AFT

Question 1

Define anaesthesia

Answer 1

a state with lack of sensitivity to painful stimuli

Question 2

Define general anaesthesia

Answer 2

a state of unconsciousness produced bu anaesthetic drugs with the absence of pain over the whole body

Question 3

Define local anaesthesia

Answer 3

insensibility caused by an interruption of sensory nerve conduction in any body region

Question 4

define sedation

Answer 4

the allaying of irratibility or excitement

Question 5

Define anixolysis

Answer 5

Reduced anxiety

Question 6

DEFINE ANALGESIA

Answer 6

reduced sensibility to pain

Question 7

define narcosis

Answer 7

sleep like state

Question 8

define hypnosis

Answer 8

artificially induced state of passivity

Question 9

State the legal acts supporting anaesthesia

Answer 9

Protection of animals (anaethesia) act
Misuse of drugs act and misuse of drug regulations
medicine regulations act
the veterinary surgeons act
animals (scientific procedures) Act
health and safety legislation

Question 10

What does a balanced anaesthesia consist of?

Answer 10

reflex suppression, muscle relaxation and unconsciousness

Question 11

What factors influence anaesthesia?

Answer 11

Animal (species,age,weight,temperment, health), planned procedure, team experience, drugs/facilities avaliable

Question 12

What is assessed for anaesthesia?

Answer 12

full history and clinical exam, pre-anaesthetic fasting, previous anaesthetics, procedure confirmation, previous/current illness, current medication, vaccination status

Question 13

state some common breed dispositions which may affect anaesthesia

Answer 13

persian cats - polycystic kidney disease
giant dog breeds - DCM, atrial fibrilation
bulldogs - brachycephalic airway disease
sighthounds - altered barbituates metabolism
Exopthalmus breeds (pugs) - cornreal ulceration

Question 14

what may affect anaesthesia in young animals?

Answer 14

poorly developed renal/hepatic function, immature cardiovascular function, prone to hypothermia, prone to hypoglycaemia

Question 15

Define ASA classification

Answer 15

Describes the animals physical status
ASA 1 - normal healthy animal
ASA 2 - mild systemic disease
ASA 3 - systemic disease - controlled by treatmen
ASA 4 - severe uncompensated systemic disease
ASA 5 - unlikely to survive 24hours
E - case of emergency

Question 16

Describe the differences between drug administration types

Answer 16

IM - painful,easier than IV, slower onset, only calculated doses
IV - rapid onset time, dose to effect, difficult to administer
SC - unreliable absorption, slow onset
inhalation - stressful, easy to administer, longer onset, risk of regurg/aspiration

Question 17

What makes an ideal injectable agent?

Answer 17

rapid onset, non-irritant, good analgesia and muscle relaxation, noncumulative, minimal cardiopulmonary effects, rapidly metabolised and eliminated.

Question 18

State the properties of propofol

Answer 18

• milk coloured emulsion
• with or without bacteriostat
• propofol plus has shelf life of 28 days due to addition of benzyl alcohol
• phenol, rapid onset and elmination, non-cumulative in dogs, no analgesia, fair muscle relaxation, post induction apnoea common, hypertension

Question 19

State the properties of alfaxalone

Answer 19

• steroid anaesthetic
• clear solution as solublised in cyclodextrin
• non-irritant, rapid onset, metabolism and elimination, non-cumulative, respiratory depression, preserves baroreceptor tone, high therapeutic index

Question 20

State the properties of ketamine

Answer 20

• dissociative anaesthetic
• poor muscle relaxation, reflexes maintained, sympathetic stimulation, maintains cardiovascular/ respiratory function, analgesia, slowonset, non-cumulative, Iv only in horses, Im/IV cat, increases intraocular pressure and intracranial pressure

Question 21

state the properties of thiopental

Answer 21

• barbituate
• alkaline
• perivascular tissue necrosis
• prolonged recovery in sighthounds
• moderate cardiopulmonary depression
• difficult to obtain

Question 22

What are the properties of an ideal inhalation agent?

Answer 22

non-irritant, rapid uptake and elmination, non toxic, good muscle relaxation, non flammable and chemically stable, easily vaporised, good analgesia, minimal cardiopulmonary effects.

Question 23

What is the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?

Answer 23

the concentration required to prevent purposeful movement in response to supra maximal noxious stimulants in 50% of subjects.

Question 24

Mask or chamber?

Answer 24

Chamber

• less handling
• difficult to visualise animal
• easier to scavenge
• no increase in dead space
• potential for aspiration/regurg

Mask

• handling required - stressful
• easier to visualise patient
• close fitting mask needed
• increased dead space
• potential for regurg/aspiration

Question 25

state the properties of isoflurane

Answer 25

MAC - 1.4-1.6%, irritant to mucous membranes, rapid induction and recovery, peripheral vasodilation, poor analgesia

Question 26

state the properties of sevoflurane

Answer 26

MAC - 2.1-26% non-irritant poor analgesia rapid onset and recovery

Question 27

state the properties of nitrous oxide

Answer 27

stored as liquid MAC >100% so only used to supplement anaesthesia good analgesia insoluble so rapid uptake and elimination

Question 28

What are the main features of anaesthetic machines?

Answer 28

Pressure gauge, pressure regulator, flowmeters, vaporisers, oxygen flush, scavenging

Question 29

What is the difference between passive and active scavenging?

Answer 29

passive scavenging - charcoal canister or airbreak and outside Active - fan or pump

Question 30

state how you would do an anaesthetic machine check

Answer 30

``` connect scavenging turn on O2/ nitrous oxide set fresh gas flow turn O2 cylinder off insert O2 pipeline hose Turn off nitrous oxide O2 flush system leak check turn off O2 visual vaporiser check check circuit ```

Question 31

what are the properties of ET tubes?

Answer 31

rubber,plastic, silicon and PVC cuffed or uncuffed connector at level if incisor arcade and tip at point f shoulder

Question 32

Dog ET tube?

Answer 32

10mm for 20kg dog, cuffed

Question 33

Cat ET tube?

Answer 33

prone to laryngospasm so local anaesthetic needed | adult cat 5mm uncuffed tube

Question 34

how do you confirm an ET tube is in place?

Answer 34

tube fogging, capnograph CO2 and visulisation