Air Law Flashcards

Question

ICAO definition - Co-pilot

Answer 1

Licensed pilot serving in any capacity other than PIC, but excluding a pilot on board for the sole purpose of receiving instruction.

Answer 2

International Air Transport Association Association of air transport operators dealing with issues outside of ICAO such as: - Airport slots - Commercial Fuel Policy - Consumer protection - Environmental policy - Unruly passengers - Security - Taxation

Answer 3

Airspace users and aircraft either operating into/within/out of EU or bearing nationality/registration marks of a member state of the union (although rules of territory flying through take precedence).

Answer 4

ICAO publishes standards and recommended practices which states can opt out of, or adopt in full.

Answer 5

Aircraft of any signatory power can fly over territory of any other signatory, or land there for technical reasons (e.g. refuelling). Created under the International Air Transport TRANSIT Agreement in the Chicago convention.

Answer 6

Allows carriage of traffic (passengers & freight): - from state of registration to any other signatory state (3rd) - from any signatory state to the state of registration (4th) - from any signatory state to any other signatory state (5th) Created under the International Air Transport Agreement

Answer 7

Operating commercially entirely within a single signatory state (other than state of registration). This isn't included in the 5 freedoms and can be unlawful. i.e. domestic flight

Answer 8

Consecutive cabotage Members states within the EU permitted to carry passengers or cargo between two points in one foreign country. [Not part of chicago convention]

Answer 9

The Assembly consists of members of the 191 contracting states, meets every 3 years to review the organisation and set policy for next 3 years. They elect a Council of 36 states for a 3 year term. The council adopts SARPs. The Air Navigation Commission made up of 19 individuals (nominated by states, appointed by council) considers, finalises and recommends SARPs and PANS to the council. Assembly = Sovereign body Council = GOVERNING body

Answer 10

5 divisions, headed by secretary general - Air Navigation Bureau - Air Transport Bureau - Technical Cooperation Bureau - Legal Bureau - Bureau of Administration and Services

Answer 11

Provision for air navigation facilities and ground services split up into regions: - SAM - South America - NAM - North America - EUR - European - ASIA - Asia - MID - Middle East - CAR - Caribbean - NAT - North Atlantic - PAC - Pacific - AFI - African-Indian Ocean

Answer 12

Civilian aircraft not engaged in scheduled international services (i.e. GA) can fly over states territory and land for non-traffic purposes without prior permission. State being overflown may require aircraft to land. States can define prescribed routes over inaccessible regions or where air navigation facilities are limited, or require permission for such flights.

Answer 13

Scheduled international air services require approval of states they operate over or into.

Answer 14

States can refuse permission for cabotage to aircraft of other contracting states. However they can't enter into contracts allowing it exclusively to any other single state or airline of a state.

Answer 15

Unless permitted to cross a state without landing, all aircraft entering territory must land and depart at customs airport. States must publish and transmit to ICAO details of their customs airports.

Answer 16

Aircraft operating in a states territory must comply with the states laws and regulations.

Answer 17

States must prosecute breaches of regulations of aircraft in their territory. They must ensure their regulations comply with ICAO SARPs to "greatest extent possible". Over high seas ICAO SARPs apply.

Answer 18

Appropriate authorities of states are allowed (without undue delay) to search aircraft of other states on landing or departure and to inspect certificates or documents prescribed in the convention.

Answer 19

Aircraft nationality is nation in which they are registered. Aircraft can change nation of registration but can't be registered in 2 nations.

Answer 20

International Telecommunications Union (ITU) allocates codes to ICAO. ICAO distributes to states of registration. State of registration allocate to aircraft.

Answer 21

States must supply to ICAO or other states information regarding registration and ownership of any aircraft registered there.

Answer 22

States agree to facilitate and expedite navigation of aircraft between contracting states and avoid unnecessary delays, especially in administration of laws around immigration, quarantine, customs and clearance. States should establish (as far as possible) customs & immigration procedures in line with ICAO. This does NOT prevent customs free airports.

Answer 23

Aircraft travelling to or through states are temporarily free of duty, along with spare parts, fuel, oils, regular equipment and aircraft stores on board if retained on board [subject to customs regulations of the state]. Articles taken off (e.g. spare parts for another aircraft) may require keeping under customs supervision, but should be customs free [subject to customs regulations of the state].

Answer 24

States must provide assistance to aircraft in distress in their territory. They must permit (subject to control by their authorities) owners of the aircraft or authorities of state of registration to provide assistance. In searching for missing aircraft states must collaborate as required by ICAO.

Answer 25

States must provide airports, radio services, met services and air navigation services in accordance with ICAO standards and practices. States must adopt standard ICAO codes, markings, signals, lighting, communication procedures and operational practices. States must cooperate with international measures to publish maps to ICAO standards.

Answer 26

- Certificate of Registration - Certificate of Airworthiness - Licenses for each crew - Journey log book - Radio license (if it has a radio) - Passenger list (names, embarkation, destination) - Cargo manifest and detailed declarations of cargo

Answer 27

States must recognise certificates of airworthiness and licenses issued by the state in which the aircraft was registered, provided they are up to ICAO standards. BUT they reserve the right to refuse to recognise for flight above their own territory, licenses issued to their own nationals by a contracting state.

Answer 28

No munitions of war to be carried in a states territory without its permission. Can define this themselves, but must be guided by ICAO recommendations. Can prohibit other items if their own aircraft meet the restrictions on international flights AND safety not affected.

Answer 29

Aircraft or crew not meeting ICAO standards must have certificates of airworthiness or licenses endorsed. Endorsed aircraft or crew require permission of states entered to operate international flights.

Answer 30

- Ensure safe and orderly growth of civil aviation - Encourage aircraft design & operation for peaceful purposes - Encourage development of airways, airports & air nav facilities - Meet the needs of people of the world for safe, regular, efficient, economical air transport - Prevent economic waste by unreasonable competition# - Ensure rights of contracting states respected and every states has opportunity for international airlines - Avoid discriminating between states - Promote safety of flight - Promote development of civil aviation

Answer 31

ICAO to be granted in each state legal capacity as may be required for performance of its functions.

Answer 32

Meetings at least every 3 years or extraordinary at request of 1/5th of states. Each contracting state gets one vote on a majority basis (unless otherwise noted in articles). Quorum requires majority.

Answer 33

- Create subordinate air transport commissions on a regional or other basis... - Delegate or revoke delegation to air navigation commission - Conduct research into air transport and navigation and share with states - Study matters affecting the organisation and submit plans to the Assembly - Investigate situations blocking air navigation at request of states and issue reports

Answer 34

State of registry has jurisdiction over offences and acts committed on board. PIC can use reasonable measures including restraint in protecting aircraft, persons & objects on board. Can remove persons or refuse entry to allow handover to authorities. In hijacking situation state must provide navaids, ATC and landing clearance. Isolated parking positions must be 100m from other aircraft.

Answer 35

Unlawful seizure of aircraft Defines rules for establishing jurisdiction over the offenders.

Answer 36

Deals with air rage and other acts which could endanger aircraft safety, other than hijacking

Answer 37

Includes using civil aircraft as weapons and using dangerous materials to attack other aircraft or targets on ground. Unlawful transport of biological, chemical and nuclear weapons covered. Making a threat or organising acts may be an offense even if they don't go ahead. Human rights of suspects is also a focus.

Answer 38

Created 2 year time limit and $10,000 (in gold) liability limit to passengers except in gross negligence. Since changed from gold standard and time limit can be unlimited in some circumstances. Carriers liable for damage to luggage and for delays.

Answer 39

Carrier must issue paper or electronic ticket, which is a contract, but loss of ticket doesn't nullify contract. 1 luggage ticket for luggage, 1 for passenger. 3 air waybills for cargo (for carrier, consignee and consignor).

Answer 40

Defines and limits liability of aircraft operator for damage to third parties on the surface. Also safeguards against aircraft being impounded as cover for liability and listed aircraft protected from precautionary arrest (e.g. state service or postal service, aircraft in regular public service).

Answer 41

Part of Rome Convention Eliminates duty on all aircraft (except military) and other products such as engines, sub-assemblies, flight simulators and parts.

Answer 42

Part of Rome Convention Allows ICAO to provide funding (joint support) for financial or technical aid. Iceland and Greenland are given large sums for supporting transatlantic aviation which doesn't stop there.

Answer 43

Eur 125 to 600 denied boarding compensation. Refund entitlement for 5 hour delay if they don't travel. Compensation for cancellation with less than 14 days notice, unless rescheduled at similar time or extraordinary circumstances. Entitlement to assistance in the event of cancellation, delay or denied boarding.

Answer 44

If aircraft is certificated to be operated with a co-pilot, co-pilot can claim full credit for flight time. If aircraft is certificated to be operated by single pilot, but required by a Contracting State to be operated with co-pilot, co-pilot can claim up to 50% of flight time. [Contracting State can allow up to 100%, which EASA does]

Answer 45

PIC under supervision is a co-pilot carrying out PIC responsibilities under supervision of a PIC. Full flight time can be credited.

Answer 46

Student acting as PIC with an instructor who will only observe the student and not influence or control the flight.

Answer 47

Means a probability of occurring that is unacceptable to the medical assessor

Answer 48

Both are physicians with aviation knowledge, designated by a licensing authority to: Examiner - conduct medical examinations Assessor - assess medical conditions (take reports from examiners)

Answer 49

When a licensing authority accepts a foreign license as being equivalent to its own, rather than issuing its own license. Validity shall not extend beyond expiry of the original license.

Answer 50

There are 4 class ratings - combinations of SEP/MEP and land/sea. Type ratings only established for: i) Aircraft with minimum crew >= 2 ii) Single pilot helicopters (except where class rating issued) iii) Any type at discretion of licensing authority

Answer 51

Exclude caffeine and tobacco. Not only prohibit being under their influence whilst having a function critical to safety of aviation, but shall not engage in problematic usage of substances in general.

Answer 52

Except TOL or with permission from appropriate authority: i) Glide clear ii) 1000ft above highest obstacle within 600m iii) 500ft above ground or water.

Answer 53

Should be pre-arranged by PICs and: i) Formation acts as a single aircraft for navigation and position reporting ii) Separation is responsibility of flight leader and PICs, includes periods of transition iii) Maximum distance of 1km laterally and 30m vertically from flight leader to be maintained

Answer 54

Sunset to sunrise: i) Anti-collision lights (beacon) [can be switched off or dimmed to prevent problems for pilots or others] ii) Navigation lights (110 deg, 110 deg, 140 deg) and no lights to confuse these

Answer 55

Day and night: Anti-collision lights to be used when engines are running [can be switched off or dimed to prevent problems for pilots or others] Navigation lights when moving Also need extremities of the aircraft to be lit

Answer 56

Submitted before operating: i) Flight or portion thereof to be provided with an ATC service ii) Flight across international borders (unless otherwise prescribed by the States) iii) Night flight if leaving vicinity of aerodrome iv) IFR flight in advisory space Flight in areas or routes designated by competent authority to: v) facilitate provision of flight information or SAR vi) facilitate coordination with military units or ATS units in adjacent States, to prevent need for interception

Answer 57

Pre-flight: 60 mins before departure In-flight: 10 mins before reaching boundary or requiring service

Answer 58

I for IFR V for VFR Y for IFR changing to VFR Z for VFR changing to IFR

Answer 59

Put ZZZZ In box 18 add "DEP/", "DEST/" or "ALTN/" and the full aerodrome name

Answer 60

In TAS, code letter for units then 4 numbers. K for km/hr N for knots M for mach number (0750 is 0.750)

Answer 61

0.02 M 10kt (TAS +/- 5% under SERA)

Answer 62

Take off up to... VFR: Overhead aerodrome IFT: Point established by navaids where instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or overhead aerodrome if no navaids.

Answer 63

More than 2 minutes

Answer 64

Delay of 30 minutes to OFF-BLOCK time for controlled flight, or 60 minutes for uncontrolled.

Answer 65

If landing with ATC unit who observe your landing, nothing to do. Otherwise need to communicate closure of plan ASAP after landing. If no communications facilities at destination, close the plan with ATSU immediately prior to landing.

Answer 66

Repetitive flight plans only for IFR flights on same day(s) of consecutive weeks on at least 10 occasions, or on at least 10 consecutive days. Flights subject to air traffic flow control require flight plans 3 hours in advance and changes to off blocks time in excess of 15 mins to have flight plan updated or replaced.

Answer 67

As low as possible, not normally less than 3,000ft (rounded to 1000ft) It is fixed and can be found in AIP and on charts (unlike the transition level which changes)

Answer 68

Service provided within Advisory airspace to ensure separation (as far as practical) between aircraft on IFR flight plans.

Answer 69

ATSU consists of: i) ATCU ii) Flight Information Centre iii) ATS reporting office (receive flight plans) ATCU consists of i) Area control centre ii) Approach control unit iii) Aerodrome control tower

Answer 70

ATC service for arriving OR departing controlled flights

Answer 71

Height above ground of lowest layer of cloud covering half of the sky, below 20,000ft.

Answer 72

Landing area: Take off & landing Manoeuvring area: Take off, landing & taxiing (excludes apron) Movement area: Manoeuvring area plus aprons

Answer 73

Persons who if not doing their job properly put safety at risk. Includes, flight crew, maintenance and ATC.

Answer 74

Both are controlled airspace. Control zone extends from surface of the Earth to a given level. Control area extends from a level above the Earth to a given level.

Answer 75

Time that ATC expects (after a delay) the aircraft will leave holding point to complete approach for landing

Answer 76

Above FL100/10,000ft: 8km Below FL100/10,000ft: 5km

Answer 77

1,500m horizontal 1,000ft vertical Except below 3,000ft AMSL or 1,000ft above terrain in class F & G: Clear of cloud & sight of surface

Answer 78

Competent authority may approve visibility to not less than 1.5km for flights below 140kt. Helicopters not less than 800m if at an appropriate speed.

Answer 79

Not below minimum flight altitude of the State overflow, or if not applicable not below 1,000ft over highest obstacle within 8km (2,000ft in mountainous areas).

Answer 80

VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate in controlled airspace in conditions below VMC. Only applies when entering or leaving a control zone (eg to reach a GA aerodrome) and in some States requires IFR equipped aircraft. Daytime only, min 1500m (800m rotor) visibility, <140kt. Won't be allowed if ceiling below 600ft.

Answer 81

Ceiling above 1,500ft Ground visibility above 5km Unless cleared by air traffic control unit

Answer 82

Need authorisation from appropriate ATS authority to operate VFR over FL 195. Authorisation above FL285 not to be granted where vertical separation minima of 1000ft applies from FL290.

Answer 83

At least 1000ft above highest obstacle within 600m At least 500ft above ground or water

Answer 84

To change to IFR need to file a flight plan in flight. To change from IFR need to say "cancelling my IFR flight" and the required changes, only to be done if a reasonable time will be spent in uninterrupted VMC. ATS will not suggest or request a change to VFR.

Answer 85

Same as night. 1000ft above highest obstacle within 8km (2000ft in mountainous areas) Need to take into account accuracy of position establishing equipment.

Answer 86

Data comms: 1 second ATSU: 30 seconds

Answer 87

SELCAL and similar automatic signalling devices satisfy the requirement. CPDLC does not, air-ground voice communication still required.

Answer 88

VMC - Stay in VMC, land at nearest aerodrome and report to ATC. IFR & no radar service - Maintain last cleared speed & level (heading can change!) for 20 mins beyond failed reporting point, then follow flight plan. IFR & radar service - Maintain cleared speed & level for 7 mins beyond failed reporting point (or 7600 setting time or time reaching last assigned level if later) then re-join flight plan. [IFR head to nav point at destination, commence approach as close to EAT as possible]

Answer 89

If IFR flight given clearance to a different altitude than flight plan, maintain that altitude for 3 mins then proceed with flight plan.

Answer 90

MAGNETIC TRACK 000 to 179: 10, 30, ..., 270 180 to 359: 20, 40, ..., 260 VFR: 5 above from FL36 minimum 000 to 179: 290, 330, ... 180 to 359: 310, 360, ... VFR: 10 above

Answer 91

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima Areas where vertical separation is only 1,000ft from FL290 to FL410

Answer 92

If required in an emergency in controlled airspace ATC must be informed and must coordinate including the route to be used, flight level (min 6000ft) and duration of dumping. [min level can be ignored in emergency]. Separation required of 10NM horizontally (but not behind), vertically if behind and within 50NM or 15 mins 1000ft above or 300ft below.

Answer 93

- SOS (e.g. in morse code) - Radio with spoken "MAYDAY" - Data link "MAYDAY" - Rockets/shells showing red lights, one at a time with short intervals - Red parachute flare

Answer 94

Radiotelephone - 12 x 4 second dashes with 1 second gaps Radiotelegraph - 2 alternate audio frequency tones, for 30 secs to a minute if automatically generated

Answer 95

- Switch landing lights on and off - Switch nav lights on and off (distinctly from regular flashing nav lights)

Answer 96

- Signal via some method of "XXX" - Radio with spoken word "PANPAN" - Data link "PANPAN"

Answer 97

Projectiles at 10 second intervals showing red and green lights or stars

Answer 98

In day time rock wings (NOT base or final), or move ailerons/rudder if on ground. At night flash landing lights on and off twice (nav lights if no landing lights).

Answer 99

Prohibited to land

Answer 100

Precaution when landing due to bad state of manoeuvring area (or other reason)

Answer 101

Land, TO and taxy on runways and taxiways only

Answer 102

Land and TO on runways only, other manoeuvres not confined to taxiways and runways

Answer 103

Gliders in operation

Answer 104

Proceed to next marshaller

Answer 105

Move ahead

Answer 106

Turn left [Having opposite arm out means forward turn]

Answer 107

Turn while backing [Reverse left engine] [Opposite arm down means reverse turn]

Answer 108

Open to clenched hand - Engage brakes Clenched to open hand - Release brakes

Answer 109

[Start with hands above head] Moving hands in - Chocks inserted Moving hands out - Chocks removed

Answer 110

Show engines on indicated side

Answer 111

Move backwards [Arms rolling in a forwards motion]

Answer 112

Affirmative/all clear

Answer 113

Land (helicopter)

Answer 114

Hold position/stand by [arms at 45 degrees downwards]

Answer 115

Dispatch aircraft [Keeps eye contact until taxi commenced]

Answer 116

Don't touch controls

Answer 117

Ground power Moving fingers up into palm is connect, moving fingers down is disconnect

Answer 118

Establish communications via interphone

Answer 119

Open/close stairs

Answer 120

Recommend evacuation

Answer 121

Recommend stop

Answer 122

Change flight level from normal IFR levels by 1,000 ft above FL290 or 500ft below FL290 (also 500ft in RVSM airspace)

Answer 123

Raise landing gear and flash landing lights while passing over runway between 1,000 and 2,000 ft

Answer 124

Regular switching on and off of lights (dissimilar to flashing)

Answer 125

Irregular switching on and off of lights

Answer 126

7700 - unless indicated otherwise by ATSU

Answer 127

Attempt to resolve the conflict with ATSU but follow the intercepting aircraft primarily

Answer 128

Common mark is the first part of registration based on country of registration (assigned to country by ICAO). Registration mark is the series of alphanumeric characters assigned by the state of registry (OR "common mark registering authority").

Answer 129

Combinations of registration marks which could be confused with the following not allowed: - Q codes - SOS, PAN, XXX, TTT - 5 letter combinations in international Code of Signals part II

Answer 130

50cm on wings 30cm on fuselage or vertical tail [Unless aircraft is too small]

Answer 131

To be inscribed at least with: - Common or nationality mark - Registration mark

Answer 132

[>5700kg TOM only!] Responsibility of the state of registry. State of registry needs to tell state of design when they register an aircraft type for the first time. State of design responsible for passing on information about faults or defects including a continuing integrity programme (e.g. corrosion prevention) and passing information on to states of registry. State of registry then responsible for passing info on to operators.

Answer 133

Determined by the state of registry. Usually remain valid indefinitely as long as inspection requirements are met.

Answer 134

State of registry determines whether the aircraft remains airworthy. If sustained whilst in territory of another state, that state can prevent resumption of flight but must inform state of registry. In exceptional circumstances state of registry can allow a non commercial flight to an aerodrome for repairs (subject to limitations). State where it is located must allow it, but can make limitations.

Answer 135

Ability to withstand heat of a flame for 15 minutes

Answer 136

Ability to withstand heat of a flame for 5 minutes

Answer 137

Includes first aid, survival equipment and commissary supplies. Does NOT include spare parts or stores.

Answer 138

An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services, is allowed to stay in a state for a period determined by the state, without security for customs duty being required.

Answer 139

For aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services, states are limited in the advanced notification they can demand. Minimum notification is the information from a flight plan at least 2 hours in advance of arrival at a designated international airport.

Answer 140

States are limited in the documentation they can demand for arriving aircraft. Maximum of 3 copies each of: - Passenger manifest - Cargo manifest - General Declaration - Stores list (for stores being offloaded)

Answer 141

States shouldn't demand a general declaration if the information is available elsewhere. If they do demand one it should be limited to set items and a set format.

Answer 142

States can only demand: - Travel document (usually passport) - Entry/re-entry visa - Exit visa - Certificate of Vaccination - Embarkation/disembarkation card (blank copies must be provided for free which the passenger can fill in)

Answer 143

Passengers staying in a country for up to 2 days before another flight who can't remain in the airport (due to facilities) must be allowed to stay in the country without needing a visa.

Answer 144

PIC has authority and can remove a person from a flight without coordinating with local authorities

Answer 145

Will be returned to the operator who will bear the cost of returning them to state of departure (can recover costs from the passenger).

Answer 146

State must ensure security screened and non-security screened passengers aren't mixed, and if they get mixed all must be re-screened.

Answer 147

Cards used by flight crew and cabin attendants instead of identification or licenses for temporary admission to a state.

Answer 148

Treated in the same way as baggage, not as cargo.

Answer 149

No more than the following 3 items of information for each line: - Air waybill number - Number of packages related to each waybill number - Nature of the goods

Answer 150

Typewritten, computer printed or block handwritten all acceptable.

Answer 151

Oral declaration of baggage acceptable for passengers and crew

Answer 152

No taxes, fines, customs duties or penalties can be charged by the state (assuming no gross negligence or carelessness by operator)

Answer 153

To process in accordance with procedures as described in the Acts in force in the: Universal Postal Union

Answer 154

CTA - CTR Control zones (like ATZs) are from the ground to a given level. Control areas are from a given level (at least 200m above ground) upwards.

Answer 155

- When no air traffic service is provided above a given level - When there is another upper control area above, in which case the upper extent of the control area lines up with the lower extent of that area

Answer 156

Control zones are positioned around aerodromes to enable an air traffic service to be provided to IFR traffic. They will extend at least 5NM from the centre of an aerodrome in the directions from which approaches may be made. If there is a CTA above they will extend up to meet them.

Answer 157

Airway: Usually class A CTR: A, D, E TMA: A, D, E CTA: A, D, E Upper airways: C ADR: F Open FIR: G

Answer 158

A: No VFR, full separation B: VFR allowed, full separation C: No VFR/VFR separation, traffic info D: IFR/IFR separation only, traffic info E: IFR/IFR sep only, traffic info if possible F: FIS + advisory service G: FIS

Answer 159

Considered to be in the less restrictive airspace

Answer 160

## Footnote INDICATED air speed

Answer 161

A method of navigation permitting operation on any desired flight path with use of navaids or onboard equipment. ie. the ability to fly point-to-point, rather than by following radials (VOR, NDB)

Answer 162

RNP 5 This covers SIDs and STARs This means accuracy within 2.5NM 95% of the time (for a 5NM radius). Also need average continuity of service 99.99% of flight time. Aircraft meeting RNP 5 but without RNAV equipment restricted to certain lower ATS routes.

Answer 163

K - (kopter) for low level helicopter routes U - (upper) S - (supersonic) R at the end means RNAV equipment required

Answer 164

Y - For RNP 1 over FL200, all turns between 30 and 90 degrees should be made within 22.5NM radius X - For RNP under FL190, all turns between 30 and 90 degrees should be made within 15NM radius F - Advisory service only on part of the route G - FIS only on part of the route

Answer 165

Switch between 2 ATS route segments. Should be limited to segments of 60NM or more, unless complexity demands shorter segments. Should ideally be at midpoint between facilities on straight segment, or intersection of radials if direction change between facilities.

Answer 166

- Prevent collisions between aircraft - Prevent collisions on the ground - Expedite orderly flow of traffic - Provide advice and information for safe and efficient conduct of flight - Search and rescue

Answer 167

Distinct from an air traffic control service, purpose is simply to provide advice and information for safe and efficient conduct of flight. [plus alerting service]

Answer 168

ATC service for flights arriving OR DEPARTING

Answer 169

In IMC approach keeps control till aircraft lands and takes over before entering runway or (if preferable in local procedures) immediately once airborne. In VMC approach can hand over when in the airfield vicinity and visual conditions ok to land. Picks up again when aircraft leaves vicinity of airfield, or enters IMC.

Answer 170

When both vertical and horizontal separation is used. Separation minima can be reduced by up to 50% from standard vertical/horizontal only amounts.

Answer 171

ICAO variation 3 mins separation provided: - Continuous radar monitoring - 20NM minimum radar separation

Answer 172

Accepted in Europe (ICAO variation) Requires: - Both aircraft monitored on radar and no interruption to monitoring expected - Both operating assigned mach numbers with following aircraft at same or lower MN than aircraft ahead

Answer 173

Area Control Centre in which the flight originates. If flight expected to enter second FIR within 30 mins, first ACC should coordinate with second before issuing clearance. If coordination fails and clearance stops, PIC is responsible. In reality coordination is very good.

Answer 174

A European airspace system designed to optimise flow of traffic. Available to all EUR states but not adopted by all. Can be applied to all flights that take place in EUR region, depart from it or enter it. Need to file flight plans well in advance and likely to be given a departure slot. Some flights prioritised.

Answer 175

Aim is to ensure the number of aircraft in an area doesn't exceed air traffic control capacity. If an ATC unit becomes aware that additional traffic can't be accommodated they must inform affected ATC units, aircraft and operators.

Answer 176

- Weather - Volcanic activity - Serviceability of navaids - Collision hazards in C, D, E, F & G - Surface vessel info for flights over water - Changes in aerodrome conditions - Unmanned free balloons and other safety info

Answer 177

- HF operational FIS (OFIS) broadcasts - VHF OFIS broadcasts [these two are VOLMETs] - ATIS

Answer 178

Only the letter and pressure setting

Answer 179

Only IFR under radar control

Answer 180

- Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower - Air Traffic Services reporting officer

Answer 181

- Aircraft under ATC - As far as practicable, all aircraft who filed flight plan or are otherwise known to air traffic services - Any aircraft believed to be subject to unlawful interference

Answer 182

- Pilot communicates to ATC unit they are in contact with - ATC unit contacts FIC or ACC responsible -FIC/ACC contact the rescue coordination centre (RCC) EXCEPT when notification would be superfluous

Answer 183

- Uncertainty - Alert phase (apprehension regarding safety of an aircraft & occupants) - Distress phase (reasonable certainty of grave & imminent danger or need immediate assistance)

Answer 184

Alert phase

Answer 185

Uncertainty phase Initiated when: - aircraft fails to arrive within 30 mins of last notified ETA; or - no communication for 30 mins since when a communication should have been received or attempt at communication was unsuccessful

Answer 186

Alert phase Initiated when: - Failure to establish communications following uncertainty phase; - Aircraft cleared to land doesn't land within 5 mins and no comms; - Operating efficiency of aircraft impaired but forced landing not likely; or - Believed unlawful interference.

Answer 187

Distress phase Initiated when: - Further unsuccessful communication attempts and probability aircraft is in distress; - Fuel exhausted or insufficient to reach safety; - Operating efficiency reduced and likely forced landing; - Aircraft making a forced landing unless reasonably certain aircraft & occupants not in grave & imminent danger.

Answer 188

Regions must not overlap. Must be based on operational and technical considerations, not national borders. Each one needs a RCC.

Answer 189

Must be able to communicate quickly and reliably with: - Neighbouring RCCs - Rescue units - Meteorological offices - Alerting posts - COSPAS-SARSAT satellite service

Answer 190

RECOMMEND states develop common SAR procedures to aid coordination. States MUST ensure aircraft, services, vessels not involved in SAR cooperate with SAR and extend any possible assistance.

Answer 191

Aircraft in vicinity must be made aware of the emergency ASAP. EXCEPT unlawful interference, which should not be communicated unless the aircraft has already stated it and broadcast would not aggravate the situation.

Answer 192

Unless unable or in circumstances it is unreasonable or unnecessary: - Keep in sight craft in distress - Determine position (if not already certain) - Report to RCC or traffic services info (type of craft, position, time, persons seen etc) - Act as instructed by RCC or traffic services

Answer 193

First PIC to arrive, even if not an SAR unit, is in charge until an SAR unit arrives. If first aircraft is unable to contact RCC, must mutually agree to handover to another aircraft.

Answer 194

121.5 MHz 406 MHz

Answer 195

- Record position of craft in distress if given - Take a bearing on transmission if possible - Inform RCC or ATS - Proceed to the position at your discretion whilst awaiting instructions

Answer 196

Pass ahead of the vessel to summon to site, pass astern to cancel. Need to circle once and get attention by rocking wings, open/close throttle and change prop pitch.

Answer 197

OK - 'code pennant' red & white stripes - succession of 'T's in morse code (light) - change heading to follow NO - 'N' flag - blue & white chequered squares - succession of 'N' s in morse code

Answer 198

V - Assistance required X - Medical assistance required N - negative Y - affirmative -> - proceeding in this direction

Answer 199

- Multi engine 50NM from shore - Single engine beyond gliding distance - TO/L over water where likelihood of ditching in event of mishap

Answer 200

- Multi engine 120 min cruise or 400NM from land - Single engine 30 min cruise or 100NM

Answer 201

Takes place between people boarding aircraft for purpose of flight and all persons disembark, and: - A person fatally or seriously injured due to: + being in aircraft + contact with any part of aircraft + exposure to jet blast - Aircraft damage which: + affects structure, performance or flight characteristics + requires major repair or replacement of component - Aircraft missing or inaccessible

Answer 202

Fatal/serious injuries from natural causes, self inflicted or inflicted by other persons don't count. Stowaways outside normal crew/passengers areas don't count. Aircraft damage limited to either engines (& cowling/accessories), propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes, fairings or small dents/puncture holes in skin.

Answer 203

Occurrence other than accident affecting safety of operation.

Answer 204

Incident where an accident nearly occurred. e.g. near misses, emergency use of oxygen by crew, undershooting/overshooting or running off runway.

Answer 205

- Requires >48 hours hospitalisation within 7 days of accident - Bone fracture - Lacerations causing sever haemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon damage - Injury to internal organ - 2nd/3rd degree burns or any burns to >5% of body - Exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation

Answer 206

Initially the state of occurrence. May delegate by mutual agreement to another state (state of design, manufacture or operator)

Answer 207

State of occurrence to notify ASAP: - State of design - State of manufacture - State of registry - State of operator - ICAO if over 2250kg [If state of occurrence not aware, state of operator should notify the others]

Answer 208

Need to inform state of occurrence of the name of their representative, whether that person will be present and if so, when. This is mandatory for <2250kg craft, optional for below.

Answer 209

- State that instituted investigation - States of design, manufacture, operator, registry - States participating in investigation - States whose citizens died or were seriously injured - State that provided information, facilities or experts. - For >5700kg, ICAO

Answer 210

- State safety programme (SSP) - State safety oversight system - Safety data collection (a mandatory reporting system and a voluntary one for incidents not captured by mandatory) - Safety data analysis

Answer 211

- Safety policy & objectives - Safety risk management - Safety assurance - Safety promotion

Answer 212

- If a state identifies safety information relevant to other states it should forward it on. - Should promote establishment of safety information exchange networks and facilitate exchange of information

Answer 213

30 days from date of notification by the reporter

Answer 214

2 digits: i) Aeroplane reference field length ii) Wingspan & outer main gear wheel span

Answer 215

1 - <800m 2 - 800m to 1200m 3 - 1200m to 1800m 4 - >1800m

Answer 216

Code Wingspan Main Gear A <15m <4.5m B 15 - 24m 4.5 - 6m C 24 - 36m 6 - 9m D 36 - 52m 9 - 14m E 52 - 65m 9 - 14m F 65 - 80m 14 - 16m

Answer 217

Non-instrument (visual approaches) Instruments: - Precision (using ILS or MLS) - Non-precision (using approach aid with directional guidance for straight-in)

Answer 218

## Footnote Precision min of 30m

Answer 219

A - 7.5m B - 10.5m C - 15m (18m for wide wheel base) D - 18m (23m for wide wheel base) E - 23m F - 25m

Answer 220

50m from runway edge if >900m 30m from runway edge if <900m

Answer 221

Runway + stopway Should be 60m before threshold and beyond runway/stopway end. EXCEPT category 1 non-instrument runways

Answer 222

Code 1 or 2: 75m either side of centreline Code 3 or 4: 150m either side

Answer 223

Runway strip area within: Code 1 or 2 - 40m either side of centrel. Code 3 or 4 - 75m either side This area should service in the event of aircraft running off runway.

Answer 224

300m long by 120m wide (60m in some circumstances) in front of runway. Should aim for constant slope. Changes in slope should be limited to 2% per 30m.

Answer 225

Should extend at least 90m beyond runway and be at least twice as wide.

Answer 226

Highest point in the landing area

Answer 227

Describes strength of a runway, with several codes: i) Strength number ii) R for rigid (concrete), F for flexible (asphalt) iii) A (strong) to D (weak) for subgrade iv) W-Z for tyre pressures supported (W means no limit) v) How (i) was assessed - T for technical survey, U for physical useage

Answer 228

Aircraft have 8 ACNs (Aircraft classification numbers) based on strength required for combinations or R/F and subgrade A-D. May have to interpolate between a max weight and empty weight number. PCNs only required for runways designed for >5700kg craft.

Answer 229

At least as wide as the runway, area suitable for stopping in abandoned takeoff.

Answer 230

Can be any surface (eg water). Not greater than 50% of take off run. At least 75m extension from centreline.

Answer 231

TORA - Takeoff run available TODA - TORA + clearway ASDA - TORA + stopway LDA - Landing distance available (shorter than TORA if displaced threshold)

Answer 232

Damp - change of colour Wet - soaked, but no standing water Standing water - over 3mm depth for over 25% of the surface

Answer 233

Dry snow - blown if loose or falls apart if compacted - SG < 0.35 Wet snow - sticks together if compacted - SG 0.35 - 0.5 Slush - water saturated snow, heel to toe..., SG 0.5 - 0.8

Answer 234

Level of protection depends on size of largest aircraft using the aerodrome: Cat 1: 9m long, 2m fuselage Cat 10: up to 90m long, 8m fuselage

Answer 235

Measured from time of initial call to time reaching 50% of foam discharge rate. Maximum 3 mins to ends of runway, ICAO recommend 2 mins.

Answer 236

This isn't suitable for normal use, but may be part of stopway. If at least 60m long should be marked with yellow chevrons spaced 30m apart.

Answer 237

Use consecutive numbering, e.g. for 280 magnetic: 28L, 28R, 29L, 29R or 28L, 28C, 28R, 29L, 29C, 29R

Answer 238

Required for INSTRUMENT runway codes 2, 3 and 4 Have a minimum distance from threshold based on LDA: <800m: 150m 800 -1200m: 250m 1200m - 2400m: 300m >2400m: 400m

Answer 239

## Footnote (roughly a quarter)

Answer 240

Required for PRECISION runway codes 2, 3 and 4. Pairs of markings either side of centreline. Either single lines or 3, 2, 1, 1, ... Number of markings dependent on distance between thresholds: <900m: 1 900-1200m: 2 1200-1500m: 3 1500-2400m: 4 >2400m: 6

Answer 241

1 - Last holding point (= Cat I) 2 - Cat II or III holding points 3 - Intermediate holding point

Answer 242

Road markings must be in accordance with local road rules. Holding position is white writing on red background. "STOP" sign (or local equiv) and sign saying contact ATC. If runway is useable in visibility <350m also need a light (green/red controlled by ATC or flashing red).

Answer 243

Marking on ground instead of sign. White on red background, same content as the sign. EXCEPT no entry: sign would be no-entry sign (white line on red background), marking says "NO ENTRY".

Answer 244

Location is yellow writing on black. Direction is black writing on yellow.

Answer 245

Black writing on yellow background (like direction, not location signs). Visible to pilot lining up. Will have lat and long on the sign.

Answer 246

- RVR < 800m - Instrument runways at night - Code 3 or 4 non-instrument runways - Code 1 or 2 non-instrument runways intended for night use (reflective is acceptable)

Answer 247

Edge markers - Blue squares Centre-line - Green lights (can be run over)

Answer 248

Used for landing areas which don't have a runway (i.e. grass). Triangular cross section orange or orange & white at least every 200m, OR White cones every 90m [or combination of both]

Answer 249

Orange, orange and white or red and white. At least 15m apart. Required visibility 1000m from air, 300m on ground. Mobile objects have chequered flags.

Answer 250

60cm diameter balls on highest wire. Alternating white/red or white/orange.

Answer 251

Not required if not open to non-radio traffic. 9m square 30cm white border Visible from all angles from 10 degrees above horizontal at a height of 300m.

Answer 252

Aerodrome: White or green/white, flashing every 2 - 3 seconds Identification: Morse flashing light, green - civil, yellow - civil water, red - military

Answer 253

Intensity controls must exist to ensure compatible intensity between the different types of lighting

Answer 254

Emergency: Flashing blue Other: Flashing yellow

Answer 255

Up to 45m: low intensity, steady red >45m: medium intensity, flashing red or white >150m: high intensity flashing white

Answer 256

Row of lights on extended centreline in front of runway >420m (where possible) with crossbar 18m or 30m long at 300m before threshold. Suitable for non-instrument, non-precision and CAT I where a CAT I lighting system is not possible.

Answer 257

Extended centreline lights at 30m intervals for (where possible) 900m up to threshold. 30m row of lights 300m ahead of threshold (appears as a bar, or with up to 6m gap in middle).

Answer 258

Extended centreline must extend 900m before threshold at 30m intervals, with additional row of red lights on each side up to 270m (aligned with touchdown lights on runway). Crossbars at 150m and 300m.

Answer 259

CAT II/III lighting system commonly used in the UK with 5 crossbars

Answer 260

CAT II/III lighting system common in US and Europe which has 2 crossbars, but extended centreline made up of rows of 5 lights (within the sidebars) instead of singles or closely packed 3's.

Answer 261

Define the approach path. Each group of lights must be visible from the previous with max 1600m gaps. Can be straight or curved. Each group of lights at least 3 flashing lights, ideally flashing in pattern towards runway.

Answer 262

White Except red for displaced threshold area. Possibly yellow for lower of 600m or 1/3rd runway length at far end.

Answer 263

Unidirectional flashing white lights extending horizontal threshold line, 10m outside each line of runway edge lights. Optional, for: - Non-precision; or - Precision with displaced threshold

Answer 264

Fixed green unidirectional lights. Threshold lights within 3m of end of runway (as close as possible). Wing bars (line of 5 lights outside edge lights by 10m) when required, or for non-instrument & non-precision in place of threshold lights.

Answer 265

For Cat II/III, lights on the touchdown markings. Extend 900m into runway (but no more than half, so shorter for <1.8km runways).

Answer 266

White from threshold to 900m before end. Alternate red/white from 900m to 300m. Red for last 300m.

Answer 267

Fixed red unidirectional.

Answer 268

Unidirectional flashing yellow. Configuration A is a pair on each side of taxi-way, for RVR <550m with no stop bar, or RVR 550m-1200m with heavy traffic. Configuration B is a line across taxiway spaced 3m for holding bays, runway holding positions or road holding positions.

Answer 269

Precision Approach Path Indicator On the left, or both sides of runway. 4 lights, more white lights indicate high, more red lights indicate low. 2 red & 2 white => on approach slope.

Answer 270

Abbreviated PAPI Same as PAPI but with only 2 lights.

Answer 271

20 lights, 10 each side of runway, forming a cross shape [4 horizontal, 6 verical]. When on approach path you see horizontal white line of lights. Above, you see top of cross (1, 2 or 3 verticals) in white. Below, you see bottom of cross (1, 2 or 3 verticals) in red.

Answer 272

Abbreviated T-VASI just on one side of the runway (10 lights).

Answer 273

Blue side lights and/or (for low visibility aerodromes) green centre line lights. If centre line encroaches onto runway lights should be yellow/green alternating leading off it, green leading onto it.

Answer 274

Numbers of runway movements per hour. Light: 15 busy, typically less than 20 Medium: 16-25 busy, typically 20-35 Heavy: >26 busy, typically >36

Answer 275

A series of at least 3 lights spaced closely together that appear as a short bar.

Answer 276

If not 24 hours, needs to be available at least 2 hours before and after a flight. AND at other times when requested by appropriate ground organisation.

Answer 277

A Service that collates information and shares information with AIS of other states, and produces an AIP published for interested parties in a form that is suitable for them.

Answer 278

- AIP (Publication) - AIP amendments - AIP supplements - NOTAMs and PIBs (pre-flight information bulletins) - AICs (aeronautical information circulars) - Checklists & summaries

Answer 279

1) GEN - General 2) ENR - En-route 3) AD - Aerodromes

Answer 280

- Procedures for entry/transit/departure of aircraft, cargo, passengers etc. - Abbreviations, symbols - LIST of radio navaids - Aeronautical charts - Air traffic services - Meteorological services - SAR - Charges - Other general items

Answer 281

- VFR/IFR procedures - Airspace classifications - Holding/enroute/departure procedures - Radar services/procedures - Altimeter setting procedures - Flight planning - Details of navaids - Details of danger/restricted areas - En-route charts

Answer 282

Permanent are issued as amendments to AIP. Temporary changes of long duration (3 months +) or with lots of info are issued as AIP supplements (coloured yellow). Checklist of supplements issued monthly. Short duration temporary issued by NOTAM.

Answer 283

Not used when information is very detailed (lots of text or diagrams) in which case AIP supplement required. Generally for temporary short duration changes. Can also be used for short notice changes that are long duration or permanent.

Answer 284

- Changes in hazardous conditions due to snow, slush, ice or water. - Outbreak of epidemics - Solar cosmic radiation forecast - Volcanic activity (ASHTAM) - Release of radioactive materials - Humanitarian relief missions

Answer 285

Items that don't affect operational functionality (e.g. navaid frequency down when another frequency works).

Answer 286

Distributed monthly including latest AIP amendments, AIP supplements and internationally distributed AICs.

Answer 287

Red: Eruption in progress or likely, ash plume over FL250 Orange: Eruption in progress or likely, ash plume not expected over FL250 Yellow: Volcano active but not currently dangerous Green: Activity ceased

Answer 288

Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control Prescribed scheduling of publishing of significant operating changes. Normal changes: 42 days before event (to arrive 28 days before) Major changes: 70 days before event (to arrive 56 days before) Failure to follow timings requires a NOTAM marked AIRAC

Answer 289

Issued monthly Pink: Safety Yellow: Operational matters (inc. ATS) White: Administrative Mauve: Reserved & restricted airspace Green: Maps & charts

Answer 290

Operator and PIC must be informed when passenger is being compelled to travel, so special security controls can be applied. States must ensure special security measures are followed when undesirable passengers fly (eg deportations, inadmissible passengers, prisoners). e.g. prior boarding

Answer 291

PIC to be informed of armed passengers and their seat numbers. In flight security officers to be coordinated with other states and kept confidential. Other weapons on board must be stowed so as to be inaccessible and determined not loaded by an authorised person.

Answer 292

State where aircraft lands must inform: - State of registry - State of operator - State of citizens injured/killed/hostages - State of citizens on board - ICAO

Answer 293

Inform ATC or 121.5 if can't talk to ATC. If no regional procedures, adopt level 500ft from 1000ft vertical separations or 1000ft from 2000ft vertical separations.

Answer 294

PIC can REQUIRE crew members to assist in apprehending people. Can REQUEST passengers to assist.

Answer 295

Must be lockable and unlockable from either pilot station. Must be a means of cabin crew discreetly warning pilots of unlawful activity. Must be locked from time external doors are closed to opened for disembarkation, except to allow authorised persons in or out. Pilots must be able to monitor the area outside the door.

Answer 296

Includes: - Communication of false information - Forcible intrusion on-board, at an airport or at an aeronautical facility - Bringing on board a weapon or hazardous item with criminal intent

Answer 297

Search is considerably more thorough than a check. Both involve looking through interior of aircraft to find suspicious objects, weapons, explosives etc.

Answer 298

Included in PAN-OPS, so not part of SARPS and don't have the same force as the annexes. In reality most states follow them.

Answer 299

An area around departure track where minimum obstacle clearance is guaranteed. Consists of primary area (1/2 the total width) in the middle and secondary area with reduced clearance (1/4 width on either side). Width increases further away from runway, depending on obstacle clearance requirement and departure gradient.

Answer 300

This is the gradient of the departure, defaulting to 3.3%. 3.3% made up of 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance.

Answer 301

When providing track (not providing track) VOR: 5.2 deg (4.5 deg) ILS: 2.4 deg (1.4 deg) NDB: 6.9 deg (6.2 deg)

Answer 302

VOR: 50 degrees either side of vertical NDB: 40 degrees either side of vertical

Answer 303

Terminal area radar: 0.8NM within 20NM En-route radar: 1.7NM within 40NM DME: 0.25NM + 1.25% of distance

Answer 304

Need the following features: - Integrity monitoring, e.g. RAIM - Turn anticipation - Capability for procedures from the read-only nav database

Answer 305

Aircraft approved by state of operator. Satellite availability checked. Alternative aerodrome with conventional navaids selected. [Plus usual - equipment serviceable, pilots know how to use it]

Answer 306

Very similar, but RNP requires monitoring of TSE (total system error) and warnings when the required level is broken.

Answer 307

VNAV element of FMS based on barometric information. Can be used in 2 different situations: - Approach and landing operations with vertical guidance (APV): Lateral guidance with RNP, baro-VNAV required for vertical - Non-precision approaches: Baro-VNAV not required but assists with CDFA

Answer 308

Zero at end of runway, increases by 0.8% gradient assuming turns of no more than 15 degrees (considered straight departure). For turns over 15 degrees (turning departure) need a "turning area" with MOC of >90m. MOC may be increased in mountainous terrain.

Answer 309

May be speed limits to limit radius. Aircraft with high minimum speeds need to use a different departure route. Turns can be specified at an altitude/height, at a fix or at a navaid. For altitude/height there needs to be a VOR or NDB within 10km of the turn.

Answer 310

Straight departure to a given height then turn onto desired track. If no suitable navaid available need to maintain runway centre-line until at least 120m (90m helicopters).

Answer 311

Arrival Initial approach (IAF) Intermediate (IF) Final approach (FAF) Missed approach segment

Answer 312

Within 30 degrees of runway centre line.

Answer 313

Both require 300m MOC within 25NM of a specific point. MSA: 25NM centred on the homing facility used for aerodrome approach TAA: 25NM centred on IAF (or IF), replaces MSA for RNAV procedures.

Answer 314

[H: Helicopters] A: <91kt IAS B: 91 - 121 kt IAS C: 121 - 141 kt IAS D: 141 - 166 kt IAS E: 166 - 211 kt IAS [Based on 1.3 x stall speed in landing config @ maximum landing mass]

Answer 315

Published for each approach procedure, depends on aircraft approach category (i.e. speed). Precision/APV: Lowest alt/height at which missed approach procedure must be initiated to comply with obstacle clearance criteria. Non-precision/visual (circling): Lowest alt/height aircraft can descend to before breaking obstacle clearance criteria.

Answer 316

Precision: ILS, MLS, GLS, PAR. Non-precision: ILS LOC only, SRA, VOR (/DME), NDB (/DME), VDF.

Answer 317

OCA/H + Lower Limit Where lower limit (or margin) is based on several factors such as aircraft category, crew qualifications, weather conditions, aerodrome characteristics... Also need to consider ILS category limits on DH and RVR.

Answer 318

CAT I: DH 200ft RVR 500m (or 800m vis) CAT II: DH 100ft RVR 300m CAT IIIA: DH 0ft RVR 200m CAT IIIB: DH 0ft RVR 50m CAT IIIC: DH 0ft RVR 0m

Answer 319

Sector leading up to initial approach fix (IAF). MOC in primary area of 300m. Primary area expands at angle of 30 degrees from the IAF out to 25NM away.

Answer 320

From IAF to IF. 300m MOC in primary area. Can be very short, or include reversal procedures, base turns or racetrack procedures to lose height. Maximum angle of interception: Precision: 90 degrees Non-precision: 120 degrees

Answer 321

Called PROCEDURE TURN. Commence either straight for 1-3 mins or straight up to a fix point. Turn off by 45 degrees then straight for 1:00 (CAT A/B) or 1:15 (C/D/E). Then turn opposite way to complete a circle and return in opposite direction along initial straight line.

Answer 322

Start same as 45/180 but turn by 80 degrees initially, then immediately commence circle turning in opposite direction (260 degrees) to achieve the 180.

Answer 323

A specified outbound track limited by timing or a fix. At that point commence a turn to intercept an inbound track (not a reciprocal track so different to a reversal procedure).

Answer 324

MOC reduces from 300m to 150m in primary area. Aircraft speed and configuration adjusted to prepare for final approach, so descent gradient kept as shallow as possible.

Answer 325

In approach procedure there may be a dead reckoning required up to ILS interception. Should intercept the localiser at 45 degrees and the track shouldn't be over 10NM long. Point of interception will be the beginning of the intermediate approach segment.

Answer 326

Radar controller may request speed changes up to 20kt in intermediate and final approach phases, but NOT within 4NM of runway.

Answer 327

From Final Approach Fix (or point) up to the Missed Approach Point (MAPt). Can lead to a straight in approach or to the aerodrome area for a visual manoeuvre. Straight-in limited to 30 degrees from centre line for Cat A/B aircraft only, 15 degrees otherwise.

Answer 328

Part of final approach segment, will have a lower OCA/H value available to non-precision approaches if they have identified the stepdown fix during the approach.

Answer 329

FAP is a point on centre line of localiser or MLS azimuth that intersects with the glidescope and the intermediate approach altitude. Normally 300m to 900m above runway elevation.

Answer 330

Area width @ facility is 2.0NM for VOR, 2.5NM for NDB. Expand at 7.8 degrees VOR, 10.3 degrees NDB. Optimal FAF distance is 5NM, maximum is 10NM.

Answer 331

ONLY 3 deg for CAT II/III In other cases minimum is 2.5 degrees. Maximum is 3.7 degrees for Cat A/B, 3.5 degrees for Cat C/D/E.

Answer 332

Stepdown - A series of steps, ending at MDA/H. High descent rates, needs careful monitoring. Constant angle - Constant angle from FAF to 50ft point. Level off at MDA/H until visual or MAPt reached. Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA): Continuous descent from at least IAF to 50ft point. Method is preferred. Never level off at MDA/H, if you get within 50ft of it go around.

Answer 333

Normally stops 2NM before threshold. With appropriate authority and suitable accuracy can continue to the runway, in which case will provide distance and level information every 0.5NM. No transmission interruptions for more than 5 seconds.

Answer 334

Initial: From MAPt to when climb established Intermediate: Up to when 50m obstacle clearance achieved and maintained Final: Up to commencement of new approach

Answer 335

Normally based on 2.5% (nominal gradient). Minimum of 2% can be used if necessary safeguarding carried out. Higher gradients for better climbing aircraft can be used, will be clearly notified on the approach chart.

Answer 336

Precision approach: - Intersection of glidepath and DA/H Non-precision approach: - Navigational facility - Fix - Specified distance from FAF

Answer 337

Pilot expected to continue to MAPt even if decision made sooner, but higher altitude is allowed. Path splays at 15 degrees from that point.

Answer 338

Order a missed approach if: - No clearance by 2NM - Traffic de-confliction - Dangerously positioned - Instructions from aerodrome controller Suggest a missed approach if: - Aircraft position indicates that successful approach not possible - Not visible on radar for significant time in last 2NM

Answer 339

Holding area: Suitable for racetrack holding pattern based on aircraft speed etc. Entry area Buffer area: 5NM outside

Answer 340

Must provide clearance of: - 300m above obstacles in holding area (600m in mountainous areas) - Reducing value to provide clearance over obstacles in buffer area Round up to 50m or 100ft

Answer 341

Right turn

Answer 342

Lesser of 25 degrees of bank or 3 degrees per second (rate 1 turn)

Answer 343

Direct entry Head to the holding fix and commence the first right turn.

Answer 344

Fix end turn is over the fix. Outbound end turn is defined by a DME or limiting radial, OR by time: <=FL140/14000ft: 1:00 >FL140/14000ft: 1:30

Answer 345

Adjust the last holding patter to achieve departure at set time (i.e. make the outbound end turn earlier).

Answer 346

Non-intersecting runways whose extended centrelines diverge/converge by 15 degrees or less.

Answer 347

Must diverge by at least 30 degrees as soon as practicable

Answer 348

Independent means no radar separation minima. Need a >=2000ft (610m) wide no-transgression zone equidistant between the runways. Must be visible clearly on radar screen. If an aircraft encroaches ATC must intervene to manoeuvre threatened aircraft on approach to the other runway.

Answer 349

Radar minima applied

Answer 350

Means parallel runways, SAME direction. Independent parallel departures requires: - 15 degree track divergence immediately after takeoff; and - Radar capable of identifying aircraft within 1NM of end of runway

Answer 351

Nominal tracks of departure procedure and missed approach track must diverge by 30 degrees

Answer 352

Mixed - Simultaneous approaches &/or departures on both runways Segregated - One runway for departures, one for approaches Semi-mixed - One runway just approaches or just departures, other does both

Answer 353

IFR avionics - i.e. ILS or MLS capability

Answer 354

- Must be radar monitored in ALL weather conditions (i.e. VFR & IFR) - Min of 3NM radar separation OR 1000ft vertical separation until ILS localiser or MLS final approach track - No procedure turns, must intercept ILS/MLS at less than 30 degrees, need >=1NM S&L flight before ILS/MLS interception - Final vector >=2NM on ILS/MLS before intercepting glidepath/elevation angle - Each pair of approaches has "high side" and "low side" until ILS/MLS track to maintain 1000ft separation

Answer 355

Except in emergency, comms failure or unlawful interference, pilot must: - Operate transponder and set code given by ATC; - Operate transponder based on air navigation agreements; or - In absence of either of these, operate transponder with 2000

Answer 356

Must operate in mode C if you have it

Answer 357

Europe: IFR with MTOM>5700kg or TAS>250kt need Mode S EHS Other IFR need Mode S ELS

Answer 358

- Let ATC know ASAP, ideally pre-flight plan - Item 10 under SSR, "N" for non-serviceable or other character for partial capability - Comply with published procedures - If required by ATS, proceed to nearest aerodrome where repair can happen

Answer 359

Emergency: 7700 Unlawful interference: 7500 Radio failure: 7600 Interception: 7700

Answer 360

MTOM > 5700kg; or >19 passenger capacity

Answer 361

- Can say "cleared via flight plan route" without detailing the route itself. - Can say "cleared via (aerodrome) arrival" or "departure" to refer to STARs and SIDs, instead of the full route in detail.

Answer 362

Only as far as next landing aerodrome.

Answer 363

- Aircraft identification - Clearance limit - Route - Level (or levels if relevant) - Other information/instructions

Answer 364

- Aircraft Identification - Position - Time Optional based on ATC/regional navigation agreements: - Level - Next position and time over - Ensuing significant point

Answer 365

Under radar control ADS contract

Answer 366

- (Mod)/Sev turb - (Mod)/Sev icing - Sev mountain wave - TS (OBSC, IMBD, WSPD, SQ) - Heavy dust/sand storm - Volcanic ash cloud or eruption

Answer 367

Super (J): A380 Heavy (H): >136,000kg Medium (M): 7,000 to 136,000kg Light (L): <7,000kg [Letter is flight plan code]

Answer 368

At or above FL250: 0.01MN increments Below FL250: 10kt IAS increments Turbine pilot can reject speed below 250kt if they have good reason Final approach speed changes limited to 20kt, nothing in last 4NM.

Answer 369

Pilots in direct communication with each other may be allowed to maintain specified vertical separation during climb/descent.

Answer 370

i) 15 mins normally ii) 10 mins when navaids permit frequent position reporting iii) 5 mins provided level change commences within 10 mins of second aircraft reporting at a reporting point

Answer 371

Can be cleared once mode C shows first aircraft has departed the level by 300ft. EXCEPT: - Severe turbulence known - Higher aircraft in cruise climb - Big difference in aircraft performance [In which case 1000/2000ft vertical separation minima apply]

Answer 372

Lateral - Different tracks Longitudinal - Achieved by timing

Answer 373

Both need to be 15NM away from beacon or DR point VOR: 15 degrees separation NDB: 30 degrees separation DR: 45 degrees separation

Answer 374

Tracks diverge by 15 degrees and airspace doesn't overlap.

Answer 375

Based on aircraft using "on track" DME stations, or DME stations @ waypoints, or same waypoint with GNSS. Separation achieved by simultaneous DME/GNSS readings from the aircraft.

Answer 376

20NM normally reduced to 10NM if leading aircraft at least 20kt TAS faster Also applies to crossing aircraft if angle less than 90 degrees

Answer 377

i) 15 mins normally; ii) 10 mins if navaids allow frequent position reporting; iii) IF both left same aerodrome or reporting point: 5 mins if first aircraft 20kt faster 3 mins if first aircraft 40kt faster

Answer 378

Can be used if both left same reporting point or ATC can otherwise determine appropriate time interval at a common point. M 0.06: 5 mins M 0.05: 6 mins M 0.04: 7 mins M 0.03: 8 mins M 0.02: 9 mins M 0.00: 10 mins

Answer 379

Can be reduced if aerodrome controller has both aircraft continuously visible, aircraft can both see each other continuously or following aircraft can see one in front and maintain separation.

Answer 380

With radar available, 3 mins separation allowed as long as never closer than 20NM.

Answer 381

RNP 4: 30NM RNP 10: 50NM Otherwise 80NM

Answer 382

Standard - 5NM If equipment allows - 3NM Stabilised approach - 2.5NM

Answer 383

Only VMC during daytime, in classes D and E, up to 10,000ft, provided authorised by ATC and agreed by pilot.

Answer 384

Controlled traffic which isn't separated from other traffic

Answer 385

VMC: Must be transferred before entering IMC or leaving vicinity of aerodrome IMC: Before entering runway for takeoff or immediately after airborne if local procedures make this preferable

Answer 386

1 min if tracks diverge by at least 45 degrees [can be reduced for parallel/diverging runways specific rules] 2 min if same track and first aircraft >40kt faster 5 min if no vertical separation, same track and fly through each others levels

Answer 387

Information must be given to departing aircraft ASAP, unless already known to aircraft: - Significant meteorological change (eg surface wind) - Operational status of navaids - Local traffic

Answer 388

Transfer at earliest of: - Landing - Vicinity of aerodrome and have uninterrupted VMC or otherwise able to complete approach and landing with visual reference to the ground

Answer 389

An arriving flight is of concern once it starts procedure turn (to face landing direction), base turn to final or 5 min final. After this, no departures within 45 degrees of landing centreline back towards the landing aircraft. Departures outside that 90 degree section allowed up to 3 mins before landing aircraft is over beginning of instrument runway.

Answer 390

If aircraft requests, and allowed by ATS authority, pilots can be given authority to climb to a level (or point, or time) or descend, subject to providing own separation and remaining in VMC.

Answer 391

IFR flight can be cleared for visual approach and landing if either: i) Pilot reports at initial approach level or during instrument approach that visual conditions allow it; or ii) Reported ceiling at or above initial approach level for the aircraft. Pilot must proceed with full IFR approach unless cleared for visual.

Answer 392

Separation must be provided for aircraft that are cleared for a visual approach, UNTIL pilot reports having aircraft ahead in sight. At this point can be instructed to follow and maintain own separation.

Answer 393

If pilot reports it, or otherwise clear pilot is unfamiliar with the IFR approach, ATC pass info on: - Initial approach level - Point and level at which procedure turn started - Final approach track - (Optional) Missed approach procedure

Answer 394

Aircraft should be held with lowest to make first approach. If an aircraft wishes to hold for longer to wait for conditions, it should be positioned at the correct height order, or moved to another holding area.

Answer 395

Time ATC expect aircraft will be able to commence approach. Must be determined if delay over 10 mins expected and transmitted to aircraft ASAP (ideally before commencing descent from cruise). Must be sent by "most expeditious means" if over 30 mins. Must be updated if it changes by over 5 mins.

Answer 396

Significant changes mostly, of: - hazards on the runway - windspeed: - 10kt mean headwind change - 2kt mean tailwind change - 5kt mean crosswind change - runway surface condition - operational status of navaids - visibility

Answer 397

Area control centre or flight information centre

Answer 398

- Hold all departures without IFR flight plan and get approval for them from area control centre; - Recall local VFR flights or obtain special VFR approvals; - Notify area control centre; - Notify all area operators of reasons for taking action.

Answer 399

- Runway in use - Wind direction & speed - QNH (QFE if requested) - Air temp for runway (for turbine) - RVR values or other visibility info for runway in use - Correct time [Except if known that pilot is already aware]

Answer 400

- Significant changes in conditions (wind, air temp, visibility - Significant meteorological activity in take off and climb out area [Except if known that pilot is already aware]

Answer 401

- Runway in use - Wind - QNH (QFE if requested!)

Answer 402

Not normally permitted to cross beginning of runway until departing craft has: - crossed the end of the runway in use; - started a turn; or - all preceding landing aircraft are clear of runway in use.

Answer 403

Aircraft may be authorised to enter a control zone to land, take off & depart, cross or operate locally when vis not less than 1500m. EASA further requires they can't take off in less than 3000m vis.

Answer 404

2NM from touchdown

Answer 405

Means you have been identified on radar

Answer 406

Shouldn't be vectored closer to boundary of radar controlled space than 2.5NM. Unless: - transfer of radar control to be effected; or - local arrangements for separation made for separation against radar controlled craft in neighbouring space.

Answer 407

Last vector at angle of less than 45 degrees to centreline (30 degrees for parallel runways). Should be on centreline 2NM before glideslope intercept.

Answer 408

- Aircraft behind another between 0ft and 1000ft below - Aircraft using same runway, or parallel less than 760m apart - Aircraft crossing behind another, 0ft to 1000ft below

Answer 409

Nothing when arriving 2 mins when departing

Answer 410

1 minute longer than departing from same position

Answer 411

2 minute separation between L or M following H, or L following M. Based on using an opposite direction runway for take off or landing on the same runway in opposite direction (or parallel less than 760m).

Answer 412

30 degrees

Answer 413

Deviated from radar track significantly, or reported lost.

Answer 414

Adult: >= 12 years old Child: 2 - 12 years old Infant: < 2 years old

Answer 415

Annex V: SPA - Specific Approvals Annex VI: NCC - Non-Commercial Complex Annex VII: NCO - Non-Commercial Other

Answer 416

Document used to assist with checking dangerous goods

Answer 417

EASA license Or license from another ICAO country that is VALIDATED by EASA. Validation lasts up to one year, as long as underlying license is valid.

Answer 418

Deemed to be the state holding your medical records. Can change it later for administrative reasons to the state in which you are normally resident. Can get theory results and ratings done in any EASA state.

Answer 419

- License, medical certificate and photo ID - Should be able to present flight time record without undue delay - Student pilot on solo cross country should carry evidence of required authorisation

Answer 420

Type ratings & multi-engine class ratings: 1 year Single-engine class ratings: 2 years FROM DATE OF ISSUE

Answer 421

Required where class rating covers an aircraft but there are significant changes. Particulars to be recorded in log book.

Answer 422

If you fail a test you can't use the relevant rating, even if time was left on the original.

Answer 423

- 30hrs post license PIC flight time - ATO/DTO course with: - Appropriate theory training - 5hrs aerobatic instruction Limited to aircraft of the type training was done in

Answer 424

- 30hrs PIC flight time & 60 TOLs - ATO only course with: - Theory - 10 instruction flights inc. >= 5 dual - Unless holder has SPL, 5 familiarisation flights in sailplane launched by aircraft

Answer 425

- 100hrs flight time & 200 TOLs after license. At least 30 of the hrs in aeroplanes/TMGs if activity to be carried out in aeroplanes/TMGs (respectively) - ATO/DTO course with: - Theory - 10 instruction flights inc. >= 5 dual

Answer 426

Need at least 5 tows in last 24 months. If this is missed, need to complete the missing tows under supervision of an instructor.

Answer 427

- ATO/DTO course with - Theory - 5hrs flight time inc. >= 3hrs dual, inc. 1hr cross country nav & 27NM nav flight, 5 solo take offs & 5 solo full stop landings

Answer 428

Within 24 months: - ATO/DTO course with - Theory - Appropriate training Skills test - Verbal theory quiz - 6 landings on >= 2 specific surfaces [obtained on either wheels or skis]

Answer 429

Rating valid for 24 months Revalidation: - 6 mountain landings in last 24 months; or - Proficiency check

Answer 430

- Hold CPL & IR in category - 1000hrs flight time & 400hrs PIC in category - ATO course

Answer 431

Class 1 or class 2 rating. Class 2 restricts to being co-pilot in CS-25 and some CS-23 aircraft.

Answer 432

First type rating on a multi-crew aircraft requires an MCC course, unless: - Type rating includes MCC course; - Pilot is MPL student; - Applicant has >500hrs multi-pilot

Answer 433

60-64 years: No single pilot commercial flight 65 years+: No commercial flight

Answer 434

Valid for 6 months. First one valid for 6 months from the last day of the month of the check. If next one is within 3 months of end of the last validity period, add 6 months to the original validity period.

Answer 435

Treated as one flight

Answer 436

First one is 2 years from examination, future ones are 2 years from expiry date.

Answer 437

- Surgery or invasive procedure - Commence regular medication - Significant personal injury - Significant personal illness - Pregnancy - Admitted to hospital/clinic - First use of corrective lenses

Answer 438

Medicals for non-commercial operations can be delayed for up to 6 months

Answer 439

Class 1: 12 months (6 for over 60s or over 40s for SINGLE PILOT operations) Class 2: 60 months up to 40 24 months up to 50 12 months thereafter [Limits to age 42 and 51 for medicals issued before age 40 and 50]

Answer 440

Renewal means the original has expired. Revalidation means original is still valid.

Answer 441

30hrs (15 dual, 6 solo, 3 Xcty) 80nm Xcty flight with 1 stop

Answer 442

Act as PIC on SEP or TMG with MTOM <2000kg. After 10hrs PIC, carry up to 3 passengers. [For night rating need to do IR portion of PPL first]

Answer 443

45hs (25 dual, 10 solo, 5 solo Xcty) 150nm Xcty flight with 2 stops 5 hours can be on flight simulator

Answer 444

Act as PIC on aeroplane of TMG in non-commercial capacity. EXCEPT with instructor or examiner privileges can be paid for: i) Flight instruction ii) Skills tests & proficiency checks for LAPL and PPL, and related rating and endorsements

Answer 445

Need to be 18 years old 200hrs modular (150hrs integrated) of which max 10hrs simulator 100hrs PIC (70 hrs integrated) 20hrs Xcty inc 300nm flight w 2 stops 10hrs instrument (max 5hrs sim) Night rating requirements

Answer 446

- PPL privileges - PIC or co-pilot non-commercial - PIC of single pilot commercial - Co-pilot of commercial

Answer 447

21-65 years old 1500hrs flight time including: - 500hrs multi-pilot - Either i) 250hrs PIC; ii) 250hrs PIC(s) inc. 70 PIC; or iii) 500hrs PIC(s) - 200hrs Xcty (100hrs PIC or PIC(s)) - 75hrs instrument (max 30hrs ground) - 100hrs night Max 100hrs sim (FFS or FNPT, but only 25hrs max in FNPT) Skill test as PIC of multi-pilot.

Answer 448

Privileges of PPL, CPL and IR Act as PIC or co-pilot in air transportation

Answer 449

Over 18 years old Need a continuous course including theory, visual & instrument flight, multi crew and type rating. Course run by an ATO as part of a commercial air transport operator, or having a specific arrangement with an operator. 750hrs theory (including UPRT & type rating) 240hrs flight

Answer 450

Act as co-pilot in aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot. Can exercise PPL, CPL or IR privileges where requirements for those licenses have been met (i.e. in single pilot aeroplanes).

Answer 451

Need PPL & night rating, or CPL. Need 50hrs Xcty as PIC. Pass IR, CPL or ATPL theory exams.

Answer 452

Valid for 1 year Can fly in IMC to decision height no lower than 200ft. For MEIR, can go lower than 200ft if required skill test is passed.

Air Law Flashcards

(494 cards)