coil
305
The __________ function will cause a machine to stop after finishing its current step, then resume operation with the next step when an input signal is received.
* Stop
* Halt
* Cycle halt
* Cycle stop
Halt
306
A PLC uses __________ to cause each sequence step to occur by turning output devices on or off.
* I/O
* Logic
* User interaction
* Inputs
Logic
307
A(n) __________ diagram lets you determine how the machine action affects the PLC inputs and how the PLC outputs affect the machine action.
* Power
* I/O
* Schematic
* Line
Power
308
Most __________ machines are designed with more than one type of stop function to meet various situations where a machine should be stopped.
* Homing
* Jogging
* Automatic
* Manual
Automatic
309
On/off control is a(n) __________ control method that is commonly used in PLC programming.
* Closed-loop
* Open-loop
* PID
* Zone
Closed-loop
310
The manual mode is useful for __________ a machine, because doing so in automatic mode would be dangerous.
* Troubleshooting
* Operating
* Homing
* Jogging
Troubleshooting
311
In a single-cycle sequence program, the start and stop inputs __________ control the output.
* Indirectly
* Directly
* Do not
* None of the above
Directly
312
Program control instructions alter the program __________ of a PLC from its normal sequence.
* Scan
* I/O
* Rungs
* Name
Scan
313
The First Scan flag tag name is __________.
* F:SF
* S:FS
* F:FS
* S:SF
S:FS
314
__________ a PLC program puts all outputs in startup state and checks inputs to verify that the process can safely be restarted.
* Stopping
* Halting
* Initializing
* Downloading
Initializing
315
An MCR instruction that is used with the __________ flag can also be used to initialize a PLC application to some predetermined state.
* Second Scan
* First Scan
* Minor Fault
* Major Fault
First Scan
316
An MCR zone uses two MCR __________, one on the initial MCR rung and one on the end MCR rung.
* Block instructions
* Coils
* Pointers
* Names
Coils
317
The First Scan Flag is often used in applications to __________ a program to a known state on power-up of the controller.
* Stop
* Halt
* Initialize
* Create
Initialize
318
When the __________ instruction is true, all program logic between it and the LBL instruction is frozen in its last state.
* JSR
* XIC
* JMP
* JPM
JMP
319
A JMP instruction must always be used with a(n) __________ instruction.
* DEST
* LBL
* JSR
* CPT
LBL
320
The JSR instruction is a program control instruction that causes the processor to run a(n) __________.
* Function
* Function block
* Subroutine
* MainRoutine
Subroutine
321
A subroutine is a program that can be called by another __________.
* Routine
* Controller
* HMI panel
* Name
Routine
322
Energizing the ADD instruction causes the processor to add the contents of Source A to the contents of Source B and place the result in the tag defined in the instruction's __________ field.
* Source A
* Destination
* Source B
* DEST B
Destination
323
The current __________ of a SUB instruction's Source or Destination is displayed below its tag.
* Tagname
* Value
* Destination
* Source A
Value
324
Sources A and B of the DIV instruction may contain __________ or constant values.
* Contacts
* Tags
* Coils
* I/O
Tags
325
Energizing the __________ instruction causes the value in Source A to be multiplied by the value stored in Source B.
* MUL
* ADD
* DIV
* Sub
MUL
326
Some of the more common functions include addition, __________, division, and multiplication.
* Exponentiation
* Logarithms
* Subtraction
* Integration
Subtraction
327
The __________ field contains the tag to which the instruction writes the result of the operation.
* Source A
* Source B
* Destination
* Output
Destination
328
__________ tag types may contain integer values between -32,678 and +32,767.
* SINT
* INT
* DINT
* REAL
INT
329
__________ instructions are PLC instructions that copy the contents of almost any PLC memory tag to another.
* JSR
* LBL
* Data Transfer
* JMP
Data Transfer
330
The __________ instruction is used to copy the data contained in one tag to another tag.
* MOV
* JMP
* LBL
* MCR
MOV
331
Energizing the __________ instruction causes the PLC to subtract one value (Source B) from another value (Source A).
* ADD
* MUL
* Sub
* DIV
Sub
332
FactoryTalk View ME Station may be used on a PC to __________.
* Run a terminal remotely
* Replace a terminal
* Test applications
* Provide Internet access to the process
Test applications
333
__________ is a Windows-based software package that allows user to create PanelView Plus application screens.
* RSLinx
* FactoryTalk View Studio ME
* Studio
* PanelBuilder 32
FactoryTalk View Studio ME
334
The Communication Setup editor's __________ defines the source of tags and/or tag data when developing and testing an application using FactoryTalk View Studio.
* Runtime path
* PLC path
* Design (local) path
* HMI path
Design (local) path
335
The __________ contains the dialogs and editors needed to build and configure the application program.
* Ladder Editor
* Explorer window
* Controller organizer
* Status bar
Explorer window
336
__________ are variable memory areas that reside locally, in the Panelview Plus' application memory.
* HMI tags
* PLC tags
* HMI-PLC tags
* HMI icons
HMI tags
337
A PanelView Plus __________ is a user-developed software program that operates the PanelView Plus terminal.
* Project
* Application
* Display
* Configuration
Application
338
The __________ is used to show and configure a path or paths between the development PC (local) and the drivers and devices with which the PC may communicate.
* Verifier
* Design (Local) tab
* Controller
* Screen Properties
Design (Local) tab
339
The __________ dialog enables users to configure such things as the display's type, size, position, number, and screen security settings and maximum tag update time.
* Controller
* Shortcut verifier
* Who Active
* Display Settings
Display Settings
340
__________ indicators are objects that receive data representing one or more conditions of a machine or process and can display up to 2,000 unique states.
* Text
* Multistate
* Pushbutton
* Trend
Multistate
341
The __________ pushbutton object changes state when pressed and retains that state until pressed again.
* Maintained
* Momentary
* NC
* No
Maintained
342
__________ exchange data with a PLC or other device through tags.
* Static objects
* Controller objects
* Dynamic objects
* HMI objects
Dynamic objects
343
__________ objects are static objects used to navigate the screens of a PanelView application.
* Multistate indicator
* Display List Selector
* Pushbutton
* Screen selector
Display List Selector
344
__________ provide supplemental information to the user by labeling, explaining, or describing other objects on the screen.
* Dynamic objects
* Text Objects
* Pushbutton objects
* Indicator objects
Text Objects
345
One method of selecting multiple objects is by holding the __________ key while selecting objects to be added to the group.
* Shift
* Alt
* Ctrl
* Tab
Ctrl
346
The Local Message Display object monitors its tag value __________ and displays pre-defined messages at configured tag, or trigger, values.
* Connection
* Input
* Output
* Data
Connection
347
Numeric Output objects are created and configured similarly to other __________ objects.
* Digital
* Static
* Dynamic
* Configured
Dynamic
348
The __________ displays a process variable as a rotating needle with a circular scale and tick marks.
* List selector
* Gauge
* Trend
* Numeric Output
Gauge
349
The file's __________ Value defines the value the object's value connection must equal to display the associated message.
* Tag
* Data
* Trigger
* Numeric
Trigger
350
__________ objects allow an operator to enter numeric values on the PanelView Plus terminal and send the values through a data server to a device, such as a PLC.
* Pushbutton
* Screen selector
* Numeric Input
* Numeric Output
Numeric Input
351
The Connections tab is used to establish connections between the numeric input enable object and the __________.
* Analog inputs
* PLC tags
* HMI tags
* PLC inputs
PLC tags
352
Message Displays are handled by either the operator acknowledging the message, which removes it from the message __________, or by closing the display.
* Display
* Queue
* Screen
* List
Queue
353
Up to 10,000 messages, each up to 256 characters, can be created in a single __________ file.
* Message
* Alarm
* Information
* Diagnostic
Message
354
__________ routing determines which message categories should be routed to the application's Diagnostic List.
* Alarm
* Diagnostic
* Message
* Information
Message
355
Alarms are created and configured as a(n) __________ of operations that need to be performed in order.
* Number
* List
* Series
* Recommendation
Series
356
__________ messages are displayed in several formats including pop up displays, lists, and logs.
* Diagnostic
* Display
* Error
* Connection
Diagnostic
357
__________ represent the highest level of warning within the application and usually indicate something has failed or is about to fail in the machine or process.
* Messages
* Alarms
* Diagnostic messages
* Information messages
Alarms
358
Once triggered, operators may respond to an alarm in one of several ways. The alarm may be acknowledged, cleared, silenced, or __________.
* Restored
* Reset
* Ignored
* Logged
Reset
359
The __________ utility is used to edit the type of errors that are logged and where the messages are displayed.
* Error Editor
* Diagnostic List Setup
* Log Editor
* Communications Setup
Diagnostic List Setup
360
There are two types of analog signals produced most often by sensors: DC voltage and DC __________.
* Power
* Resistance
* Current
* Ground
Current
361
__________ is the smallest detectable, incremental change of the input variable that can be detected in the output signal.
* Resolution
* Precision
* Accuracy
* Noise
Resolution
362
Detailed sensor specifications include properties like output, offset, range, error, __________, and sensitivity.
* Tolerance
* Resolution
* Span
* Retentivity
Tolerance
363
The __________ of a sensor is calculated by dividing the output span by the input range.
* Retentivity
* Sensitivity
* Resolution
* Span
Sensitivity
364
Sensors that transmit a continuous output that varies over time are called __________ sensors.
* Digital
* Analog
* Differential
* Single-ended
Analog
365
Analog inputs that are built into the local controller's PLC system are called __________ inputs.
* External
* Integrated
* Modular
* Configurable
Integrated
366
__________ modules sense the variable signal level applied to their terminals and convert it into a digital value.
* Discrete input
* Discrete output
* Analog input
* Analog output
Analog input
367
__________ is used to prevent installation of a module in the wrong slot in a chassis.
* Electronic keying
* Compatible Module
* Disable Keying
* Exact Match
Electronic keying
368
The __________ configuration software replaces the hardware DIP switches and jumpers used to configure earlier PLC analog modules.
* New Module Wizard
* RSLinx
* FactoryTalk View
* FactoryTalk ME
New Module Wizard
369
Data on the __________ tab comes directly from the analog output module. Studio 5000 must be online with the processor to display status information.
* General tab
* Connection
* Module Info
* Configuration
Module Info
370
The analog input module __________ the raw digital value into a value in engineering units.
* Updates
* Converts
* Configures
* Extracts
Converts
371
__________ tag structures are automatically created when an analog input module is added to the controller's I/O configuration.
* Configuration data
* Input Data
* Output Data
* Module-defined
Module-defined
372
__________ parameters are used to set up analog input channels to receive signals from their field devices and transmitters and convert them into scaled digital values.
* Connection
* Configuration
* Module
* Real Time
Configuration
373
After an analog input module is initially configured, the parameters can be edited using the __________ utility.
* Module Properties
* Tag Monitor
* Workspace
* Project Tree
Module Properties
374
The data stored by CompactLogix analog modules can be viewed using the __________ feature of Studio 5000 software.
* Module Properties
* Tag Monitor
* Workspace
* Project Tree
Tag Monitor
375
__________ parameters define how often the analog input module sends data to the controller, if at all, as well as the controller fault handling if communication is disrupted.
* Tag Monitor
* Workspace
* Project Tree
* Connection screen
Connection screen
376
On/off control systems maintain the state of a process by keeping the process __________ within a specified operating range.
* Fluid
* Variable
* Gas
* Liquid
Variable
377
__________ instruction is not intended to compare numerical values.
* GRT
* CMP
* LIM
* MEQ
MEQ
378
The __________ instruction only passes true rung continuity when the value of Source A is greater than the value of Source B.
* LES
* LEO
* GRT
* GTE
GRT
379
A program that controls an oven uses one __________ instruction to activate the low temperature OTE.
* LEQ
* GEQ
* EQU
* NEQ
LEQ
380
__________ instruction has the ability to utilize algebraic comparison symbols along with operators +,-, *, and / to mathematically modify a source input.
* CMP
* LIM
* NEQ
* EQU
CMP
381
In North America, the __________ signal is the most commonly used signal range for output devices.
* 0 mA to 20 mA
* 4 mA to 20 mA
* -5 VDC to +5 VDC
* -10 VDC to +10 VDC
4 mA to 20 mA
382
A(n) __________ is a device that converts energy from one form to another.
* Sensor
* Transducer
* Converter
* PLC
Transducer
383
CompactLogix __________ modules receive digital output values from the controller, manipulate them according to user-supplied configuration data, and then convert them into variable signals that are applied to the module terminals and ultimately an output device.
* Discrete input
* Discrete output
* Analog input
* Analog output
Analog output
384
The ability to __________ the physical output signal of an output transducer for a given input is a useful skill for troubleshooting and design.
* Troubleshoot
* Calculate
* Store
* Display
Calculate
385
The __________ of an output transducer is the resulting change in physical output given a signal change to the input.
* Resolution
* Span
* Sensitivity
* Output
Sensitivity
386
__________ refers to the ability of the device's digital-to-analog converter (D/A converter) to produce a smooth analog output.
* Sensitivity
* Resolution
* Span
* Linearity
Resolution
387
CompactLogix analog output modules receive __________ values from the controller, manipulates them according to configuration data, then converts them into variable signals that are ultimately applied to an output device.
* Analog output
* Digital output
* Analout input
* Digital input
Digital output
388
The __________ is used to view a CompactLogix analog output module's configuration status and channel data.
* Configuration utility
* Tag Monitor utility
* Status Tab
* Channel Data utility
Tag Monitor utility
389
To troubleshoot analog modules, it is important to know what information is stored in __________ and where to find it.
* The software
* The device
* The tag structure
* The configuration tab
The tag structure
390
Output configuration settings are used to match the __________ to the signal required by the output device and/or application being controlled.
* Output channel signal
* Input channel signal
* Signal type
* Digital-to-analog converter
Output channel signal
391
The Studio 5000 software configuration replaces the __________ used to configure earlier PLC analog modules.
* Buttons
* Digital signals
* DIP switches and jumpers
* Pin select device
DIP switches and jumpers
392
Data on the __________ tab comes directly from the analog output module. Studio 5000 must be online with the processor to display status information.
* General tab
* Connection
* Module Info
* Configuration
Module Info
393
__________ tag structures are automatically created when an analog input module is added to the controller's I/O configuration.
* Configuration data
* Input Data
* Output Data
* Module-defined
Module-defined
394
The __________ settings are used to match the output channel signal to the signal required by the output device and/or application being controlled.
* Output Configuration
* Connection
* High Engineering
* Low Engineering
Output Configuration
395
__________ is used to prevent installation of a module in the wrong slot in a chassis.
* Electronic keying
* Compatible Module
* Disable Keying
* Exact Match
Electronic keying
396
Which of the following is not a result of connecting a dual-voltage motor to operate on the higher voltage?
* Increased current draw
* Reduced line losses
* Better efficiency
* Reduced operating costs
Increased current draw
397
The __________ is the accepted standard in the United States for safely installing and maintaining electrical systems and equipment.
* NEMA
* IEC
* OSHA
* NEC
NEC
398
If the service factor for a motor is not given on the nameplate, what should you assume the service factor to be?
* 1.5
* 1
* 1.25
* 1.35
1
399
Parts of an electrical system that should be connected to earth ground include __________.
* Metal raceways
* Metal conduit
* Metal enclosures
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
400
A grounded neutral wire can be used as an equipment ground.
* True
* False
False
401
A time-delay fuse only has one element.
* True
* False
False
402
Which of the following is not a part of a fusible disconnect?
Fuses
* Manually-operated switch
* Enclosure
* All of the above
* None of the above
None of the above
403
Which of the following is not a basic rule of electrical safety?
* Remove all metal jewelry.
* Always keep tools and test equipment organized.
* Always work by yourself.
* Work with one hand when possible.
Always work by yourself.
404
Three-phase power is transmitted in phases that are __________ degrees apart.
* 60
* 120
* 90
* 100
120
405
Which of the following is not a common voltage supplied by a wye-configured system?
* 240 VAC
* 480 VAC
* 208 VAC
* 600 VAC
240 VAC
406
Who should remove a lockout/tagout?
* Only the person(s) who installed it
* Anyone who needs to use the equipment
* Only the manufacturer of the equipment
* Any supervisor or management personnel
Only the person(s) who installed it
407
Which of the following is a component of a typical three-phase squirrel-cage motor?
* Copper bars
* End rings
* Iron core
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
408
Which of the following is a factor that must be considered when selecting overcurrent protection devices for a motor control circuit?
* Type of enclosure used
* Length of wire used
* Rated full-load current of the motor
* All of the above
* None of the above
Rated full-load current of the motor
409
A ground fault occurs when __________.
* The ground conductor is opened
* One of the phases is opened
* One of the phases becomes grounded
* The system becomes unbalanced
One of the phases becomes grounded
410
Which of the following items on a motor's nameplate is used to determine how much output power a motor can safely produce above its rated output power?
* Frame
* Ambient temperature
* Service Factor
* Insulation Class
Service Factor
411
Which type of overload uses a coil to sense the level of motor current?
* Solid-state overload
* Magnetic overload
* Manual overload
* All of the above
* None of the above
Magnetic overload
412
Magnetic contactors open and close their contacts through the use of a magnetic coil.
* True
* False
True
413
The type of manual starter used for three-phase motors is a __________.
* Fractional horsepower starter
* Integral horsepower starter
* Single-pole starter
* Two-pole starter
Integral horsepower starter
414
Which of the following is a function of motor control?
* Speed control
* Short circuit
* Disconnect
* Motor starter
* None of the above
Speed control
415
Some manual motor starters use a special sensing coil that verifies the presence of incoming voltage to open the starter contacts when the voltage is below a preset level.
* True
* False
True
416
Bimetallic overloads do not allow you to adjust the trip point.
* True
* False
False
417
__________ protection on a manual starter will prevent the automatic restart of a motor when recovering from a power loss.
* Undervoltage
* Overvoltage
* Overcurrent
* All of the above
* None of the above
Undervoltage
418
A magnetic overload includes a dashpot which allows adjustments to the response time of the overload.
* True
* False
True
419
The contacts of a manual starter will remain in the actuated position when power is lost.
* True
* False
True
420
Which of the following is a basic requirement for a typical motor installation?
* Controller
* Short circuit protection
* Disconnect
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
421
A motor starter is the same as a motor controller.
* True
* False
False
422
Transformers are rated in units called Volt-Amperes (VA).
* True
* False
True
423
Which of the following statements is not true of an electrical schematic?
* An electrical schematic is a form of visual shorthand where each component is represented by a standard symbol.
* Electrical schematics are helpful in troubleshooting a circuit.
* An electrical schematic never shows electrical parameters such as voltage, current, or resistance.
* An electrical schematic shows all components in a circuit and how they are connected.
An electrical schematic never shows electrical parameters such as voltage, current, or resistance.
424
The relationship between the input voltage and output voltage of a transformer is based on the __________.
* Turns ratio
* Core resistance
* Wire resistance
* Type of wire used
Turns ratio
425
When a control transformer is used, NEC requires that both sides of the secondary must be connected to earth ground.
* True
* False
False
426
To get a control voltage of 120 VAC from a control transformer if the line voltage is 240 VAC, the primaries must be connected in series.
* True
* False
False
427
To get a control voltage of 120 VAC from a dual-voltage control transformer if the line voltage is 480 VAC, the primaries must be connected in series.
* True
* False
True
428
When checking a transformer with an ohmmeter, which of the following can you check for?
* Coils shorted to the core
* Opens in coils
* Shorts between coils
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
429
To avoid running separate lines to a machine for power devices and control devices, the higher voltage required by the power devices can be produced by using a control transformer to step up the control voltage.
* True
* False
False
430
Which of the following allows you to control when the current will flow in a circuit?
* Conductor
* Power supply
* Output device
* Input device
Input device
431
A transformer uses the principle of __________.
* Mutual impedance
* Mutual inductance
* Shared inductance
* Alternating impedance
Mutual inductance
432
The output voltage of a transformer can be determined if you know the input voltage and the turns ratio.
* True
* False
True
433
Which of the following is not a component of a transformer?
* Primary coil
* Secondary coil
* Electrical coupling
* All of the above
* None of the above
Electrical coupling
434
The NEC requires that for an output voltage higher than 50 VAC one side of a control transformer secondary be connected to ground or both sides of the secondary must be fused.
* True
* False
True
435
Which of the following is a component of a ladder diagram?
* Conductors
* Power supply
* Output devices
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
436
NAND logic is formed by 2 or more N.O. switches in parallel.
* True
* False
False
437
Which of the following is a step in a control process?
* Logic
* Output
* Input
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
438
Which of the following statements is true of NOT logic?
* NOT logic requires that a single input not be activated for an output to be energized.
* NOT logic can be formed by a single N.C. switch.
* A common use of NOT logic is an emergency stop pushbutton.
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
439
When a pushbutton switch with N.O. contacts is activated, the switch will produce a(n) __________.
* Open circuit
* Closed circuit
* Short circuit
* All of the above
* None of the above
Closed circuit
440
The best method for reading ladder diagrams is to start at the upper left (first input on the first rung) and work your way across the rung before moving to the first input of the next rung and work across.
* True
* False
True
441
Which of the following is one of the six elements of control logic?
* NAND
* OR
* NOT
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
442
Selector switches are often used to change the operating mode of a machine.
* True
* False
True
443
NOR logic is formed by 2 or more N.C. switches in parallel.
* True
* False
False
444
Which of the following is not a rule of drawing a ladder diagram?
* Label all components
* Each rung (line) can have more than one output device (load)
* Number each rung
* Show control devices only
Each rung (line) can have more than one output device (load)
445
An OR logic circuit is formed by 2 or more N.O. switches in parallel.
* True
* False
True
446
Manual control systems require a pilot device to control the operation.
* True
* False
False
447
Which of the following statements is not true of AND logic?
* All input devices on a rung must be activated.
* An AND logic circuit is made of 2 or more N.O. switches in series.
* In an AND logic circuit, only one of the inputs must be activated to energize the output.
* All of the above
* None of the above
In an AND logic circuit, only one of the inputs must be activated to energize the output.
448
A ladder diagram arranges the conductors in straight horizontal lines, like rungs on a ladder, with only outputs on each rung.
* True
* False
False
449
Which of the following is a use of an indicator lamp?
* Indicate that the power is on.
* Indicate that a cycle has begun.
* Indicate that a dangerous condition is occurring.
* All of the above
* None of the above
All of the above
450
Most switches are named for their operator or function.
* True
* False
True
451
The series of moves a machine has to make in order to perform a task is called a(n) __________.
* Sequence of operation
* Control process
* Automated sequence
* Logical progression
Sequence of operation
