AH Flashcards

1
Q

What runway is the PRIMARY for RPA departure/arrival at March?

A

14 for departures & 32 for arrivals

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2
Q

What taxiways are most commonly used for RPA departures/arrivals at March?

A

A
B
C
D
F

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3
Q

What raceway is the fastest to runway 14 at March?

A

F (Foxtrot)

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4
Q

What is the critical extent of March class-C airspace?

A

Surface-4,000ft MSL

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5
Q

What type of clearance instructions are provided by Clearance Delivery prior to IFR departure from March?

A

AC callsign
Clearance limit
Depart procedure
SID
Route OF Flight
Altitude data
ATC freq & transponder code

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6
Q

What are the primary & alternate RPA hold/orbit points established for use by March?

A

Hold: Lake Perris
Alt hold: High Key

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7
Q

What is the normal MQ9 pattern altitude at March?

A

3,000ft MSL

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8
Q

What controlling agency assigns altitudes and timing for RPA hold/orbit points inside March Class-C?

A

Tower?

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9
Q

Where is the entry waypoint located for the March ATLC E-mission?

A

Point Cobra

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10
Q

Once inside your assigned RPA airspace, you’ll operate under MARSA. What does this signify?

A

Deconfliction from each other

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11
Q

During climbs and descents within your assigned RPA airspace, what is the primary action pilots must take to ensure aircraft deconfliction?

A

Make request with desert radio

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12
Q

What is the standard routing used by March for MQ9 ops?

A

GRIZLY Route

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13
Q

What agency will you coordinate with when taking off from KRIV & transitioning into R2502N/E working airspace?

A

Tower
SoCal
Sport
Desert Radio

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14
Q

What should RPA crews consider when calculating their JOKER for training missions in standard March RPA airspace?

A

Required fuel for training events prior to RTB

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15
Q

How is BINGO calculated for RPA missions?

A

Adding RTB fuel to the Normal Recovery Fuel

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16
Q

When ready to RTB, which controlling agency should be contacted for clearance off range prior to exiting the airspace?

A

Desert radio/sundance

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17
Q

Once clear of R2502 and established in R2515 for RTB, what is the planned COA RTB altitude?

A

9,500

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18
Q

What must be on file to depart KRIV?

A

Signed flight plan (DD1801)

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19
Q

Before entering R2515 (4-corners), which controlling agency should you contact for clearance?

A

Sport

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20
Q

Before entering or leaving R2502, which controlling agency should you get in touch with?

A

Desert Radio

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21
Q

When flying in R2502 N/E, to which controlling agency should Grizzle AC direct their reporting and deconfliction calls?

A

Desert Radio

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22
Q

When flying in R2502 N/E, to which controlling agency should Grizzle AC direct their reporting and deconfliction calls?

A

Desert Radio

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23
Q

What is a mandatory requirement for AC entering the R2502 N/E range control airspace for inert weapons drops?

A

Scheduled airspace from surface to operating altitude

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24
Q

What is the specific procedure for Grizzly AC when conducting reporting and deconfliction calls in R2502?

A

Every 30 minutes
“Desert Radio, Grizzly52 checking in 18,000, ops normal.”

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25
What actions will the RPA take in the event of a LL?
It will fly the preprogrammed E-mission which will terminate in the last 6 waypoints LL loiter
26
During departure from KRIV, what routing will you set the E-mission in the assigned airspace?
Follow the cleared departure route and delay in the assigned airspace for >30minutes before recovering.
27
What is the squawk code assigned to the LL E-mission?
7400
28
Which dispays are available to crew for plotting targets and relevant info to enhance mission continuity and SA?
TacSit Tracker
29
During transit, why should TacSit displays typically be zoomed out & center on working airspace?
Comprehensive view of relevant airspace, restrictions, and traffic en route
30
When prioritizing arrival to target, what is the typical speed used for flying ?
Max speed for velocity Max range for efficiency Max speed for time-critical
31
Which tracker display functions and modes can be utilized for basic navigation?
Fly Here (direct to) function Control Point “fly here” function Preprogrammed flight modes
32
How do crew members typically determine ETA to a target location?
Add Total time to the Zulu/GMT time
33
Why does the crew need to update the E-mission start point during transit?
To ensure AC follows desired path within cleared/deconflicted airspace if LL
34
What is one advantage (and disadvantage) of a wheel hold?
Advantage: provides SA on target from all aspects Disadvantage: constantly changing aspect of target area
35
What is one advantage and disadvantage of the figure eight holding pattern?
A: allows consistent look angle throughout D: increased pilot workload
36
What is one advantage and disadvantage of the figure eight holding pattern?
A: allows consistent look angle throughout D: increased pilot workload
37
What is the most effective way to prevent Nadir?
Solid cross check on azimuth & depression Action to prevent Nadir at 69
38
What are the first 3 steps of kill change process F2T2?
Find Fix Track
39
What are the 3 target types associated with the target acquisition process and what are the characteristics?
Static Moving Mobile
40
What are the 5 steps of the CBEAR process?
Comm Build Execute Assess Report
41
What are the various sensor cuing method used to quickly get to the MTS on coordinates?
Targeting/cross cue Walk on GPS & altimetry
42
Which mode is used to quickly slew the MTS to the target area?
Targeting
43
What are the 3 most common objectives of the Track step of the kill chain process?
Collection Exploitation Maintaining custody
44
What are the TRB and how many are available for use on the MTS toolbar and AMS?
Buttons on MTS for DESIGNATING targets; 4 TRBs on MTS toolbar and 20 in AMS
45
What are TRBs? And how many are available on MTS and AMS?
Buttons on MTS for DESIGNATING targets; 4 TRBs are available on MTS toolbar and 20 is AMS
46
What are the 2 primary track modes used to maintain tracks on targets?
Manual Auto
47
What are moving targets and some examples?
Currently in motion Cars/surface vessels, aircraft, motorbikes
48
T/F Dismounted personnel in motion are considered moving targets?
False
49
Which auto track modes are recommended for use when tracking moving targets?
Point Feature
50
During flight, what are the most common admin checks performed by the crew?
Battle damage Airborne ord checks/weather sweep In-flight ops checks, fence checks
51
What does an airborne ord check consist of and when is it typically conducted?
Visual confirmation with MTS of weapon condition and expenditure shortly after takeoff
52
What does a battle Check consist of and when is it conducted?
Both airborne ord Check and visual inspection of aircraft prior to RTB
53
What is the primary benefit in conducting in flight ops checks?
Detect developing malfunctions before they become an emergency
54
What are the 3 steps or mantra of the prioritized fence check?
Kill See Cleanup
55
What is the 4 letter mnemonic commonly used to identify AC features?
WEFT
56
What is a SA-8 GECKO and how would you describe it?
Radar guided tactical SAM Easily identified 6 wheels on stretched chassis
57
What are the identifiable features of towed filed artillery?
Long range Indirect fire support Med-large bore main gun Towed & self-propelled Requires anchors
58
What type of instrument is Radar and how does it work?
Timing instrument Uses radio waves to determine, range angle, or velocity of objects
59
What are the 3 primary imaging modes of SAR?
Spot Brickmap GeoRef
60
What are the 2 MTI modes available in SAR?
Spot Arc
61
In the CLAW, how can a spot image be commanded?
Right-click on area select spot Select spot image tab and define image parameters
62
What info does the CLAW master caution icon provide?
System status messages