AHUF Flashcards
1
Q
On the BMI scale, you are considered overweight if you score above…
A
25
2
Q
On the BMI scale, you are considered obese if you score above…
A
30
3
Q
Using the pinch test, the fold of skin should be no more than how many mm thick?
A
12mm
4
Q
how much blood does the heart pump per day
A
7600 litres/day
5
Q
The most common cause of pilot incapacitation during flight is
A
gastro-intestinal upset
6
Q
To avoid gastro, you should
A
avoid prepared hot foods that are kept for time
7
Q
The ideal temperature and humidity for humans is
A
21°C to 27°C and a relative humidity of 50% (40%-60% is comfort range)
8
Q
the first signs of heat stress will appear in temperatures in excess of…
A
32°C
9
Q
below what temperature does heat stress (or lack of heat) occur?
A
10°C
10
Q
There are 3 types of heat stress, what are they?
A
First is too hot, second is sun exposure, third is too cold.
11
Q
The first signs of dehydration include…
A
drying of the nasal passages and a prickly sensation in the eyes
12
Q
After donating blood, how long does CASA mandate a rest period on the ground?
A
At least 24hrs
13
Q
What is the effect of smoking on the chance of a heart attack?
A
risk increase by 100%, or 200% with high blood pressure, or 1000% if on the pill.
14
Q
What is the effect of smoking on the chance of a stroke?
A
risk increased by 100%
15
Q
What is the effect of smoking on the chance of gangrene?
A
risk increased by 500%
16
Q
The purpose of the eustachian tube is to…
A
allow pressure to equalise, which is why a blocked eustachian tube leads to barotrauma.
17
Q
Does air pressure in the eustachian tube equalise faster in the climb or on descent?
A
During climb
18
Q
Pressure vertigo is defined as
A
dizziness caused by pressure affecting the ear’s balance mechanism
19
Q
What manoeuvre is used to relieve baro discomfort during the descent?
A
The valsalve manoeuvre.
20
Q
Do the medications used to treat hay fever impose any limitations on flying?
A
The typical medications used for such treatment would disqualify a pilot from flying.
21
Q
If you suffer an injury or any other condition that may impair your ability to fly, do you have to tell casa?
A
Yes (CASR 61.265)
22
Q
The effects of ageing are noticed primarily in deterioration in…
A
hearing, and presbyopia (long sightedness).
23
Q
How long do you have to be pregnant for before it is recommended that you stop?
A
6 months
24
Q
On average, how much water does the body lose per day, and compared to a hot day?
A
1 litre, and 5 litres on a hot day.
25
Too much salt can lead to...
hypertension (high blood pressure)
26
Green vegetables such as cabbage release gases during digestion which can....
cause pain or discomfort when they expand at high altitude.
27
Too little iron in the diet leads to
anaemia
28
The type of human errors which feature most commonly in aircraft accidents are...
Errors in judgement or poor decision making
29
Is dehydration more likely to occur at low or high altitude?
high
30
Gout is often the result of
excessive uric acid in the blood
31
What sound frequencies is the deterioration of hearing likely to occur?
high frequencies
32
The eustachian tube connects...
the inner ear to the throat
33
If suffering from heat stress, you should...
drink more water than dictated by thirst alone
34
What happens to the volume of gas in the middle ear during a descent with blocked eustachian tubes?
decreases
35
Sinus pain experienced by a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft is most likely with
a head cold during a descent
36
How long are class 2 medicals valid for?
4 years if you're <40, or 2 years if you're 40 or older
37
How much time before DEPARTURE must a pilot abstain from consuming alcohol?
8hrs
38
What percentage of alcohol leaves the body via urine, sweat, and breath?
10%
39
At what rate is alcohol metabolised by the body?
1 standard per hour for men, and a slower rate for women.
40
Alcohol can stay in the bloodstream for how long after ingestion?
14 hrs?
41
Alcohol can stay in the brain for how long after ingestion?
24hrs
42
The maximum recommended alcohol intake over a period of one week for men and women is...
21-28 standards for men, and 14-21 for women
43
Hyperventilation is the result of...
exhaling too much carbon dioxide (which is needed for the blood)
44
Reducing carbon dioxide in the blood will have what effect?
reduces the acidity, resulting in lightheadedness, dizziness, sweating, numbness etc...
45
At what altitude does atmospheric pressure drop to half of that at sea level?
18,000ft
46
at what water depth is the pressure twice that of normal sea level pressure?
30ft
47
the bends/decompression sickness is the result of
Ascending too quickly, and the nitrogen in the blood coming out of solution.
48
The cure for the bends is to....
recompress i.e. descend again
49
The recommended rest periods for scuba diving are
4 hours if no decompression stops were required, 12 hours for a dive that required decompression stops but was less than 12 hours, and 48 hours if decompression stops were required and the dive was more than 4 hours.
50
The most dangerous side effect of antihistamines is....
drowsiness
51
If it is necessary to take sleeping tablets, how long should you wait before flying?
24hrs
52
The symptoms of hyperventilation can be alleviated by
breathing into a paper bag (increases carbon dioxide levels)
53
abdominal pain caused by the expansion of gases within the body is mot likely to be associated with
a rapid climb in a high performance unpressurised aircraft
54
when flying, a pilot suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection is liable to suffer from...
pressure vertigo
55
Can analgesics be used by pilots?
Yes, but ONLY for short term pain relief
56
During a climb, expanding gases are most likely to cause severe pain and discomfort when trapped in the...
small bowel
57
The middle ear consists of
Eardrum, hammer, anvil, stirrup
58
The inner ear consists of
the cochlea and the semicircular canals
59
On of the dangers of constant or even just on instance of exposure to loud noises is that
the damage is irreversible
60
One limitation of the cupula (the hair in the semicircular canals) is...
they only detect the initial change in angular acceleration
61
The otolith organ is responsible for....
linear accelerations
62
The semicircular canals are responsible for
angular accelerations
63
In terms of sound intensity (dB), what level of intensity is comfortable, and what will cause pain?
we are comfortable with up to 80dB, and pain occurs at 140dB.
64
Above what dB should hearing protection be worn?
above 85dB
65
As a general rule, hearing protection should be worn if the noise level is such that you need to shout in order to be heard at a distance of.....
half a metre
66
Earplugs tend to reduce noise exposure by
25dB
67
A good headset will reduce noise exposure by...
40dB
68
You can expect to suffer permanent hearing damage if you are regularly exposed to environmental noise levels exceeding.....
85dB
69
A function of the middle ear is to
amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum and transfer them to the cochlea
70
A function of the inner ear is
to convert the mechanical energy of incoming vibrations to nerve impulses, and to assist in maintaining the sense of balance
71
The purpose of the cochlea is to
convert the mechanical energy of vibration to electrical impulses
72
What is the minimum intensity of noise that would result in a sensation of pain to the ears
140db (sometimes 150)
73
The purpose of the eustachian tube is to
connect the MIDDLE ear to the throat
74
Which part of the ear is most affected by pressure differences when the eustachian tube is blocked?
the middle ear....because thats where the eustachian tube is
75
Light aircraft typically generate noise above
well above 85dB, usually in the mid to high 90s range.
76
The function of the hammer, anvil, and stirrup is to transfer vibrations from
The ear drum to the inner ear
77
What is the cornea?
Pretty much the windshield (outer layer) of the eye, allows light to enter.
78
What is the purpose of the aqueous humour?
It is a transparent fluid which supports the cornea
79
What is the iris?
The coloured part of the eye which changes its shape to deal with changes in the intensity of light
80
What is the pupil?
The black hole of the eye, controlled by the iris, allows light through to the lens.
81
What is the purpose of the ciliary muscles?
To alter the shape of the lens to allow the cornea to focus
82
What is the retina?
Home to all the rods and cones
83
Cones specialise in
colour perception and fine detail
84
Where are the cones concentrated on the retina?
Centrally
85
Where are the rods focussed on the retina?
Peripherally
86
What is the purpose of the rods?
Peripheral vision, and night vision.
87
what is the most sensitive part of the Retina?
The fovea
88
The purpose of the fovea is...
for fine details
89
How long does it take for rhodopsin (night vision) to take effect?
30-40 minutes
90
Exposure to strong glare (such as from snow or sand) can reduce night vision by 30-50% for up to...
one week
91
Why is lighting in the cockpit at night red?
because the frequency of red has almost no effect on the rods.
92
The visual acuity of the eye requires the ability to resolve an angle of...
1/60 of a degree (1 minute). this is equivalent to 1mm at 3.6m, or 1cm at 36m.
93
What is empty field myopia?
With not much to focus on the ciliary muscles will relax, and the eye will focus 1-2m ahead.
94
What is general advice to avoid empty field myopia?
occasionally focus on wingtips or ground features.
95
In an empty visual field, do we tend to under or overestimate the distance to other objects?
Overestimate.
96
How many degrees of arc can the eyes focus on?
10° to 15°
97
To fix hyperopia (longsightedness), you should use what type of lens?
Convex lens
98
to fix myopia (shortsightedness), you should use what type of lens?
concave
99
To fix astigmatism, what type of lens should you use?
Cylindrical
100
What is presbyopia
Natural deterioration of vision (usually have trouble seeing close)
101
To fix presbyopia, what type of lens should be worn?
bifocals
102
When scanning, it is best to move the head...
10° to 15° at a time, a pausing between each.
103
Is it more efficient to move the head or the eyes when scanning?
Head, as this keeps the eyes in focus for longer.
104
A lack of oxygen can degrade night vision, at what altitude does this begin
approximately 4000ft
105
The saccade rest cycle is....
0.3 seconds
106
Light is focused onto the retina by the action of
the cornea and the lens
107
The coriolis illusion occurs when...
the canal that was in the yawing plane moves to the rolling plane.
108
The symptom of the coriolis effect is
an unpleasant tumbling sensation
109
What is a false horizon
in the absence of an actual horizon, our eyes will try select another long straight surface, and if this is not actually straight it can cause disorientation.
110
What is the autokinetic illusion?
In the absence of any other reference, the eyeball makes continuous small jerky movements and cause objects (like distant lights) to move about rapidly.
111
What is the somatogravic illusion
acceleration mistaken for pitch up
112
In regards to vision, what does 'perception' refer to?
The relative distance to objects and the height of the eye above the surface.
113
Hazy atmosphere will make objects appear closer or further away?
Further away
114
In regards to vision, what does 'parallax' refer to?
The brain can determine whether an object is closer or further away depending on how it moves in your field of vision.
115
In regards to terrain sloping up from the threshold, will the pilot feel too high or low?
Too low (due to less terrain clearance)
116
In regards to terrain sloping down from the threshold, will the pilot feel too high or low?
Too high (due to excessive terrain clearance)
117
In regards to the runway sloping up to the threshold, will the pilot feel too high or low?
too high
118
In regards to the runway sloping down, will the pilot feel too high or low?
too low
119
The black hole effect will cause the pilot to think that they are....
Too HIGH on approach, and therefore there is a tendency to undershoot.
120
When approaching a runway over water or featureless terrain, the tendency is to believe that you are....
Too high on the approach.
121
At night, city lights will cause the city to appear closer or further away than they actually are?
Appear to be closer
122
for an object to be the same height as the observer, relative to the horizon, where should the object sit?
On the horizon
123
During a constant angular acceleration in the yawing plane, the hair like cells in the semicircular canals of the inner ear will be....
in the upright position.
124
When disorientated, is it better to look at just one instrument or scan all of the instruments?
LOOK AT ALL THE INSTRUMENTS
125
Describe 'grey out'
partial loss of vision (peripheral) which usually occurs around 3.5 G
126
Describe 'black out'
Above 5 G, vision becomes black, the pilot is still conscious
127
describe 'G-LOC'
G force Loss of Consciousness, occurs if high G load is SUSTAINED (not enough residual oxygen to maintain consciousness)
128
Why are reclined seats better for G force tolerance?
Heart and brain are closer to level (heart doesn't have to work as hard to deliver oxygen)
129
high levels of negative G force can cause the pilot's vision to....
go red due to excess blood
130
A sudden change from a sustained negative G to a positive G will....
increase the chance of experiencing grey or black out (because the heart had slowed down to cope with negative G and now can't catch up)
131
Are there any symptoms of carbon monoxide in low doses?
No, carbon monoxide is common in low doses (e.g. cigarettes)
132
What are the initial symptoms of carbon monoxide poison?
slight headache, fatigue, and mild discomfort in breathing.
133
What are the later symptoms of carbon monoxide poison?
impaired vision, mental confusion, headache, and vomiting
134
Can you smell carbon monoxide?
No, however it is often associated with other gases which have distinctive odours, so if you smell fumes, carbon monoxide is likely also present
135
What is the most effective way to relieve the symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning?
Administer oxygen
136
For G-LOC to occur, how long does the G force have to be held?
generally more than 5 seconds (7G for 7 seconds is worse tha 8G for 2 seconds)
137
The composition of the atmosphere is approximately...
78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and 1% other gases.
138
At what altitude does it become necessary to breathe pure oxygen due to a lack of partial pressure?
33,700ft.
139
Why does the brain not increase breathing rate at higher altitude?
Because it monitors CO2 levels, which have not changed, it is simply the partial pressure of the air which is changing.
140
Early onset hypoxia symptoms are similar to that of...
alcohol, with the addition of reduced night vision.
141
Later symptoms of hypoxia include...
impaired judgement, euphoria, and overestimation of performance, as well as cyanosis (blue coloration of lips and nails).
142
Time of useful consciousness for moderate activity at 20,000ft is
10 minutes
143
Time of useful consciousness for passive activity at 20,000ft is
20 minutes
144
Time of useful consciousness for moderate activity at 25,000ft is
3 minutes
145
Time of useful consciousness for passive activity at 25,000ft is
5 minutes
146
Time of useful consciousness for moderate activity at 30,000ft is
1 minute
147
Time of useful consciousness for passive activity at 30,000ft is
3 minutes
148
Degradation of night vision usually occurs at what altitude?
4000ft
149
If suffering from hyperventilation, should you increase breathing rate?
No, you need to increase CO2 levels, and breathing too quickly will eliminate CO2 from the system.
150
The effects of rapid decompression include...
breathe rapidly exhaled from the lungs, sudden drop in cabin temp, pain in the stomach, ears and sinuses.
151
From 10,000ft to 25000ft, what type of oxygen mask will be adequate?
A continuous flow oxygen mask
152
From 25000ft to 40,000ft, what type of oxygen mask will be adequate?
A demand oxygen mask
153
Above 40,000ft what type of oxygen mask will be required?
A pressure demand mask, delivering 100% oxygen.
154
Supplemental oxygen is required under the CAO to be worn by pilots and passengers above...
10,000ft
155
A heavy smoker flying at 5000ft would be susceptible to experiencing the same degree of hypoxia as a non-smoker at....
10,000ft
156
Above which altitude does it first become necessary for a pilot of an unpressurised aircraft to breathe 100% oxygen?
33,700ft
157
Above which altitude does it first become necessary for a pilot of an unpressurised aircraft to breathe 100% oxygen UNDER PRESSURE?
40,000ft
158
Compared to sitting quietly in a normal cockpit environment, the uptake of oxygen when under stress of coping with a life-threatening emergency can be increased by a factor of ...
20
159
A regular smoker a sea level can be assumed to be at an effective altitude of...
8000ft
160
True or false, the symptoms of hypoxia and hyperventilation are often confused?
True, however hyperventilation has the addition of a 'tingling sensation;.
161
how long is visual information held in sensory memory?
0.5-1 sec
162
how long is auditory information held in sensory memory?
4-8 sec
163
how long and how much information held in short term memory?
7 +/2 items, for 30 seconds
164
Is short term memory visual or acoustic?
acoustic
165
Compared to long term memory, short term memory is almost error free, true or false?
true
166
What is episodic memory?
memories of past events
167
What is semantic memory?
Assigning meaning to symbols, codes, or words.
168
For information to pass from short term memory to long term memory, it must be....
consolidated through rehearsal
169
Under stress, what happens to the rate and range of attention
Rate increases, range reduces
170
The phenomena which allows us to distinguish our callsigns readily on the radio is...
the cocktail party effect
171
Of all the personality types, which one is most likely to have an accident?
the anxious extrovert
172
Using the P G scale (person and Goal orientated scale), a captain would display traits of....
P+ G+ i.e. achieve both goals and cooperation with other crew.
173
What are the 4 steps in information processing
Sensation Perception Decision Response
174
Define attitude
A predisposition to respond in a certain way to a particular person or situation
175
What are the three elements of an 'attitude'
The cognitive aspect (personal beliefs), the affective aspect (feelings, often based on beliefs), and the behavioural aspect (the action resulting from beliefs and feelings)
176
According to maslow and his heiracchy to self fulfilment, what are the stages?
Physiological needs, safety and security, belonging and affection, self esteem, self fulfillment.
177
A personality trait which features cool headed self assurance would be classified as
Stable introvert
178
A learnt skill which is almost automatic is known as a....
motor program
179
A motor program is most likely to have a problem at the stage of
initiation
180
During periods of high stress, a pilots attention is likely to be
selective sequential (deal with one thing at a time, and maybe not the most important thing first)
181
Some situations in which the 'false hypothesis' is likely to occur include...
high expectancy, diverted attention, following a period of high concentration (tendency to relax), effect of motor memory (using wrong action), and the environmental capture (doing it because it's time e.g. flaps on final).
182
What is the risky shift phenomenon?
tendency to take more risks when in a group than when by yourself
183
What is a systematic error?
A consistent error with a specific pattern e.g. always landing left of the centreline
184
What is a random error?
No consistency in errors, appear random. e.g. landing left ,right, and on centreline
185
What is a sporadic error?
Almost all of the task is done well except for one specific error usually of a serious nature.
186
In considering experience, who is more likely to commit a handling error?
Low time pilots
187
In considering experience, who is more likely to commit an error in judgement?
Both high and low time pilots are about as likely.
188
When monitoring a system's performance, how long does it take for vigilance to drop markedly?
30 minutes
189
What is rule-based skill/behaviour?
Any reaction that is required is usually predetermined by a rule e.g. not stable - go around
190
Are rule-based behaviours motor programs?
No, they need to be consciously activated.
191
What is knowledge based skill/behaviour?
Thinking and reasoning i.e. using knowledge to make decisions
192
When arousal increases to the point of stress, how does the body respond?
The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary gland to release hormones into the blood stream.
193
What are the adrenal glands responsible for?
Releasing adrenaline into the blood stream.
194
When stress is related to a short term task, it is known as...
acute stress
195
When stress is job or lifestyle related, it is known as....
chronic stress
196
What are the stages of stress?
Alarm (fight or flight ready), resistance (not giving up), and collapse (exhaustion)
197
What are some examples of physical stressors?
Noise, temperature, vibration, hunger and thirst
198
When suffering from acute fatigue, what type of performance will drop?
Performance of monotonous tasks and complex tasks will reduce before motor programs.
199
when put in an artificial environment and isolated from the 24hr day/night cycle, what cycle does the body revert to?
a 25hr cylce (yes 25)
200
What is the best time of the day for optimum performance
mid to late afternoon (3pm to 9pm)
201
Even though you may have been awake for 20 hours, and absolutely exhausted by 5pm, why may you have trouble falling asleep?
Because this may not follow your circadian rhythm which is used to going to sleep at 9pm or a different time. Sleep quality is determined by time of initiation.
202
What type of sleep cycle comprises almost all of sleep?
stage 2
203
What stage of sleep does REM occur?
Stage 4
204
Do have any benefit, a nap should have a duration of...
10-15 minutes
205
Though alcohol helps to induce sleep, the negative effect is that...
it reduces the REM period, and degrades the overall quality of sleep.
206
The body will slowly adapt to a new time zone at an average rate of...
one to one and a half hours per day
207
Is jet lag worse or better when travelling west?
Better because the body is more used to slowing down than speeding up.
208
During which part of the day will a person find it most difficult to stay awake?
3am-5am
209
The lapse in performance standards which occurs daily in the mid afternoon (after lunch, even if you haven't eaten) is known as...
the post-prandial dip
210
The highest life change unit score on the Holmes-Rahe scale is associated with
marital separation
211
After a series of false alarms, is it likely to make a false hypothesis?
no
212
The process of decision making involves which order of steps?
Consider the facts, define the problem, consider the solution, act, consider the result
213
1hr of time is equal to 15° of longitude, and we adapt to longitude at 1.5hrs per day, so how many days would it take to adapt to 90° of longitude change?
4 days (90° is 6 hours, 6 / 1.5 = 4)
214
Define hardware, software, and liveware
hardware = physical systems, software = computers and SOPs, liveware=humans
215
A basic principle of ergonomics is that the machine should be designed to....
fit the characteristics of the people who operate it (so not necessarily everyone)
216
In regards to withstanding G forces, what is the most the human body can sustain and for how long?
20G for 0.2 seconds
217
A well designed cockpit should cater to what percentage of the population?
90%
218
When considering Design Eye Position (DEP), how many seconds of approach speed should be visual beyond the cockpit cutoff point?
3 seconds
219
Sitting just 1" too low in a large transport aircraft will cause you to lose how much forward visibility?
40m
220
When is it superior to have an analogue representation over a digital display?
When displaying direction or rate of change.
221
When are linear strip displays ideal?
When monitoring several systems e.g. for a multi-engine aircraft
222
Mode awareness is an issue in glass cockpits, why?
Because there are so many operating modes it may cause the pilots to think the system is operating in a specific mode when in fact it isn't.
223
Barriers to effective communication can be internal or external, give examples of each.
External: noise, physical discomfort, busy workplace etc..
Internal: misinterpretation, expectancy, language
224
What are some aids to effective communication?
Use of standard phrases, pace and clarify of speech, authority gradient (not too steep or shallow), body language
225
Regarding the push and pull method of communication, what do these terms mean?
Push means presenting our thoughts and opinions to others, and pull means we are seeking access to the thoughts and opinions of others.
226
In general terms, define a leader
Someone who, in a given situation, influences the thought and behaviour of others
227
A key difference in leadership vs authority is...
Leadership is acquired, while authority is assigned.
228
What 3 considerations compete for the attention of a good leader?
TIT, Task, Individual, Team.
229
Using the P G personality scale, what type of personality does a good leader have?
P+G+
230
What is the two communication rule?
In a multi crew environment, if someone doesn't respond to a statement about flying after two attempts, the non-flying pilot takes over.
231
DR ABC
Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation
232
In the event of a sudden emergency in flight, the most effective communication style is...
assertive
233
Is explaining the reasons for not implementing the ideas of the group an example of good leadership techniques by the captain?
Yes
234
The most important considerations in the ergonomics of flight deck design are...
Function, frequency of use, sequence of use, importance of control
235
A passenger who has fainted, and is only semi-conscious, should not be given...
food or water
236
The CPR cycle should be
15 compressions, 2 breaths, repeated 4 times per minute
237
A patient is haemorrhaging severely from a wound to the lower arm, what form of medical treatment should be applied?
A pressure bandage directly to the wound.
238
In regards to sporadic, random, and systematic errors, which is the most difficult to correct?
Sporadic, because the error is not consistent. o fix random errors all areas should be retrained.
239
According to the Hertzberg Two-factor theory, where does satisfaction and dissatisfaction come from?
satisfaction from motivating factors (achievements), dissatisfaction from hygiene factors (relationships, money, and working conditions).
240
The optimum cockpit authority gradient is one which...
leaves no doubt as to the final authority of the captain, but the opinion of the crew is still actively sought and valued
241
What frequency of hearing does alcohol affect?
Low frequency
242
What is an error?
A pilot action or inaction which has the potential to adversely affect the situation
243
What is an Undesired Aircraft State?
Any flight condition or attitude which was not intended.
244
How does an aircraft enter an undesired state?
Either through a threat (such as windshear) or through an error (pilot handling)
245
What is a threat?
A situation or event that has the potential to impact negatively on the safety of a flight.
246
External threats can fit into 3 categories, what are they?
anticipated (weather), unexpected (terrorist), or latent (ergonomics)
247
What are internal threats?
Threats brought by the crew (fatigue, language, experience etc...)
248
Threats can be either organisational or environmental, describe these.
Environmental: weather, operational pressures (slot times), terrain etc...
Organisational: Documentation (incorrect manual information), poor rostering
249
Errors can be classified as
Handling, procedural, and communication
250
What is a handling error?
Error in controlling the aircraft or systems
251
What is a procedural error?
Errors in use of SOPs
252
What are systemic countermeasures and give some examples
countermeasures which are bult into the system, such as stall warning, GPWS etc...
253
There are 3 types of countermeasures, what are they?
Planning countermeasures (approach brief), execution countermeasures (loading up next waypoints for approach), review countermeasures (how is the approach going)
254
What type of error would you classify a misconfiguration as?
A handling error. Even if something is procedurally based (e.g. carb heat on descent), if the pilot does (or doesn't do it), it is a HANDLING error.
255
Undesired Aircraft states can be classified as
Aircraft handling states, ground navigation states, aircraft configuration states
