Agency & Partnerships Flashcards

1
Q

Agency definition

A

Agency is the fiduciary relation which results from the manifestation of consent by one person to another that the other shall act on his behalf and subject to his control, and consent by the other so to act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Consent req

A

Consent of both the principal and the agent is necessary to form an agency relationship. Consent may be established expressly (written or oral statements), or by implication from the parties’ conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

On behalf of req

A

The agent must be acting primarily for the benefit of the principal, rather than for the benefit of the agent or some other party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Control req

A

The agent must act subject to the principal’s control, but the degree of control exercised by the principal does not have to be significant. Can be simply the fact that the principal has specified the task that the agent should perform, even if principal did not give details of how the task should be accomplished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Do the parties need capacity to contract?

A

Only the principal needs capacity. Agent does not because agent is just intermediary in contract btw principal and third person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When is a writing required to form agency relationship?

A

SOF. If AP relationship is w/in SOF or if agent is to enter into a contract that reqs statute of fraud, agreement must be in writing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is consideration required to form agency relationship?

A

Consideration is not required for the creation of an agency relationship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Agent’s fiduciary duties to the principal

A
  1. Duty of care (carry out work with reasonable care)
  2. Duty of loyalty (account for profits, act solely for benefit of principal, refrain from working with adverse party, not compete with principal on subject matter of agreement, or use principal’s property for own purposes).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do courts remedy breach of fiduciary duty

A

Court has wide discretion to institute equitable remedies and “do justice” in the situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Duty of obedience

A

An agent must obey all reasonable directions of his principal. While the principal may be liable for the agent’s acts in violation of directions (apparent authority), the agent will be liable to the principal for any loss that the principal suffers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Principal’s duty to agent

A

No fiduciary duty, but if an agent incurs expenses or suffers other losses in carrying out the principal’s instructions, the principal has a duty to indemnify the agent. And unless the circumstances indicate otherwise, it will be inferred that the principal agreed to compensate the agent for his services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Actual authority

A

Authority that the agent reasonably thinks she possesses based on the principal’s dealings with her. Can be express (oral or writing) or implied.

Implied includes:

  1. Incidental to express authority
  2. Arising out of custom known to the agent
  3. Prior acquiescence of principal
  4. Emergencies
  5. Pay for and receive goods when had authority to buy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When does actual authority terminate? (5)

A

(1) after a specified time or event, or after a reasonable time (if there is no specified time or event);
(2) by a change of circumstances (e.g., the subject matter of the agency is destroyed);
(3) by a breach of the agent’s fiduciary duty;
(4) by a unilateral act of either the principal or the agent; or
(5) by death or incapacity of the principal or the agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Apparent authority

A

If the principal’s words or conduct would lead a reasonable person in the third party’s position to believe that the agent has authority to act on the principal’s behalf. Must be PRINCIPAL’s assertions, not agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Power of position

A

An agent’s title might confer apparent authority if authority is typically bestowed upon person with that title. Can also confer actual authority if agent reasonably believes he has authority to act based on hist title.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ratification of contract

A

Even if agent had not authority, principal still bound if principal ratifies contract. Substitute for pre-transaction authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How to ratify:

A

Express (oral/written) or implied (P accepts benefits)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Requirements for ratification

A
  1. Principal must have knowledge of all material facts
  2. Principal must accept ENTIRE transaction
  3. Cannot alter rights of intervening parties.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who’s liable on contract if no ratification or authority? And exception

A

Principal, not agent. EXCEPT if P is undisclosed (3rd party doesn’t know agent is acting on behalf of principal) OR partially disclosed (3p knows agent acting for principal, but doesn’t know who. In this case, both principal and agent liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vicarious liability: Master

A

A principal who employs an agent to perform service in his affairs and who controls or has the right to control the physical conduct of the other in the performance of the service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

VL: Servant

A

A servant (i.e., an employee) is an agent so employed by a master.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

VL: Independent Contractor

A

A person who contracts with another to do something for him but who is not controlled by the other nor subject to the other’s right to control with respect to his physical conduct in the performance of the undertaking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vicarious liability tests

A

A master is liable for torts committed by a servant within the scope of the servant’s employment. The master and the servant are both jointly and severally liable.

A principal is generally not liable for torts committed by an independent contractor in connection with his work unless P KNOWINGLY selected incompetent contractor (negligent = personal liability), gave a nondelegable duty, or it was an ultrahazardous activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Servant v. IC

A

If a person is subject to the control of another as to the means used to achieve a particular result, he is a servant. By contrast, if a person is subject to the control of another as to his results only (but not over how to achieve those results), he is an independent contractor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Factors to consider when assessing servant v. IC

A

(1) skill required—where great skill is required, more likely IC;
(2) tools and facilities—if the principal supplies the tools and facilities, more likely employee;
(3) period of employment—if period is indefinite and/or long, more likely employee;
(4) basis of compensation—if compensation is on the basis of time, more likely employee; if compensation is paid based on the job, more likely IC;
(5) business purpose—if hired to perform an act in furtherance of principal’s business, more likely employee;
(6) distinct business—a person who has her own business or occupation is more likely IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Detour and frolic

A

A minor deviation from the employer’s directions is usually within the scope. This is called a detour. A substantial deviation is usually outside of the scope. This is called a frolic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Intentional torts and scope of employment?

A

Intentional torts usually not w/in scope of employment unless nature of job is torts, its motivated to serve the employer, or was specifically authorized or ratified by employer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Employer lends employee to another. Employee commits tort. Which employer is liable?

A

Whoever has primary right of control? Usually original employer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a partnership?

A

A partnership is formed as soon as two or more persons associate to carry on as co-owners a business for profit, regardless of whether the parties subjectively intend to form a partnership. No state filing or other formalities are required.

30
Q

Factors determining if partnership exists

A
  1. SHARING OF PROFITS (not gross returns… profits) raises a PRESUMPTION of partnership

Unless: Profits were received in payment of a debt, as wages or compensation, as rent, or as interest on a loan.

  1. Right to control business (even if not exercised)
31
Q

When is writing required to form partnership?

A

SOF. Forming a partnership “for two years” for example.

32
Q

Partnership by estoppel?

A

If no partnership was formed in fact, parties may still be liable as if they were partners to protect reasonable reliance by third parties.

33
Q

Effect of a partnership agreement

A

Not required, but if exists, can contract around all statutory provisions. Can be oral, written, or implied.

34
Q

Who can vote in a partnership

A

Unless otherwise agreed, 1 partner = 1 vote. Matters within scope of business = majority. Matters outside scope = unanimity.

35
Q

Right to salary/compensation?

A

Unless agreed upon, no. Doesn’t matter how much work they do.

36
Q

Sharing profits/losses

A

Unless otherwise agreed, profits shared equally. Losses always shared how profits are shared.

37
Q

When is a partnership liable in tort?

A

When the tortious conduct of a partner (or an employee) acting in the ordinary course of business of the partnership or with authority of the partnership causes loss or injury.

38
Q

When is a partnership liable in contract?

A

A partnership is liable for contracts entered into on its behalf by partners with actual or apparent authority.

39
Q

How is liability shared in a partnership?

A

A defining characteristic of the general partnership is that each partner is jointly and severally liable for all of the obligations of the partnership (whether arising in tort or contract). BUT: the plaintiff must first exhaust partnership resources before seeking to collect from an individual partner’s assets (so the partners are essentially guarantors).

40
Q

What are the fiduciary duties of a partner?

A
  1. Duty of Loyalty
  2. Duty of Care
  3. Duty of Disclosure
41
Q

Duty of Loyalty

A

Requires each partner:

(1) to account to the partnership for any benefit derived by the partner in conducting p-ship business, using the p-ship’s property, or appropriating a p-ship opportunity;
(2) to refrain from dealing with the p-ship in the conduct of its business as (or on behalf of) a party having an interest adverse to the p-ship;
(3) to refrain from competing with the p-ship in conduct of its business.

42
Q

Duty of Care

A

Each partner must refrain from engaging in grossly negligent or reckless conduct, intentional misconduct, or a knowing violation of law.

43
Q

Duty of Disclosure

A

A statutory duty rather than a fiduciary one. Each partner and the partnership shall furnish to a partner (1) without demand, any information concerning the partnership’s business and affairs reasonably required for the proper exercise of the partner’s rights and duties; and (2) on demand, any other information concerning the partnership’s business and affairs (except to the extent the demand or the information demanded is unreasonable or otherwise improper under the circumstances).

44
Q

Which duties can be eliminated?

A

Duty of disclosure. Can’t eliminate duty of loyalty or care.

45
Q

What is partnership property?

A
  1. Acquired to pships name or in partner’s name where apparent that partner is acting for pship
  2. Presumed if pship fund are used
  3. Presumed to be PARTNER’s property if acquired in her name w/o pship funds and no sign she’s acting for pship
46
Q

What is a partner’s ownership interest in the pship ?

A

The INTEREST is personal property (like a shareholder’s stock)

47
Q

What can partners do/not do with their ownership interest?

A

Do:

  1. Manage business, obtain info, be recognized as a partner
  2. Transfer financial rights in partnership (transferee not a partner)

Not do:
1. Unless otherwise agreed, can’t unilaterally transfer management rights to another unless unanimous vote

48
Q

What is a dissociation?

A

When a partner withdraws or “bows out” of the partnership.

49
Q

What causes dissociation?

A

(1) a partner giving notice to the partnership of his desire to withdraw (dissociation by “express will”);
(2) a partner’s expulsion, death, or bankruptcy;
(3) an agreed-upon event; and (4) the appointment of a receiver for a partner.

50
Q

When is dissociation wrongful?

A

If the dissociation is in breach of an express term in the partnership agreement. A dissociation is also wrongful in a term partnership if the partner withdraws, is expelled, or becomes bankrupt before the end of the term. A partner who wrongfully dissociates is liable to the partnership for any damages caused by the dissociation.

51
Q

At-will v. term pship

A

At-will: where the partners have not agreed to remain partners until the expiration of a definite term or project completion (most partnerships)

Term: where the partners have agreed, explicitly or implicitly, to remain partners for a definite term or until the completion of a particular undertaking.

52
Q

What happens after a dissociation?

A
  1. Partnership is dissolved and business must be wound up. This means that the partnership business will be liquidated (“sold off”) OR
  2. Partnership continues in existence with the dissociated partner entitled to a buyout of his partnership interest.
53
Q

When is a partnership dissolved?

A
  1. In general, when a partner dissociates by express will in an at-will partnership, the partnership is dissolved and its business must be wound up.
    b. In a term partnership, if one partner dissociates wrongfully, or if a dissociation occurs because of a partner’s death or bankruptcy, dissolution and winding up of the partnership are required only if, within 90 days after the dissociation, one-half of the remaining partners agree to wind up the partnership.
54
Q

What is a partner who dissociates liable for? How long does their apparent authority last

A

Pre-dissociation partnership obligations. Apparent authority and lasts for 2 years and post-dissociation liability incurred w/in two years after dissociation unless notifies creditors or files public statement about dissociation.

Remember: Apparent authority terminates if 3rd party has knowledge partner has no authority or has received notice (even if hasn’t read). Also incoming partner has no liability for actions taken before becoming partner.

55
Q

What happens to pship assets at dissolution?

A

Partnership assets must be applied to the discharge of partnership liabilities. If the assets are insufficient, individual partners are required to contribute (“pay in”) in accordance with their loss shares. If there are excess assets, they are distributable to the partners in cash in accordance with their profit shares.

56
Q

Priority of distribution of assets upon dissolution

A
  1. Creditors (external and internal)
  2. All capital contributions made by partners
  3. Profits or losses
57
Q

Limited Partnerships: Definition, formation

A

At least one general partner and one limited partner. File “certificate” w/ sec of state w/ name, address, address of general partners. If formation fails, just creates a general partnership

58
Q

Who manages LP

A

General managers. Limited partners usually have no management rights unless pship agreement grants them. EXCEPTION: Extraordinary activities requires vote of all partners, gen and lmtd.

59
Q

Limited partners liability/fiduciary duty

A

Limited, meaning they can only lose the value of their investments. Doesn’t have fiduciary duty.

60
Q

Limited Liability Partnerships: Definition, formation, liability

A

General partnership where ALL members have limited liability. Must file “statement of qualification” w/ SOS w/ name and address, election to be LLP, date of effect. NO personal liability for partners, just personal liability for wrongful acts.

61
Q

Limited Liability Company: Definition

A

A hybrid between a corporation and a partnership in which the owners (called “members”) have limited liability as well as the benefits of partnership tax treatment. This is not a corporation, nor is it a partnership. It is its own business form. An LLC is treated as a separate legal entity distinct from its members.

62
Q

LLC formation

A

Must file “articles (or certificate) of organization” with the secretary of state. Includes (1) the name of the LLC; (2) the address of the LLC’s registered office; and (3) the name and address of its registered agent.

63
Q

What governs operation and governance of LLC?

A

Operating agreement

64
Q

Who manages LLC?

A

Management of the LLC is presumed to be by all of the members. A majority vote of members (or managers if manager-managed) is required to approve ordinary business decisions. A unanimous vote of members (or managers if manager-managed) is required to approve extraordinary business decisions.

65
Q

Liability of LLC members

A

Members generally are not personally liable for the LLC’s obligations. They have limited liability and can only lose the amount of their investments. As always, members are liable for their own torts.

66
Q

What fiduciary duties are owed in LLC?

A

Care and loyalty

67
Q

What dissolutes an LLC?

A

(i) An event or circumstance that the operating agreement states causes dissolution; (ii) The consent of all of the members; or (iii) The passage of 90 consecutive days during which the LLC has no members; (iv) an application for judicial dissolution

68
Q

Taxing of LLC

A

No entity level tax, just individual tax

69
Q

Member-managed LLC

A

Members owe duty of care and loyalty

70
Q

Manager-managed LLC

A

Only managers are subject to duties of loyalty and care