AEMCA- Paramedic Resource Manual Questions Flashcards
(151 cards)
1
Q
What is sinusitis?
A
Obstruction of drainage from a sinus, leading to pain and infection
2
Q
With rapid depressurization (ex: rapid surfacing), what can happen to the ethmoid sinus?
A
It can rupture, leading to subcutaneous emphysema
3
Q
What is very vulnerable to direct trauma? (Respiratory)
A
The larynx
4
Q
What is often associated with cervical spine injuries?
A
Trauma to the larynx
5
Q
What are the 4 major laryngeal cartilages?
A
Epiglottis
Thyroid
Arytenoids
Cricoid
6
Q
The trachea is ____ long and lies immediately ______ to the esophagus
A
10cm, immediately anterior
7
Q
What is the carina?
A
Where the trachea bifurcates into the right and left mainstem bronchi
8
Q
What are the first sites where gas exchange takes place?
A
Respiratory bronchioles
9
Q
What is the total alveolar surface area?
A
Approximately 70 m^2
10
Q
What are the sequence of events when coughing?
A
1) Deep inspiration
2) Tight closing of glottis
3) Expiration against closed glottis
4) Glottis partially opens
5) Expulsion of foreign material
11
Q
What does pulmonary surfactant do?
A
Significantly reduces surface tension and the muscular work required to expand alveoli
12
Q
What is Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS)?
A
- Commonly with premature infants
- Insufficient surfactant present in alveoli (due to physical immaturity/premature)
- Infant requires significant muscular effort to inspire
13
Q
In the normal individual, how much oxygen do respiratory muscles require?
A
Between 3 - 14mL of oxygen
14
Q
List in order of anatomical position the following structures, starting with the most anterior:
a) esophagus
b) vertebral body
c) larynx
d) spinal cord
A
Larynx > Esophagus > Vertebral body > Spinal Cord
15
Q
Anatomically orient the following structures starting with the most cephalad (towards the head/anterior portion):
a) Thyroid cartilage
b) Hyoid bone
c) Tracheal rings
d) Mandible
e) Cricothyroid ligament
f) Cricoid cartilage
A
1) Mandible
2) Hyoid bone
3) Thyroid cartilage
4) Cricothyroid ligament
5) Cricoid cartilage
6) Tracheal rings
16
Q
Why do very sick asthmatics often have very little wheezing?
A
- Production of sound depends on adequate ventilation
- Decreased ventilation = decreased wheezing
17
Q
You notice that the nasal secretions of a patient who has suffered a severe head injury are seen to consist of dilute blood. When this falls on the sheet it is seen to form a dark red inner circle and a pink outer circle.
a) What is the likely anatomic site of injury?
b) Name the secretion
c) In regards to establishing an airway, which adjunct will you NOT consider?
A
a) Cribiform plate
b) CSF
c) NPA
18
Q
What is the normal adult Tidal Volume range?
A
400-500 mL
19
Q
What are the 5 factors that affect diffusion?
A
1) Solubility of gas in the fluid
2) Concentration of pressure gradient
3) Amount of surface area available
4) Thickness of membrane
5) Temperature of fluid
20
Q
What are the 3 ways that CO2 is transported in the blood?
A
1) Bicarbonate
2) Hemoglobin (carbaminohemoglobin)
3) Dissolved in plasma
21
Q
What is hypoxic hypoxia?
A
- Breathing air or gas that contains lower than normal PO2 (ex: high altitudes, rebreathing in a closed space)
- Decrease in pulmonary ventilation (pneumothorax, partial airway obstruction)
- Abnormal lung function (asthma, pneumonia, hemorrhage)
22
Q
What is hypemic hypoxia?
A
Reduced or altered Hb, meaning blood does not have a normal O2 carrying capacity.
- Any type of anemia
- Hb combined with a gas other than O2 (carbon monoxide)
23
Q
What is stagnant hypoxia?
A
Any shock state in which there is widespread inadequate tissue perfusion, therefore inadequate tissue oxygenation.
- Hypovolemic shock, cardiogenic shock
24
Q
What is histotoxic hypoxia?
A
When a toxic substance may prevent diffusion of O2 into cells OR may prevent cells from utilizing oxygen.
- Cyanide is a type of poison that will cause this type of hypoxia
25
What is the most powerful stimulant to directly affect the respiratory center?
CO2.
- As little as a 1% increase can increase respiratory minute volume
26
Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located?
Carotid and aortic bodies
27
What are OBJECTIVE late signs of oxygen deprivation?
Cyanosis, bradycardia, hypertension, unconsciousness
28
What are OBJECTIVE early signs of oxygen deprivation?
Increased ventilatory function, unsteady gait, tachycardia
29
a) What is the oxygen transporting part of the red blood cell?
b) what % of oxygen is bound to hemoglobin?
c) how many oxygen molecules can each hemoglobin carry?
a) hemoglobin
b) 98% (2% is dissolved in blood plasma)
c) 4 oxygen molecules
30
What are your tank constants?
D - 0.16
M - 1.56
E - 0.28
31
What are your nasal cannula % O2 concentrations in accordance with the flow rates?
1 - 24%
2 - 28%
3 - 32%
4 - 36%
5 - 40%
6 - 44%
32
What are your non-rebreather %O2 concentrations in accordance with the flow rates?
6 - 60%
7 - 70%
8 - 80%
9 - 90%
10 - 95%+
33
What is an intrinsic factor that affects cardiac function?
Venous Return
- The greater the venous return, the greater the cardiac output (Frank Starling Law)
34
What are some extrinsic factors that affect cardiac function?
- Sympathetic Stimulation (increases HR, contractility, conduction)
- Parasympathetic Stimulation (decreases HR, contractility, conduction)
- High Potassium (Decreases HR, contractility)
- High Calcium (Increases contractility)
- High Sodium (Decreases contractility)
- High Temperature (Increases contractility, HR)
35
What are the three layers of the arteries?
Intima (smooth inner lining of endothelial cells)
Media (thick middle layer of muscle and elastic fibers)
Adventilita (outer layer of fibrous, collageneous tissue)
36
The smooth muscle in both arteries and veins are under the control of what?
The autonomic nervous system (ANS)
37
Arterial resistance is called?
Afterload
38
Venous return is called?
Preload
39
An individual has sustained a major GI bleed, losing a significant amount of his blood volume.
If the patient continued to bleed:
a) ____ would fall, and as a result, what else would fall?
b) This eventually leads to a decrease in _____and ultimately a decrease in ______
a) Blood volume, venous return
b) Cardiac output, blood pressure
40
An individual has sustained a major GI bleed, losing a significant amount of his
blood volume.
When the patient's blood pressure drops:
a) _____ would detect this drop, leading to ______ stimulation
b) This stimulation leads to an increase in ____ and __________ of the heart
c) Peripheral cardiovascular system then compensates with increased ______ and _____ tone
a) Baroreceptors, sympathetic stimulation
b) Rate, contractility
c) Arterial, venous
41
What mediates and regulates blood flow?
Catecholamines (epi/norepi)
42
An individual has sustained a major GI bleed, losing a significant amount of his
blood volume.
a) Since cardiac output = HR x SV, _______ would increase initially
b) Eventually, __________ will not be adequate due to rapid HR
c) This results in a decreased _______ and eventually a fall in _______
d) If volume continues to be lost, _____ will fall despite the increase in HR
a) HR
b) Ventricular filling
c) Stroke volume, cardiac output
d) Blood pressure
43
An individual has sustained a major GI bleed, losing a significant amount of his blood volume.
What else can you expect with a falling blood volume in this patient?
a) Low blood volume = less O2 being carried to tissues. ________ will occur in some tissues where vasoconstriction is intense.
b) Respiratory rate will _____ as the body attempts to keep the acid base balance normal.
a) Anaerobic metabolism
b) Increase
44
a) Coronary arteries lack _________
b) For this reason, if one of the coronary arteries were to be block, what happens to the area supplied by that artery?
a) Anastomotic channels (connection between two passageways)
b) Area supplied by that artery becomes O2 deprived and becomes non-functional, which can lead to:
i) Damage to muscle (less effective pumping of heart)
ii) Damage to conducting system of heart (arrhythmias occur)
iii) Rupture of heart (fluid collects in pericardium)
45
The ANS involves which aspects of cardiovascular control?
Both cardiac and vascular function
46
Why is the SA node the “pacemaker” of the heart?
Highest intrinsic rate of discharge than other sites
47
Sympathetic outflow for peripheral vascular control is at the spinal cord level of?
T1 to L2
48
The clinical aim of shock therapy is to restore two processes at the cellular
level. What are they?
Oxygenation and perfusion
49
What is the relationship between oxygenation and perfusion?
Oxygenation is dependent upon delivery of oxygen to the blood via the respiratory system and the ability of the hemoglobin to transport it to the cell/tissues
50
The cells prefer to use _____ and ______ to make ______
a) glucose, O2
b) ATP/energy
51
How does metabolic acidosis eventually lead to shock?
1) Decreased oxygen delivery to cells results in metabolism without oxygen.
2) Glycolysis leads to pyruvate production, which is metabolized to lactic acid.
3) Metabolic acidosis occurs
52
What is the approximate total BLOOD volume of a healthy 100kg man?
7 L (7,000 mL)
53
Slight tachycardia and mild anxiety may be your only clues to early detection of an occult bleed. Why?
Neurogenic compensation (SNS) aka the "fight or flight" response is the most rapid response to shock.
- Responsible for vasoconstriction (in an attempt to maintain perfusion pressure), tachycardia (in an attempt to maintain cardiac output), and anxiety.
- Preferential perfusion of the brain and heart.
54
Which four primary body systems are affected in anaphylactic shock?
Respiratory (Bronchospasm or edema)
Integumentary (Hives)
Gastrointestinal (N/V/D)
Circulatory (Hypotension)
55
One physical finding will rule out hypovolemia as a cause of shock. This is?
Jugular venous distension OR distended neck veins.
56
When does JVD typically occur?
Obstruction or increased pressure in venous system (Superior Vena Cava or right side of heart).
- Right-sided heart failure
- Cardiac tamponade
- Pulmonary Hypertension (Cor Pulmonale)
57
What type of shock is JVD normally associated with?
Cardiogenic or obstructive shock.
58
A patient's ability to compensate for shock is influenced by?
Duration of shock
Severity of shock
Age
Concurrent illness
59
Of the total body water, approx. 2/3 of the water is contained inside the cells. This water is referred to as?
Intracellular fluid (ICF)
60
The remaining 1/3 of total body water is distributed throughout the body as?
Extracellular fluid (ECF)
61
What 2 categories is the extracellular fluid divided into?
Intravascular fluid (IVF) - Located within blood vessels as blood plasma
Interstitial fluid (ISF) - Located between cells, blood vessels, and in tissue spaces
*All part of the ECF
62
What is diffusion referred to as?
Passive transport system
Diffusion therefore refers to the passive movement of any substance from an area of higher to lower concentration of said substance
63
What happens in osmosis?
Water moves across a semi-permeable membrane from the more dilute solution (lower solute concentration) to the more concentrated solution (higher solute concentration)
Osmosis refers specifically to the movement of water (solvent) molecules across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of higher to lower concentration of water (lower to higher concentration of solute)
64
What is active transport?
A process that moves substances against the concentration gradient.
- A carrier substance is often needed (ex: insulin acts a carrier substance to transport glucose across the cell membrane, from the blood (ECF) into the cell (ICF)
- Energy (ATP) is required to make activate transport work
65
What is the basic minimum daily requirement for fluid?
Approx. 2500 mL
66
What is the total fluid volume of the average adult?
Approx. 42 L (28L as ICF, 14 L as ECF)
- In the adult, a water loss of 5% body weight (~2L) is unfavourable
- A loss of 10% (~4L) is serious
- A loss of 20% (~8L) is fatal
67
With regards to fluid:
a) Why do infants and small children need a larger fluid intake and output compared to adults?
b) Why do infants require more water to excrete metabolic wastes?
a) They have a greater body surface area in proportion to mass + increased metabolic rate
b) Infants have immature kidneys
68
If the body is DEHYDRATED:
a) Blood osmotic pressure ______
b) Pituitary gland responds by _________ production of ___
c) The more ____ is secreted, the more ______ is ________
a) Increases (blood becomes more CONCENTRATED)
b) Increasing, ADH
c) ADH, water is retained
69
If the body is OVERHYDRATED:
a) Blood osmotic pressure ________
b) Pituitary gland responds by _________ production of ____
c) The less ____ is secreted, the more ____ is _____
a) Decreases (blood becomes more DILUTE)
b) Decreasing, ADH
c) ADH, water is released
70
What is osmotic pressure?
Amount of pressure required to prevent movement of water (osmosis) across a semi-permeable membrane when two solutions of different concentrations are separated by that membrane
71
What is oncotic pressure?
Osmotic pressure due specifically to the presence of plasma colloids (i.e proteins).
Also referred to as "Colloidal Osmotic Pressure"
72
Fill in the blanks:
a) Body fluid accounts for about _____% of total body weight of an adult.
b) The total fluid volume of an average adult is approx. ______
c) The amount of body fluid as a percentage of total body weight varies from person to person with _____ or _______
d) In infants, body fluid comprises about ______% of total body water.
e) In an adult, a fluid loss of ____% is considered serious.
f) In an infant a fluid loss of _____% is considered serious.
g) In an infant a fluid loss of _____% is severe.
a) 60%
b) 42 L
c) Age, fat content
d) 80%
e) 10%
f) 5-9%
g) >10%
73
What are the 2 hormones that act on the kidney to regulate fluid and electrolyte balance?
ADH (Vasopressin) and aldosterone
74
Define:
a) Dehydration
b) Edema
c) Volume depletion
a) Net loss of water from fluid compartments of body
b) Interstitial spaces contain excessive amount of ECF (swelling and puffiness of tissues)
c) Diminished circulating volume
75
Why would you use normal saline over 5% D/W for a volume-depleted patient?
Normal saline is isotonic, meaning it has a similar concentration of dissolved particles as that of blood.
5% D/W is hypotonic, meaning it has a lower osmolarity than blood. It can cause water to move into cells, potentially worsening cellular dehydration
76
Which systems transports and eliminates excess hydrogen ions (acid) from the body?
- Chemical buffering system
- Respiratory system
- Renal system
*Of these three mechanisms, chemical system reacts immediately to an upset in the balance of hydrogen ions in body fluids. Respiratory is almost immediate, while renal system is slowest to act.
77
What are buffers a mixture of?
- Weak acid and its alkali salt (Carbonic Acid [H2CO3] and Bicarbonate [HCO3-])
- Weak base and its acid salt
*In the body, weak acids and its alkali salt counterparts have more importance since they are naturally present in the body and are compatible with physiological processes.
*Buffers with weak bases and their acid salts have less importance. They are less commonly involved in body's acid-base regulatory mechanisms and don't have the same level of compatibility and impact on pH homeostasis.
78
What is the primary buffer system in the blood?
Carbonic acid (H2CO3) and Bicarbonate (HCO3-) system.
- Largest buffer system in the body
- Most important in regulating pH
- Regulated via lungs and kidneys
79
a) Carbonic acid (H2CO3) ______ H+ when pH _____
b) Bicarbonate (HCO3-) _______ H+ when pH _______
a) releases, rises
b) absorbs, decreases
80
What are the 4 main buffer systems?
- Carbonic acid/bicarbonate buffer system
- Phosphate buffer system
- Protein buffer system
- Hemoglobin buffer system
81
What are the kidneys responsible for regulating?
Non-volatile or fixed acids (cannot be "breathed off" in the body)
- Lactic acid
- Ketone bodies
- Phosphoric acid
- Sulfuric acid
82
Although the kidneys/renal system are the slowest of the buffer systems, they are the...?
The most powerful of the control mechanisms.
-100% efficiency rate
- Kidneys themselves are able to return pH completely to normal given adequate time
83
a) what is metabolic acidosis?
b) what is metabolic alkalosis?
a) any acid-base disturbance involving a LOSS of bicarbonate (HCO3-)
b) any acid-base disturbance involving an INCREASE of bicarbonate (HCO3-)
84
Fill in the blanks:
a) End products of metabolism are mainly _____ in nature
b) Excess hydrogen ions are excreted via the _____ and _______
c) Excess hydrogen ions are "neutralized" during transport in the blood by ________
g) Lungs excrete ______ acids while kidneys excrete ____________
a) Acidic
b) Kidneys, lungs
c) Chemical buffers
d) Volatile, non-volatile
85
Fill in the blanks:
a) Lungs have a _____ response and __________ restores normal pH
b) Kidneys have a ______ response and __________ restores normal pH
a) Fast, partially
b) Slow, completely
86
In a response to LOW blood pH (excess acid):
a) Lungs will ________ and kidneys excrete ________ and retain ________
a) Hyperventilate, H+ ions, HCO3- ions
87
In a response to HIGH blood pH (excess base):
a) Lungs will _______ and kidneys excrete_______ and retain_________
a) Hypoventilate, HCO3- ions, H+ ions
88
What acid-base disorder will an untreated cardiac arrest patient have?
Mixed acidosis
a) Lack of ventilation causes CO2 accumulation (respiratory component)
b) Hypoxia and lack of perfusion results in anaerobic metabolism
c) Lactic acid builds due to anaerobic metabolism
89
List 3 possible reasons for hyperventilation
1) ASA toxicity
2) Head injuries
3) DKA
90
List some causes of metabolic acidosis
a) DKA (ketoacids)
b) Starvation (ketoacids)
c) Severe exercise (lactic acid)
d) Severe diarrhea (loss of HCO3-)
e) Renal failure (increased H+)
f) Cardiac arrest (lactic acid)
g) ASA overdose (increased fix acids)
h) Shock (lactic acid)
91
Mix and match:
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Thalamus a) concerned with sight
2. Temporal lobe b) contains cardiac vital center
3. Hypothalamus c) center for static and dynamic equilibrium
4. Medulla oblongata d) the main autonomic center
5. Cerebellum e) relay station for sensory impressions
6. Cerebrum f) the intellectual center of the brain
7. Occipital lobe g) primary hearing center
a) Thalamus - relay station for sensory information
b) Temporal lobe - primary hearing center
c) Hypothalamus - main autonomic center
d) Medulla Oblongata - contains cardiac vital center
e) Cerebellum - center for static and dynamic equilibrium
f) Cerebrum - intellectual center of the brain
g) Occipital lobe - concerned with sight
92
Where is the Reticulating Activating System (RAS) located?
Throughout the brainstem, but primarily in the medulla oblongata.
93
What is the Reticulating Activating System (RAS) responsible for?
- Control of wakefulness and consciousness
- Protective mechanism via arousal reaction in response to certain stimuli (ex: pain)
94
Which part of the brain co-ordinates muscle tone and movement?
Cerebellum
95
Fill in the blanks:
a) The pituitary gland is located on the undersurface of the _______
b) It is protected inferiorly by __________
a) Hypothalamus
b) Bone (skull)
96
Fill in the blanks:
a) There are two cerebral hemispheres connected by the _________
Corpus callosum
97
Where can CSF be found?
- Ventricles of the brain
- Subarachnoid space
- Spinal cord
*Main function of CSF is protection
98
What are the 4 main lobes of each cerebral hemisphere?
Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital
99
Fill in the blanks:
a) The spinal cord extends from the _______ to the lower of the ________
b) The termination of the spinal cord is known as the _______
a) Foramen magnum, 1st Lumbar Vertebrae
b) Conus medullaris
100
All venous blood from the brain drains into the?
Internal jugular vein
101
How much % of cardiac output does the brain receive?
16%
102
What major organs are in the RIGHT UPPER QUADRANT?
Liver (right lobe)
Stomach
Gallbladder
Duodenum
Pancreas
Right Kidney
Right Adrenal Gland
103
What major organs are in the LEFT UPPER QUADRANT?
Liver (left lobe)
Stomach
Pancreas
Left Kidney
Left Adrenal Gland
104
What major organs are in the LEFT LOWER QUADRANT?
Left Ureter
Reproductive Organs
105
What major organs are in the RIGHT LOWER QUADRANT?
Appendix
Reproductive Organs
Right Ureter
106
What kind of gland is the liver and what does it do?
Mixed gland
Exocrine (production of bile)
Endocrine (production of proteins; aids in protein and fat metabolism)
107
What does the gallbladder do?
Stores bile which is secreted from the liver.
- Bile flows from liver through bile ducts into the intestine.
108
What is the function of the spleen?
To help prevent systemic infection by activation of the immune system
*Filters blood and help's the body during the immune response
109
What kind of gland is the pancreas and what does it do?
Mixed gland
Exocrine (production of digestive enzymes)
Endocrine (production of insulin and glycogen)
110
What does the alimentary canal consist of?
Esophagus
Stomach
Small bowel (duodenum, jejunum, ileum)
Large bowel (ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon)
111
What is the function of the stomach?
Begin the digestion of foods and to propel food into the duodenum
112
Name the four muscles which comprise the anterior abdominal wall.
Rectus abdominis
Internal oblique
External oblique
Transversus abdominis
113
What's the difference between the visceral and parietal peritoneum?
Parietal peritoneum lines the interior of the abdominal wall.
Visceral peritoneum lines the surface of the organs (but continuous with the parietal peritoneum)
114
What organs come into contact with the spleen?
Pancreas
Colon
Stomach
Left kidney
115
The pancreas is situated anterior to _____ vertebra
L2
116
The posterior landmark for bifurcation of the aorta is?
L4
117
Where would you palpate expecting to find the pulsatile mass of an abdominal aneurysm?
Superior to the umbilicus or in the epigastric region
118
Why does the pain of cholecystitis often increase on inspiration?
Gallblader is underneath the liver. The diaphragm is on top of the liver.
Whenever you inhale, the diaphragm descends. This puts downward pressure on the gallbladder, resulting in pain on inspiration.
119
Fractures of the left-side 9th, 10th and 11th rib are often associated with what underlying injury?
Rupture of the spleen
120
What are the large pair of muscles which tend to hold in the abdominal contents anteriorly?
Rectus abdominis
121
a) Which area of the abdominal contents is the most prone to shearing injury and why?
b) Assuming the above was an isolated injury, the most likely early clinical
finding would be?
a) The junction of the jejunum and the duodenum, due to the fixed position of the duodenum vs. the mobility of the jejunum.
b) RUQ pain due to local peritoneal irritation from the spilled contents of the digestive system
122
What are the main functions of the lymphatic system?
Fluid Balance
- Collects excess fluid (lymph) which leaks out of blood vessels and tissues; returns it back to bloodstream
Immune Response
- Lymph nodes contain immune cells that fight pathogens (bacteria, viruses, etc)
Waste Removal
- Cellular waste, excess proteins are collected by lymphatic vessels. They are then carried to lymph nodes or filtering organs (spleen) for elimination from the body.
123
Where are the sites of erythrocyte (RBC) production located in adults and children?
Adults
- Bone marrow of certain bones
- axial skeleton (skull, vertebrae, sternum, ribs)
- proximal ends of long bones (humerus, femur)
Children
- Bone marrow
- RBC production predominantly in marrow of long bones (humerus, femur)
- Gradually shifts to marrow of axial skeleton and proximal ends of long bones as children grow and develop
124
Why is erythropoietin (EPO) important for RBCs?
Stimulates increased production of RBCs and enhances survival (maturation):
- EPO acts on bone marrow (specifically hematopoietic stem cells). This increases production
- EPO reduces apoptosis (programmed cell death) in erythroblasts. This results in maturation and becoming functional RBC's capable of carrying oxygen
- EPO also stimulates the production of hemoglobin
*EPO is primarily produced in the kidneys.
125
What are the reasons that little or no bleeding may temporarily occur after an amputation of an extremity?
1) Vasoconstriction
- Body's natural response to reduce blood flow and excessive bleeding.
2) BP drop
- Reduced BP limits amount of blood flowing to amputated area
3) Clotting Mechanisms
- Platelets form a plug at site of injury to initiate clot formation.
- Clotting cascade ensues, forming fibrin (mesh-like substance that helps seal of blood vessels)
126
What is the universal donor and recipient?
Universal Donor: Blood Type O-
Universal Recipient: Blood Type AB+
127
How can liver failure cause bleeding tendencies?
Liver produces many of the clotting factors involved in the coagulation cascade
- In liver failure, production of clotting factors is impaired
- Platelet production decreases, and platelet function becomes impaired
128
How can advanced leukemia cause bleeding tendencies?
Advanced leukemia is a type of cancer that affects blood-forming tissues.
- Leukemia disrupts normal production of blood cells in bone marrow, as well as platelets
- Leukemia can also impair production and function of clotting factors
- Leukemia also damages blood vessels, making them fragile and prone to bleeding
129
What is prinzmetal angina?
Also known as vasospastic angina or coronary artery spasm.
- Coronary artery supplying blood and oxygen to heart goes into spasm and suddenly narrows.
130
What best explains the reason for polyuria and glucosuria in a diabetic?
- Glucose within blood exerts an osmotic effect, which increases glomerular filtrate volume
- Osmotic effect of glucose in kidney tubules is greater than the hormonal reabsorptive influences
131
What is the sequence of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome in a NEWBORN?
1) Respiratory Acidosis
2) Hypoxemia
3) Hypercapnea
132
Congenital heart defects that cause hypoxia, and therefore cyanosis, usually
involve which shunts?
Left to right
133
Coartication of the aorta results in?
Bounding pedal pulses
134
S&S of Digitalis Toxicity?
- Bradycardia
- Blurred vision
- PVC's
135
When a QRS complex measures 0.12 seconds or greater, the rhythm originates in
the?
Ventricles
136
T/F? Tachycardia is a sign/symptom of organophosphate absorption
False
137
A victim of a water emergency has gastric distension. Because of this condition, you should place the patient in what position?
Left side
138
An acceptable systolic BP for a 6 year old would be?
90 mmHg
139
Where would the retractions of a child with severe dyspnea be most evident?
Suprasternals and intercostals
140
What are some risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy?
- Multi-gestational pregnancy
- Presence of IUD
- Previous fallopian tube abnormalities
- Endometriosis
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
141
Name 3 differences about the pediatric airway compared to the adult airway
- Younger pediatric patients are obligate nose breathers (necessity to breathe through nose)
- Pediatric tongue is proportionally larger than adults
- Smallest part of pediatric airway is the cricoid ring
142
What is the leading cause of death between ages 1-44?
Accidents and trauma
143
When is it legal for a paramedic to release confidential information about a patient?
When a third party require the information for billing purposes
144
The term for study of how a drug is altered/modified as it travels through the body is called?
Pharmacokinetics
*Pharmacodynamics is the body's biological response to drugs
145
In order for drugs to have a direct effect on central nervous system tissue, they must be?
Lipid soluble
146
The extent or firmness with which a drug binds with a receptor is known as?
Affinity
147
Patients with AKI (acute kidney injury) are at higher risk of developing?
Hypocalcemia
148
Acquired hypersensitivity is also known as?
Allergy
149
S&S of localized inflammation?
- Redness
- Heat
- Swelling
- Pain
- Loss of function
*Vasodilation causes redness and swelling
150
What skin colour is not typically associated with primary renal failure?
Jaundice
- Jauncide is associated with liver dysfunction or excessive breakdown of RBC's
- Primary renal failure results in pallor, hyperpigmentation, and slate-grey discolouration
151
Reversible ischemia to the cells of the myocardium is classified as?
Angina
