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Air Law 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

CAR

A

Civil Aviation Regulations - the basis for all legislation pertaining to aviation in Australia. With the backing of the Civil Aviation Act, all its requirements are enforceable by law.

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2
Q

CAO

A

Civil Aviation Orderes - CAOs expand on individual CARs and give more specific details. Are gradually being incorporated into the CARs

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3
Q

CAAP

A

Civil Aviation Advisory Publication - Contains Advice to ensure that the CARs are satisfied. e.g. CAR states you must carry sufficient fuel. The CAAPs advise on what would be considered sufficient for various flights.

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4
Q

AIP

A

Aeronautical Information Publication - Contains detailed operational information. Really good stuff like how to read a MET report. Is in full on Ozrunways

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5
Q

ERSA

A

En-route Supplement Australia, supplements the AIP and is intended for planning and in-cockpit use.

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6
Q

PPL ongoing requirements

A

biennial flight review endorsement in log book
current medical certificate
passenger carrying depending on recent flight experience?

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7
Q

medical conditions

A

if temporary and likely to last less than 30 days then do not need to notify CASA

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8
Q

Documents to be carried in flight

A

Licence and medical of each crew member
Aircraft’s maintenance release
Aircraft’s flight manual or approve alternative

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9
Q

Circuit joining from LIVE side

A

45deg to downwind or on extended base. Must reach 1000ft before joining (dont want to descend into another aircraft underneath you)

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10
Q

Circuit joining from DEAD side

A

mid-field crosswind . Join downwind somewhere between the centre and the upwind threshold

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11
Q

Circuit joining when active runway or wind not known

A

Overfly at least 500ft above circuit height (if RPT aircraft use the field then this is 2000ft). Once active runyway/circuit direction established, descend to 1000ft on the DEAD side and join midfield crosswind.

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12
Q

Joining straight in

A

Must announce intentions by 10nm. Must be established on final track by 3nm, make radio call at 3nm. Must give way to circuit traffic.

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13
Q

When must you make a radio call at non towered CTAFs?

A

taxiing
entering a runway
by 10nm inbound
before joining the circuit
overflying or in the vicinity of the aerodrome
and whenever the pilot considers it necessary in the interests of safety

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14
Q

Calls when departing…. when?

A

before entering runway nominating the runway to be used and the direction or the departure track.

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15
Q

Departure proceedure

A

Depart by extending one of the LIVE side legs or if departing contrary to circuit direction then at 3nm or 2500ft if in a high performance aircraft.

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16
Q

Visual navigation requirements

A

if not using ADF or VOF then need visual reference / positive fix to the ground or water every 30 minutes

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17
Q

VFR above cloud?

A

permitted, provided less than half the sky is covered, i.e. few or scattered and VMC is maintained during climb, en route and descent

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18
Q

VFR above cloud more than 50% coverage

A

above broken or overcast VFR pay proceed provided it is navigated by reference to approved radio navigation equipment. BUT you must be able to obtain a positive fix by reference to other navigational aids every 2 hours.

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19
Q

Time reference in the cockpit

A

Pilots must maintain a time reference accurate to within plus or minus thirty seconds

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20
Q

How far off track can you be in controlled airspace before you have to notify ATC

A

> 1nm

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21
Q

Carriage of firearms

A

Cannot be carried on private flight except with permission from CASA.
Can be carried on charter or RPT if ANR 119 is met.
-basically if there is written permission from the secretary AND it has been surrended to the opperator OR is carried by the PIC because there is a dangerous animal on the aircraft. Alternatively is the weapon forms part of the equipment of the aircraft in accordance with the flight manual.

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22
Q

Instruments required for normal VRF

A

Airspeed
Altimeter
Magnetic compass
Timepiece

If charter or airwork then also need:
turn and slip indicator
outside temp indicator if cant get from local aerodrome

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23
Q

Instruments required for VFR above >SCT cloud… essentially IFR requirement

A 
Airspeed
Altimeter
Magnetic compass
Timepiece
VSI
OAT
Artificial Horizon
DI
turn and slip indicator.
instrument to tell if power to the gyro instruments is working or not.
means to prevent icing of airspeed indicating system
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24
Q

No Radio

A

remain below 5000ft
clear of controlled airspace and CTAF
class G VMC requirements, i.e. 1000 ft above or below cloud and 1500m horizontally and 5000m vis

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25
Radio obligations
Must test before taxiing. | Must maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency from taxiing until parking at the end of the flight.
26
Charter flights outside VHF coverage must have HF equipment
.
27
Private single engine VFR over water
Obtain met forecast Carry radios to provide continuous communications while over water OR carry a survival beacon A life jacket is provided for each occupant and if below 2000ft is worn If distance from land is > 30mins at cruising speed or 100nm (whichever is less) then a life raft must be provided
28
ALT aerodromes
if going >50nm then need ALT fuel if arriving within 30mins of forecast showing more than 4/8 cloud below 1500ft or vis max for type or is prefixed with PROVISIONAL. NOTE: clouds below 1500 are cumulative e.g. SCT 0800 and FEW 1200 = BROKEN and = ALT required
29
pax brief requirement
``` Must be briefed before take off on: smoking seat belts emergency exits stowage of hand luggage and loose articles AND when applicable -use of oxygen and survival equipment ```
30
Using standard pax weights
Should not be used when less then 7 seats - use Actual weights
31
Stowage of baggage
.
32
Carriage of animals
must be in approved container
33
Carriage of dangerous goods
``` need written permission from casa: explosives flammables poisons compressed gases corrosives radioactive stuff ```
34
Obligation to obtain a MET report
All flights beyond the vicinity of the aerodrome
35
Carriage of cargo
Must be restrained. | Can be carried on seats in which there is dual controls. Must not exceed 77kg if on seats.
36
Remote area flights
must nominate a SARTIME If no ELT you cant go more than 50nm must always carry emergency equipment capable of sustaining life
37
Requirements for lifejackets/rafts on multi engine aircraft
lifejackets if >50nm from land | liferafts if >30mins at cruise speed or >100nm
38
Uncontrolled airspace is called....
Class G - "see and avoid" principle, lookout and listening watch
39
Controlled airspace is...
Class A, C, D or E
40
Class A
High performance IFR. VFR never permitted. IF radar then, 18000 - 60000 IF no radar then, 24500 - 60000
41
Class E
is beneath Class A IFR and VFR are permitted. VFR flights do not need approval, they must operate at a VFR level i.e +500ft appropriate for direction, maintain VMC, transponder on alt 1200 and listen to appropriate freq. Traffic information provided on request but no separation for VFR aircraft. IF radar then, 8500 - 18000 IF no radar then, 18000 - 24500
42
Class D CTRs - Controlled traffic regions
often in the vicinity of busy regional airports from SFC - usually 4500 in steps must establish two way communications before entering - constitutes clearance. Traffic information provided on IFR and VFR but no positive separation. No radar. Separation is called procedural separation and relies on pilots following instructions. VFR must maintain VMC.
43
Class C
above class D and below class E/A to allow IFR aircraft to transition with the protection of controlled airspace. IFR aircraft are separated from IFR and VFR aircraft. VFR aircraft are separated from IFR but just get traffic information about other VFR . SVFR are separated from other SVFR. Radar is used for separation in all class C airspace, at major airports the CTR is class C all the way to the ground.
44
Special VFR (SVFR)
in controlled airspace only. When conditions are marginal ATC can allow on request the following conditions: clear of cloud 1600m vis ....considerably less than VMC usually.
45
Approach points / diamonds are encouraged but not mandatory unless requested by ATC
.
46
Class D clearance - what to say to ATC
``` callsign type position level receipt of ATIS code intentions - transiting or inbound ```
47
Class D clearance response from ATC
``` just your callsign or overfly or report at or make visual approach or join base / straight in etc ```
48
"make visual approach"
Maintain last cleared track. Can climb or descend as necessary. Cannot alter track until within 5nm. Once within 5nm can turn to join the circuit as instructed.
49
Surface movement control - what to say
``` call sign location at aerodrome intentions dual or solo receipt of ATIS code request taxi ```
50
take off clearance
once approved by ground you can taxi and enter any run up bays as required. Once at holding point specified, you contact tower and say ready at ____
51
after landing
take first available exit unless instructed otherwise. do not turn down another runway unless instructed. may cross intersecting runways while you are still on the landing runway.
52
Circuit radio calls
unless otherwise instructed by ATC. make a downwind call including runway and intentions i.e. full stops
53
If in the vicinity of Class D
within 5nm of the boundary, monitor tower and ATIS
54
Start up clearance
Some aerodromes require this, if so it will say in the ERSA
55
Readback requirements
any assigned level any tracking points any item prefixed by amended or recleared any heading including direction of the turn any requirement or restriction any transponder mode or code setting assigned any clearance limit imposed or cancelled
56
reports class G
when communicating with a particular ground station, rare for VFR but IFR aircraft do it frequently and VFR can listen and glean information.
57
broadcasts class G
When a pilot wishes to communicate with all aircraft in the region, i.e. "all stations"
58
IRM
Serous injury or death Serous damage Missing aircraft Loss of separation when in controlled airspace Immediate telephone Written report within 72hrs
59
RRM
``` Injury other than serious Damage other than serious Flight below minimum alt A ground prox alert Rejected take off Runway incursion Failure to achieve climb performance Malfunction of an aircraft system Fuel starvation not emergent ``` ....there are lots more Written report within 72hrs
60
When instructed to climb at standard rate:
= not less than 500ft/min with the last 1000ft at 500ft/min
61
"Lane of entry"
keep to the right of the lane | AIP ENR 1.4 para 6.1.1d
62
AIDZ
general requirements and exclusions i.e. if flight does not proceed past 10nm from point of departure AIP ENR 1.12 para 1.1.4
63
PPL recent experience in order to carry passangers
3 take offs and landings in the last 90 days
64
transition altitude
10000ft with QNH set in the altimeter. You then set it to 1013.
65
VFR @ 10000ft or above? what constitutes VMC?
1000ft above or below cloud, 1500m horizontally. 8km vis
66
how can you determine the QNH when sitting in the plane on the ground?
set the altimeter to aerodrome height and read off the pressure window

PPL (5 decks)

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